2026 SESSION
INTRODUCED
26101012D
SENATE BILL NO. 826
Offered January 23, 2026
A BILL to amend and reenact §§ 1-404, 2.2-221, 2.2-509.1, 2.2-1119, 2.2-2696, 2.2-2499.8, 3.2-4113, 4.1-352, 4.1-600, 4.1-601, 4.1-603, 4.1-604, 4.1-606, 4.1-607, 4.1-611, 4.1-614, 4.1-621, 4.1-1100, 4.1-1101, 4.1-1121, 4.1-1500, 4.1-1501, 4.1-1502, 4.1-1601, 4.1-1604, 5.1-13, 9.1-1101, 16.1-69.40:1, 16.1-260, 16.1-273, 16.1-278.9, 18.2-46.1, 18.2-247, 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-251, 18.2-251.03, 18.2-251.1:1, 18.2-251.1:2, 18.2-251.1:3, 18.2-252, 18.2-254, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.1, 18.2-255.2, 18.2-258, 18.2-258.02, 18.2-258.1, 18.2-265.1, 18.2-265.2, 18.2-265.3, 18.2-287.2, 18.2-308.012, 18.2-308.4, 18.2-460, 18.2-474.1, 19.2-66, 19.2-81, 19.2-81.1, 19.2-83.1, 19.2-188.1, 19.2-303.01, 19.2-386.22 through 19.2-386.25, 19.2-389, as it is currently effective and as it shall become effective, 19.2-389.3, 19.2-392.02, 19.2-392.6, 19.2-392.12:1, 22.1-206, 22.1-277.08, 23.1-1301, 46.2-105.2, 46.2-347, 48-17.1, 53.1-231.2, 54.1-2903, 54.1-3443, 58.1-301, 59.1-200, 65.2-107, 65.2-402, and 65.2-402.1 of the Code of Virginia; to amend the Code of Virginia by adding in Chapter 6 of Title 4.1 sections numbered 4.1-629, 4.1-630, and 4.1-631, by adding in Title 4.1 chapters numbered 7 through 10, consisting of sections numbered 4.1-700 through 4.1-1008, by adding sections numbered 4.1-1102 through 4.1-1105, 4.1-1106, 4.1-1113, 4.1-1114, 4.1-1115, 4.1-1117, 4.1-1118, and 4.1-1119, by adding in Title 4.1 a chapter numbered 12, consisting of sections numbered 4.1-1200 through 4.1-1206, by adding in Chapter 13 of Title 4.1 sections numbered 4.1-1300, 4.1-1301, and 4.1-1303 through 4.1-1309, by adding in Chapter 14 of Title 4.1 sections numbered 4.1-1403 through 4.1-1406, by adding in Article 2 of Chapter 1 of Title 6.2 a section numbered 6.2-108, and by adding in Chapter 44 of Title 54.1 a section numbered 54.1-4426; and to repeal §§ 4.1-1101.1, 4.1-1105.1, 18.2-248.1, and 18.2-251.1 of the Code of Virginia, relating to taxation, revenues, and cannabis.
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Patron—Lucas
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Referred to Committee on Finance and Appropriations
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Be it enacted by the General Assembly of Virginia:
1. That §§ 1-404, 2.2-221, 2.2-509.1, 2.2-1119, 2.2-2696, 2.2-2499.8, 3.2-4113, 4.1-352, 4.1-600, 4.1-601, 4.1-603, 4.1-604, 4.1-606, 4.1-607, 4.1-611, 4.1-614, 4.1-621, 4.1-1100, 4.1-1101, 4.1-1121, 4.1-1500, 4.1-1501, 4.1-1502, 4.1-1601, 4.1-1604, 5.1-13, 9.1-1101, 16.1-69.40:1, 16.1-260, 16.1-273, 16.1-278.9, 18.2-46.1, 18.2-247, 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-251, 18.2-251.03, 18.2-251.1:1, 18.2-251.1:2, 18.2-251.1:3, 18.2-252, 18.2-254, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.1, 18.2-255.2, 18.2-258, 18.2-258.02, 18.2-258.1, 18.2-265.1, 18.2-265.2, 18.2-265.3, 18.2-287.2, 18.2-308.012, 18.2-308.4, 18.2-460, 18.2-474.1, 19.2-66, 19.2-81, 19.2-81.1, 19.2-83.1, 19.2-188.1, 19.2-303.01, 19.2-386.22 through 19.2-386.25, 19.2-389, as it is currently effective and as it shall become effective, 19.2-389.3, 19.2-392.02, 19.2-392.6, 19.2-392.12:1, 22.1-206, 22.1-277.08, 23.1-1301, 46.2-105.2, 46.2-347, 48-17.1, 53.1-231.2, 54.1-2903, 54.1-3443, 58.1-301, 59.1-200, 65.2-107, 65.2-402, and 65.2-402.1 of the Code of Virginia are amended and reenacted and that the Code of Virginia is amended by adding in Chapter 6 of Title 4.1 sections numbered 4.1-629, 4.1-630, and 4.1-631, by adding in Title 4.1 chapters numbered 7 through 10, consisting of sections numbered 4.1-700 through 4.1-1008, by adding sections numbered 4.1-1102 through 4.1-1105, 4.1-1106, 4.1-1113, 4.1-1114, 4.1-1115, 4.1-1117, 4.1-1118, and 4.1-1119, by adding in Title 4.1 a chapter numbered 12, consisting of sections numbered 4.1-1200 through 4.1-1206, by adding in Chapter 13 of Title 4.1 sections numbered 4.1-1300, 4.1-1301, and 4.1-1303 through 4.1-1309, by adding in Chapter 14 of Title 4.1 sections numbered 4.1-1403 through 4.1-1406, by adding in Article 2 of Chapter 1 of Title 6.2 a section numbered 6.2-108, and by adding in Chapter 44 of Title 54.1 a section numbered 54.1-4426 as follows:
§ 1-404. Licensing sale of mixed alcoholic beverages on lands ceded to or owned by United States.
The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority may license the sale of mixed alcoholic beverages as defined in Chapter 1 (§ 4.1-100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 at places primarily engaged in the sale of meals on lands ceded by the Commonwealth to the United States or owned by the government of the United States or any agency thereof provided that such lands are used as ports of entry or egress to and from the United States, and provided that such lands lie within or partly within the boundaries of any county in this Commonwealth which permits the lawful dispensing of mixed alcoholic beverages. The Board of Directors of the Authority may adopt rules and regulations governing the sale of such spirits, and to fix the fees for such licenses, within the limits fixed by general law.
§ 2.2-221. Position established; agencies for which responsible; additional powers and duties.
A. The position of Secretary of Public Safety and Homeland Security (the Secretary) is created. The Secretary shall be responsible to the Governor for the following agencies: the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, Department of Corrections, Department of Juvenile Justice, Department of Criminal Justice Services, Department of Forensic Science, Virginia Parole Board, Department of Emergency Management, Department of State Police, Department of Fire Programs, and Commonwealth's Attorneys' Services Council. The Governor may, by executive order, assign any other state executive agency to the Secretary, or reassign any agency listed above to another Secretary.
B. The Secretary shall by reason of professional background have knowledge of law enforcement, public safety, or emergency management and preparedness issues, in addition to familiarity with the structure and operations of the federal government and of the Commonwealth.
Unless the Governor expressly reserves such power to himself, the Secretary shall:
1. Work with and through others, including federal, state, and local officials as well as the private sector, to develop a seamless, coordinated security and preparedness strategy and implementation plan.
2. Serve as the point of contact with the federal Department of Homeland Security.
3. Provide oversight, coordination, and review of all disaster, emergency management, and terrorism management plans for the state and its agencies in coordination with the Virginia Department of Emergency Management and other applicable state agencies.
4. Work with federal officials to obtain additional federal resources and coordinate policy development and information exchange.
5. Work with and through appropriate members of the Governor's Cabinet to coordinate working relationships between state agencies and take all actions necessary to ensure that available federal and state resources are directed toward safeguarding Virginia and its citizens.
6. Designate a Commonwealth Interoperability Coordinator to ensure that all communications-related preparedness federal grant requests from state agencies and localities are used to enhance interoperability. The Secretary shall ensure that the annual review and update of the statewide interoperability strategic plan is conducted as required in § 2.2-222.2. The Commonwealth Interoperability Coordinator shall establish an advisory group consisting of representatives of state and local government and constitutional offices, broadly distributed across the Commonwealth, who are actively engaged in activities and functions related to communications interoperability.
7. Serve as one of the Governor's representatives on regional efforts to develop a coordinated security and preparedness strategy, including the National Capital Region Senior Policy Group organized as part of the federal Urban Areas Security Initiative.
8. Serve as a direct liaison between the Governor and local governments and first responders on issues of emergency prevention, preparedness, response, and recovery.
9. Educate the public on homeland security and overall preparedness issues in coordination with applicable state agencies.
10. Serve as chairman of the Secure and Resilient Commonwealth Panel.
11. Encourage homeland security volunteer efforts throughout the state.
12. Coordinate the development of an allocation formula for State Homeland Security Grant Program funds to localities and state agencies in compliance with federal grant guidance and constraints. The formula shall be, to the extent permissible under federal constraints, based on actual risk, threat, and need.
13. Work with the appropriate state agencies to ensure that regional working groups are meeting regularly and focusing on regional initiatives in training, equipment, and strategy to ensure ready access to response teams in times of emergency and facilitate testing and training exercises for emergencies and mass casualty preparedness.
14. Provide oversight and review of the Virginia Department of Emergency Management's annual statewide assessment of local and regional capabilities, including equipment, training, personnel, response times, and other factors.
15. Employ, as needed, consultants, attorneys, architects, engineers, accountants, financial experts, investment bankers, superintendents, managers, and such other employees and agents as may be necessary, and fix their compensation to be payable from funds made available for that purpose.
16. Receive and accept from any federal or private agency, foundation, corporation, association, or person grants, donations of money, real property, or personal property for the benefit of the Commonwealth, and receive and accept from the Commonwealth or any state, any municipality, county, or other political subdivision thereof, or any other source, aid or contributions of money, property, or other things of value, to be held, used, and applied for the purposes for which such grants and contributions may be made.
17. Receive and accept from any source aid, grants, and contributions of money, property, labor, or other things of value to be held, used, and applied to carry out these requirements subject to the conditions upon which the aid, grants, or contributions are made.
18. Make grants to local governments, state and federal agencies, and private entities with any funds of the Secretary available for such purpose.
19. Provide oversight and review of the law-enforcement operations of the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority.
20. Take any actions necessary or convenient to the exercise of the powers granted or reasonably implied to this Secretary and not otherwise inconsistent with the law of the Commonwealth.
§ 2.2-509.1. Powers of investigators; enforcement of certain tobacco laws.
Investigators with the Office of the Attorney General as designated by the Attorney General shall be authorized to seize cigarettes as defined in § 3.2-4200 that are sold, possessed, distributed, transported, imported, or otherwise held in violation of § 3.2-4207, 18.2-246.14, 58.1-1015, 58.1-1017, or 58.1-1037. In addition, such investigators shall be authorized to accompany and participate with special agents of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority or other law-enforcement officials engaging in an enforcement action under § 3.2-4207, 18.2-246.14, 58.1-1015, 58.1-1017, or 58.1-1037.
§ 2.2-511. Criminal cases.
A. Unless specifically requested by the Governor to do so, the Attorney General shall have no authority to institute or conduct criminal prosecutions in the circuit courts of the Commonwealth except in cases involving (i) violations of the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Act (§ 4.1-100 et seq.), (ii) violation of laws relating to elections and the electoral process as provided in § 24.2-104, (iii) violation of laws relating to motor vehicles and their operation, (iv) the handling of funds by a state bureau, institution, commission or department, (v) the theft of state property, (vi) violation of the criminal laws involving child pornography and sexually explicit visual material involving children, (vii) the practice of law without being duly authorized or licensed or the illegal practice of law, (viii) violations of § 3.2-4212 or 58.1-1008.2, (ix) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, violations of the Virginia Computer Crimes Act (§ 18.2-152.1 et seq.), (x) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, violations of the Air Pollution Control Law (§ 10.1-1300 et seq.), the Virginia Waste Management Act (§ 10.1-1400 et seq.), and the State Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq.), (xi) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, violations of Chapters 2 (§ 18.2-18 et seq.), 3 (§ 18.2-22 et seq.), and 10 (§ 18.2-434 et seq.) of Title 18.2, if such crimes relate to violations of law listed in clause (x) of this subsection, (xii) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, criminal violations by Medicaid providers or their employees in the course of doing business, or violations of Chapter 13 (§ 18.2-512 et seq.) of Title 18.2, in which cases the Attorney General may leave the prosecution to the local attorney for the Commonwealth, or he may institute proceedings by information, presentment or indictment, as appropriate, and conduct the same, (xiii) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, violations of Article 9 (§ 18.2-246.1 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 18.2, (xiv) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, assisting in the prosecution of violations of §§ 18.2-186.3 and 18.2-186.4, (xv) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, assisting in the prosecution of violations of § 18.2-46.2, 18.2-46.3, or 18.2-46.5 when such violations are committed on the grounds of a state correctional facility, and (xvi) with the concurrence of the local attorney for the Commonwealth, assisting in the prosecution of violations of Article 10 (§ 18.2-246.6 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 18.2.
In all other criminal cases in the circuit courts, except where the law provides otherwise, the authority of the Attorney General to appear or participate in the proceedings shall attach when the appellate court receives the record after a notice of appeal has been filed with the clerk of the circuit court noting an appeal to the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court. In all criminal cases before the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court in which the Commonwealth is a party or is directly interested, the Attorney General shall appear and represent the Commonwealth upon receipt of the record in the appellate court, unless, and with the consent of the Attorney General, the attorney for the Commonwealth who prosecuted the underlying criminal case files a notice of appearance to represent the Commonwealth in any such appeal. However, in an appeal regarding bail, bond, or recognizance pursuant to Article 1 (§ 19.2-119 et seq.) of Chapter 9 of Title 19.2 or subsection B of § 19.2-398, the attorney for the Commonwealth who prosecuted the underlying criminal case shall continue to represent the Commonwealth on appeal.
B. The Attorney General shall, upon request of a person who was the victim of a crime and subject to such reasonable procedures as the Attorney General may require, ensure that such person is given notice of the filing, of the date, time and place and of the disposition of any appeal or habeas corpus proceeding involving the cases in which such person was a victim. For the purposes of this section, a victim is an individual who has suffered physical, psychological or economic harm as a direct result of the commission of a crime; a spouse, child, parent or legal guardian of a minor or incapacitated victim; or a spouse, child, parent or legal guardian of a victim of a homicide. Nothing in this subsection shall confer upon any person a right to appeal or modify any decision in a criminal, appellate or habeas corpus proceeding; abridge any right guaranteed by law; or create any cause of action for damages against the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions, the Attorney General or any of his employees or agents, any other officer, employee or agent of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions, or any officer of the court.
§ 2.2-1119. Cases in which purchasing through Division not mandatory.
A. Unless otherwise ordered by the Governor, the purchasing of materials, equipment, supplies, and nonprofessional services through the Division shall not be mandatory in the following cases:
1. Materials, equipment and supplies incident to the performance of a contract for labor or for labor and materials;
2. Manuscripts, maps, audiovisual materials, books, pamphlets and periodicals purchased for the use of The Library of Virginia or any other library in the Commonwealth supported in whole or in part by state funds;
3. Perishable articles, provided that no article except fresh vegetables, fish, eggs or milk shall be considered perishable within the meaning of this subdivision, unless so classified by the Division;
4. Materials, equipment and supplies needed by the Commonwealth Transportation Board; however, this exception may include, office stationery and supplies, office equipment, janitorial equipment and supplies, and coal and fuel oil for heating purposes shall not be included except when authorized in writing by the Division;
5. Materials, equipment, and supplies needed by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, including office stationery and supplies, office equipment, and janitorial equipment and supplies; however, coal and fuel oil for heating purposes shall not be included except when authorized in writing by the Division;
6. Binding and rebinding of the books and other literary materials of libraries operated by the Commonwealth or under its authority;
7. Printing of the records of the Supreme Court; and
8. Financial services, including without limitation, underwriters, financial advisors, investment advisors and banking services.
B. Telecommunications and information technology goods and services of every description shall be procured as provided by § 2.2-2012.
CANNABIS EQUITY REINVESTMENT BOARD SECTIONS
§ 2.2-2696. Virginia Addiction Recovery Council.
A. The Virginia Addiction Recovery Council (the Council) is established as an advisory council, within the meaning of § 2.2-2100, in the executive branch of state government. The purpose of the Council is to advise and make recommendations to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services on broad policies and goals and on the coordination of the Commonwealth's public and private efforts to control substance abuse, as defined in § 37.2-100, and problem gambling, as defined in § 37.2-314.2.
B. The Council shall consist of 32 members. Four members of the House of Delegates shall be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Delegates, in accordance with the principles of proportional representation contained in the Rules of the House of Delegates, and two members of the Senate shall be appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules. The Governor shall appoint one member representing the Virginia Sheriffs' Association, one member representing the Virginia Drug Courts Association, one member representing the Substance Abuse Certification Alliance of Virginia, two members representing the Virginia Association of Community Services Boards, two members representing the problem gambling recovery community, one member representing the board of directors of the Opioid Abatement Authority established pursuant to § 2.2-2367, and two members representing statewide consumer and advocacy organizations. The Council shall also include the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services; the Commissioner of Health; the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles; the Superintendent of Public Instruction; the Directors of the Departments of Juvenile Justice, Corrections, Criminal Justice Services, Medical Assistance Services, and Social Services; the Chief Executive Officer of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority; the Executive Director of the Virginia Foundation for Healthy Youth or his designee; the Executive Director of the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program or his designee; and the chairs or their designees of the Virginia Association of Drug and Alcohol Programs, the Virginia Association of Addiction Professionals, and the Substance Abuse Council and the Prevention Task Force of the Virginia Association of Community Services Boards.
C. Appointments of legislative members and heads of agencies or representatives of organizations shall be for terms consistent with their terms of office. Beginning July 1, 2011, the Governor's appointments of the seven nonlegislative citizen members shall be staggered as follows: two members for a term of one year, three members for a term of two years, and two members for a term of three years. Thereafter, appointments of nonlegislative members shall be for terms of three years, except an appointment to fill a vacancy, which shall be for the unexpired term. The Governor shall appoint a chairman from among the members for a two-year term. No member shall be eligible to serve more than two consecutive terms as chairman.
No person shall be eligible to serve more than two successive terms, provided that a person appointed to fill a vacancy may serve two full successive terms.
D. The Council shall meet at least four times annually and more often if deemed necessary or advisable by the chairman.
E. Members of the Council shall receive no compensation for their services but shall be reimbursed for all reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as provided in §§ 2.2-2813 and 2.2-2825. Funding for the cost of expenses shall be provided by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
F. The duties of the Council shall be:
1. To recommend policies and goals to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the State Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services;
2. To coordinate agency programs and activities, to prevent duplication of functions, and to combine all agency plans into a comprehensive interagency state plan for substance abuse and problem gambling services;
3. To review and comment on annual state agency budget requests regarding substance abuse or problem gambling and on all applications for state or federal funds or services to be used in substance abuse or problem gambling programs;
4. To define responsibilities among state agencies for various programs for persons with substance abuse or problem gambling and to encourage cooperation among agencies; and
5. To make investigations, issue annual reports to the Governor and the General Assembly, and make recommendations relevant to substance abuse and problem gambling upon the request of the Governor.
G. Staff assistance shall be provided to the Council by the Office of Substance Abuse Services of the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services.
§ 2.2-2818. Health and related insurance for state employees.
A. The Department of Human Resource Management shall establish a plan, subject to the approval of the Governor, for providing health insurance coverage, including chiropractic treatment, hospitalization, medical, surgical, and major medical coverage, for state employees and retired state employees with the Commonwealth paying the cost thereof to the extent of the coverage included in such plan. The same plan shall be offered to all part-time state employees, but the total cost shall be paid by such part-time employees. The Department of Human Resource Management shall administer this section. The plan chosen shall provide means whereby coverage for the families or dependents of state employees may be purchased. Except for part-time employees, the Commonwealth may pay all or a portion of the cost thereof, and for such portion as the Commonwealth does not pay, the employee, including a part-time employee, may purchase the coverage by paying the additional cost over the cost of coverage for an employee.
Such contribution shall be financed through appropriations provided by law.
B. The plan shall:
1. Include coverage for low-dose screening mammograms for determining the presence of occult breast cancer. Such coverage shall make available one screening mammogram to persons age 35 through 39, one such mammogram biennially to persons age 40 through 49, and one such mammogram annually to persons age 50 and over and may be limited to a benefit of $50 per mammogram subject to such dollar limits, deductibles, and coinsurance factors as are no less favorable than for physical illness generally.
The term "mammogram" shall mean an X-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including but not limited to the X-ray tube, filter, compression device, screens, film, and cassettes, with an average radiation exposure of less than one rad mid-breast, two views of each breast.
In order to be considered a screening mammogram for which coverage shall be made available under this section:
a. The mammogram shall be (i) ordered by a health care practitioner acting within the scope of his licensure and, in the case of an enrollee of a health maintenance organization, by the health maintenance organization provider; (ii) performed by a registered technologist; (iii) interpreted by a qualified radiologist; and (iv) performed under the direction of a person licensed to practice medicine and surgery and certified by the American Board of Radiology or an equivalent examining body. A copy of the mammogram report shall be sent or delivered to the health care practitioner who ordered it;
b. The equipment used to perform the mammogram shall meet the standards set forth by the Virginia Department of Health in its radiation protection regulations; and
c. The mammography film shall be retained by the radiologic facility performing the examination in accordance with the American College of Radiology guidelines or state law.
2. Include coverage for postpartum services providing inpatient care and a home visit or visits that shall be in accordance with the medical criteria, outlined in the most current version of or an official update to the "Guidelines for Perinatal Care" prepared by the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists or the "Standards for Obstetric-Gynecologic Services" prepared by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Such coverage shall be provided incorporating any changes in such Guidelines or Standards within six months of the publication of such Guidelines or Standards or any official amendment thereto.
3. Include an appeals process for resolution of complaints that shall provide reasonable procedures for the resolution of such complaints and shall be published and disseminated to all covered state employees. The appeals process shall be compliant with federal rules and regulations governing nonfederal, self-insured governmental health plans. The appeals process shall include a separate expedited emergency appeals procedure that shall provide resolution within time frames established by federal law. For appeals involving adverse decisions as defined in § 32.1-137.7, the Department shall contract with one or more independent review organizations to review such decisions. Independent review organizations are entities that conduct independent external review of adverse benefit determinations. The Department shall adopt regulations to assure that the independent review organization conducting the reviews has adequate standards, credentials and experience for such review. The independent review organization shall examine the final denial of claims to determine whether the decision is objective, clinically valid, and compatible with established principles of health care. The decision of the independent review organization shall (i) be in writing, (ii) contain findings of fact as to the material issues in the case and the basis for those findings, and (iii) be final and binding if consistent with law and policy.
Prior to assigning an appeal to an independent review organization, the Department shall verify that the independent review organization conducting the review of a denial of claims has no relationship or association with (i) the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative; (ii) the treating health care provider, or any of its employees or affiliates; (iii) the medical care facility at which the covered service would be provided, or any of its employees or affiliates; or (iv) the development or manufacture of the drug, device, procedure, or other therapy that is the subject of the final denial of a claim. The independent review organization shall not be a subsidiary of, nor owned or controlled by, a health plan, a trade association of health plans, or a professional association of health care providers. There shall be no liability on the part of and no cause of action shall arise against any officer or employee of an independent review organization for any actions taken or not taken or statements made by such officer or employee in good faith in the performance of his powers and duties.
4. Include coverage for early intervention services. For purposes of this section, "early intervention services" means medically necessary speech and language therapy, occupational therapy, physical therapy and assistive technology services and devices for dependents from birth to age three who are certified by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services as eligible for services under Part H of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. § 1471 et seq.). Medically necessary early intervention services for the population certified by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services shall mean those services designed to help an individual attain or retain the capability to function age-appropriately within his environment, and shall include services that enhance functional ability without effecting a cure.
For persons previously covered under the plan, there shall be no denial of coverage due to the existence of a preexisting condition. The cost of early intervention services shall not be applied to any contractual provision limiting the total amount of coverage paid by the insurer to or on behalf of the insured during the insured's lifetime.
5. Include coverage for prescription drugs and devices approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for use as contraceptives.
6. Not deny coverage for any drug approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for use in the treatment of cancer on the basis that the drug has not been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of the specific type of cancer for which the drug has been prescribed, if the drug has been recognized as safe and effective for treatment of that specific type of cancer in one of the standard reference compendia.
7. Not deny coverage for any drug prescribed to treat a covered indication so long as the drug has been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for at least one indication and the drug is recognized for treatment of the covered indication in one of the standard reference compendia or in substantially accepted peer-reviewed medical literature.
8. Include coverage for equipment, supplies, and outpatient self-management training and education, including medical nutrition therapy, for the treatment of insulin-dependent diabetes, insulin-using diabetes, gestational diabetes, and noninsulin-using diabetes if prescribed by a health care professional legally authorized to prescribe such items under law. To qualify for coverage under this subdivision, diabetes outpatient self-management training and education shall be provided by a certified, registered, or licensed health care professional.
9. Include coverage for reconstructive breast surgery. For purposes of this section, "reconstructive breast surgery" means surgery performed on and after July 1, 1998, (i) coincident with a mastectomy performed for breast cancer or (ii) following a mastectomy performed for breast cancer to reestablish symmetry between the two breasts. For persons previously covered under the plan, there shall be no denial of coverage due to preexisting conditions.
10. Include coverage for annual pap smears, including coverage, on and after July 1, 1999, for annual testing performed by any FDA-approved gynecologic cytology screening technologies.
11. Include coverage providing a minimum stay in the hospital of not less than 48 hours for a patient following a radical or modified radical mastectomy and 24 hours of inpatient care following a total mastectomy or a partial mastectomy with lymph node dissection for treatment of breast cancer. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as requiring the provision of inpatient coverage where the attending physician in consultation with the patient determines that a shorter period of hospital stay is appropriate.
12. Include coverage (i) to persons age 50 and over and (ii) to persons age 40 and over who are at high risk for prostate cancer, according to the most recent published guidelines of the American Cancer Society, for one prostate-specific antigen test in a 12-month period and digital rectal examinations.
13. Permit any individual covered under the plan direct access to the health care services of a participating specialist (i) authorized to provide services under the plan and (ii) selected by the covered individual. The plan shall have a procedure by which an individual who has an ongoing special condition may, after consultation with the primary care physician, receive a referral to a specialist for such condition who shall be responsible for and capable of providing and coordinating the individual's primary and specialty care related to the initial specialty care referral. If such an individual's care would most appropriately be coordinated by such a specialist, the plan shall refer the individual to a specialist. For the purposes of this subdivision, "special condition" means a condition or disease that is (i) life-threatening, degenerative, or disabling and (ii) requires specialized medical care over a prolonged period of time. Within the treatment period authorized by the referral, such specialist shall be permitted to treat the individual without a further referral from the individual's primary care provider and may authorize such referrals, procedures, tests, and other medical services related to the initial referral as the individual's primary care provider would otherwise be permitted to provide or authorize. The plan shall have a procedure by which an individual who has an ongoing special condition that requires ongoing care from a specialist may receive a standing referral to such specialist for the treatment of the special condition. If the primary care provider, in consultation with the plan and the specialist, if any, determines that such a standing referral is appropriate, the plan or issuer shall make such a referral to a specialist. Nothing contained herein shall prohibit the plan from requiring a participating specialist to provide written notification to the covered individual's primary care physician of any visit to such specialist. Such notification may include a description of the health care services rendered at the time of the visit.
14. Include provisions allowing employees to continue receiving health care services for a period of up to 90 days from the date of the primary care physician's notice of termination from any of the plan's provider panels. The plan shall notify any provider at least 90 days prior to the date of termination of the provider, except when the provider is terminated for cause.
For a period of at least 90 days from the date of the notice of a provider's termination from any of the plan's provider panels, except when a provider is terminated for cause, a provider shall be permitted by the plan to render health care services to any of the covered employees who (i) were in an active course of treatment from the provider prior to the notice of termination and (ii) request to continue receiving health care services from the provider.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this subdivision, any provider shall be permitted by the plan to continue rendering health services to any covered employee who has entered the second trimester of pregnancy at the time of the provider's termination of participation, except when a provider is terminated for cause. Such treatment shall, at the covered employee's option, continue through the provision of postpartum care directly related to the delivery.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this subdivision, any provider shall be permitted to continue rendering health services to any covered employee who is determined to be terminally ill (as defined under § 1861(dd)(3)(A) of the Social Security Act) at the time of a provider's termination of participation, except when a provider is terminated for cause. Such treatment shall, at the covered employee's option, continue for the remainder of the employee's life for care directly related to the treatment of the terminal illness.
A provider who continues to render health care services pursuant to this subdivision shall be reimbursed in accordance with the carrier's agreement with such provider existing immediately before the provider's termination of participation.
15. Include coverage for patient costs incurred during participation in clinical trials for treatment studies on cancer, including ovarian cancer trials.
The reimbursement for patient costs incurred during participation in clinical trials for treatment studies on cancer shall be determined in the same manner as reimbursement is determined for other medical and surgical procedures. Such coverage shall have durational limits, dollar limits, deductibles, copayments, and coinsurance factors that are no less favorable than for physical illness generally.
For purposes of this subdivision:
"Cooperative group" means a formal network of facilities that collaborate on research projects and have an established NIH-approved peer review program operating within the group. "Cooperative group" includes (i) the National Cancer Institute Clinical Cooperative Group and (ii) the National Cancer Institute Community Clinical Oncology Program.
"FDA" means the Federal Food and Drug Administration.
"Multiple project assurance contract" means a contract between an institution and the federal Department of Health and Human Services that defines the relationship of the institution to the federal Department of Health and Human Services and sets out the responsibilities of the institution and the procedures that will be used by the institution to protect human subjects.
"NCI" means the National Cancer Institute.
"NIH" means the National Institutes of Health.
"Patient" means a person covered under the plan established pursuant to this section.
"Patient cost" means the cost of a medically necessary health care service that is incurred as a result of the treatment being provided to a patient for purposes of a clinical trial. "Patient cost" does not include (i) the cost of nonhealth care services that a patient may be required to receive as a result of the treatment being provided for purposes of a clinical trial, (ii) costs associated with managing the research associated with the clinical trial, or (iii) the cost of the investigational drug or device.
Coverage for patient costs incurred during clinical trials for treatment studies on cancer shall be provided if the treatment is being conducted in a Phase II, Phase III, or Phase IV clinical trial. Such treatment may, however, be provided on a case-by-case basis if the treatment is being provided in a Phase I clinical trial.
The treatment described in the previous paragraph shall be provided by a clinical trial approved by:
a. The National Cancer Institute;
b. An NCI cooperative group or an NCI center;
c. The FDA in the form of an investigational new drug application;
d. The federal Department of Veterans Affairs; or
e. An institutional review board of an institution in the Commonwealth that has a multiple project assurance contract approved by the Office of Protection from Research Risks of the NCI.
The facility and personnel providing the treatment shall be capable of doing so by virtue of their experience, training, and expertise.
Coverage under this subdivision shall apply only if:
(1) There is no clearly superior, noninvestigational treatment alternative;
(2) The available clinical or preclinical data provide a reasonable expectation that the treatment will be at least as effective as the noninvestigational alternative; and
(3) The patient and the physician or health care provider who provides services to the patient under the plan conclude that the patient's participation in the clinical trial would be appropriate, pursuant to procedures established by the plan.
16. Include coverage providing a minimum stay in the hospital of not less than 23 hours for a covered employee following a laparoscopy-assisted vaginal hysterectomy and 48 hours for a covered employee following a vaginal hysterectomy, as outlined in Milliman & Robertson's nationally recognized guidelines. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as requiring the provision of the total hours referenced when the attending physician, in consultation with the covered employee, determines that a shorter hospital stay is appropriate.
17. Include coverage for biologically based mental illness.
For purposes of this subdivision, a "biologically based mental illness" is any mental or nervous condition caused by a biological disorder of the brain that results in a clinically significant syndrome that substantially limits the person's functioning; specifically, the following diagnoses are defined as biologically based mental illness as they apply to adults and children: schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, bipolar disorder, major depressive disorder, panic disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, autism, and drug and alcoholism addiction.
Coverage for biologically based mental illnesses shall neither be different nor separate from coverage for any other illness, condition, or disorder for purposes of determining deductibles, benefit year or lifetime durational limits, benefit year or lifetime dollar limits, lifetime episodes or treatment limits, copayment and coinsurance factors, and benefit year maximum for deductibles and copayment and coinsurance factors.
Nothing shall preclude the undertaking of usual and customary procedures to determine the appropriateness of, and medical necessity for, treatment of biologically based mental illnesses under this option, provided that all such appropriateness and medical necessity determinations are made in the same manner as those determinations made for the treatment of any other illness, condition, or disorder covered by such policy or contract.
18. Offer and make available coverage for the treatment of morbid obesity through gastric bypass surgery or such other methods as may be recognized by the National Institutes of Health as effective for the long-term reversal of morbid obesity. Such coverage shall have durational limits, dollar limits, deductibles, copayments, and coinsurance factors that are no less favorable than for physical illness generally. Access to surgery for morbid obesity shall not be restricted based upon dietary or any other criteria not approved by the National Institutes of Health. For purposes of this subdivision, "morbid obesity" means (i) a weight that is at least 100 pounds over or twice the ideal weight for frame, age, height, and gender as specified in the 1983 Metropolitan Life Insurance tables, (ii) a body mass index (BMI) equal to or greater than 35 kilograms per meter squared with comorbidity or coexisting medical conditions such as hypertension, cardiopulmonary conditions, sleep apnea, or diabetes, or (iii) a BMI of 40 kilograms per meter squared without such comorbidity. As used herein, "BMI" equals weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared.
19. Include coverage for colorectal cancer screening, specifically screening with an annual fecal occult blood test, flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy, or in appropriate circumstances radiologic imaging, in accordance with the most recently published recommendations established by the American College of Gastroenterology, in consultation with the American Cancer Society, for the ages, family histories, and frequencies referenced in such recommendations. The coverage for colorectal cancer screening shall not be more restrictive than or separate from coverage provided for any other illness, condition, or disorder for purposes of determining deductibles, benefit year or lifetime durational limits, benefit year or lifetime dollar limits, lifetime episodes or treatment limits, copayment and coinsurance factors, and benefit year maximum for deductibles and copayments and coinsurance factors.
20. On and after July 1, 2002, require that a prescription benefit card, health insurance benefit card, or other technology that complies with the requirements set forth in § 38.2-3407.4:2 be issued to each employee provided coverage pursuant to this section, and shall upon any changes in the required data elements set forth in subsection A of § 38.2-3407.4:2, either reissue the card or provide employees covered under the plan such corrective information as may be required to electronically process a prescription claim.
21. Include coverage for infant hearing screenings and all necessary audiological examinations provided pursuant to § 32.1-64.1 using any technology approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, and as recommended by the national Joint Committee on Infant Hearing in its most current position statement addressing early hearing detection and intervention programs. Such coverage shall include follow-up audiological examinations as recommended by a physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or an audiologist and performed by a licensed audiologist to confirm the existence or absence of hearing loss.
22. Notwithstanding any provision of this section to the contrary, every plan established in accordance with this section shall comply with the provisions of § 2.2-2818.2.
C. Claims incurred during a fiscal year but not reported during that fiscal year shall be paid from such funds as shall be appropriated by law. Appropriations, premiums, and other payments shall be deposited in the employee health insurance fund, from which payments for claims, premiums, cost containment programs, and administrative expenses shall be withdrawn from time to time. The funds of the health insurance fund shall be deemed separate and independent trust funds, shall be segregated from all other funds of the Commonwealth, and shall be invested and administered solely in the interests of the employees and their beneficiaries. Neither the General Assembly nor any public officer, employee, or agency shall use or authorize the use of such trust funds for any purpose other than as provided in law for benefits, refunds, and administrative expenses, including but not limited to legislative oversight of the health insurance fund.
D. For the purposes of this section:
"Peer-reviewed medical literature" means a scientific study published only after having been critically reviewed for scientific accuracy, validity, and reliability by unbiased independent experts in a journal that has been determined by the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors to have met the Uniform Requirements for Manuscripts submitted to biomedical journals. "Peer-reviewed medical literature" does not include publications or supplements to publications that are sponsored to a significant extent by a pharmaceutical manufacturing company or health carrier.
"Standard reference compendia" means:
1. American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information;
2. National Comprehensive Cancer Network's Drugs & Biologics Compendium; or
3. Elsevier Gold Standard's Clinical Pharmacology.
"State employee" means state employee as defined in § 51.1-124.3; employee as defined in § 51.1-201; the Governor, Lieutenant Governor and Attorney General; judge as defined in § 51.1-301 and judges, clerks, and deputy clerks of regional juvenile and domestic relations, county juvenile and domestic relations, and district courts of the Commonwealth; interns and residents employed by the School of Medicine and Hospital of the University of Virginia, and interns, residents, and employees of the Virginia Commonwealth University Health System Authority as provided in § 23.1-2415; and employees of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority as provided in § 4.1-101.05.
E. Provisions shall be made for retired employees to obtain coverage under the above plan, including, as an option, coverage for vision and dental care. The Commonwealth may, but shall not be obligated to, pay all or any portion of the cost thereof.
F. Any self-insured group health insurance plan established by the Department of Human Resource Management that utilizes a network of preferred providers shall not exclude any physician solely on the basis of a reprimand or censure from the Board of Medicine, so long as the physician otherwise meets the plan criteria established by the Department.
G. The plan shall include, in each planning district, at least two health coverage options, each sponsored by unrelated entities. No later than July 1, 2006, one of the health coverage options to be available in each planning district shall be a high deductible health plan that would qualify for a health savings account pursuant to § 223 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
In each planning district that does not have an available health coverage alternative, the Department shall voluntarily enter into negotiations at any time with any health coverage provider who seeks to provide coverage under the plan.
This subsection shall not apply to any state agency authorized by the Department to establish and administer its own health insurance coverage plan separate from the plan established by the Department.
H. Any self-insured group health insurance plan established by the Department of Human Resource Management that includes coverage for prescription drugs on an outpatient basis may apply a formulary to the prescription drug benefits provided by the plan if the formulary is developed, reviewed at least annually, and updated as necessary in consultation with and with the approval of a pharmacy and therapeutics committee, a majority of whose members are actively practicing licensed (i) pharmacists, (ii) physicians, and (iii) other health care providers.
If the plan maintains one or more drug formularies, the plan shall establish a process to allow a person to obtain, without additional cost-sharing beyond that provided for formulary prescription drugs in the plan, a specific, medically necessary nonformulary prescription drug if, after reasonable investigation and consultation with the prescriber, the formulary drug is determined to be an inappropriate therapy for the medical condition of the person. The plan shall act on such requests within one business day of receipt of the request.
Any plan established in accordance with this section shall be authorized to provide for the selection of a single mail order pharmacy provider as the exclusive provider of pharmacy services that are delivered to the covered person's address by mail, common carrier, or delivery service. As used in this subsection, "mail order pharmacy provider" means a pharmacy permitted to conduct business in the Commonwealth whose primary business is to dispense a prescription drug or device under a prescriptive drug order and to deliver the drug or device to a patient primarily by mail, common carrier, or delivery service.
I. Any plan established in accordance with this section requiring preauthorization prior to rendering medical treatment shall have personnel available to provide authorization at all times when such preauthorization is required.
J. Any plan established in accordance with this section shall provide to all covered employees written notice of any benefit reductions during the contract period at least 30 days before such reductions become effective.
K. No contract between a provider and any plan established in accordance with this section shall include provisions that require a health care provider or health care provider group to deny covered services that such provider or group knows to be medically necessary and appropriate that are provided with respect to a covered employee with similar medical conditions.
L. The Department of Human Resource Management shall appoint an Ombudsman to promote and protect the interests of covered employees under any state employee's health plan.
The Ombudsman shall:
1. Assist covered employees in understanding their rights and the processes available to them according to their state health plan.
2. Answer inquiries from covered employees by telephone and electronic mail.
3. Provide to covered employees information concerning the state health plans.
4. Develop information on the types of health plans available, including benefits and complaint procedures and appeals.
5. Make available, either separately or through an existing Internet web site utilized by the Department of Human Resource Management, information as set forth in subdivision 4 and such additional information as he deems appropriate.
6. Maintain data on inquiries received, the types of assistance requested, any actions taken and the disposition of each such matter.
7. Upon request, assist covered employees in using the procedures and processes available to them from their health plan, including all appeal procedures. Such assistance may require the review of health care records of a covered employee, which shall be done only in accordance with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act privacy rules. The confidentiality of any such medical records shall be maintained in accordance with the confidentiality and disclosure laws of the Commonwealth.
8. Ensure that covered employees have access to the services provided by the Ombudsman and that the covered employees receive timely responses from the Ombudsman or his representatives to the inquiries.
9. Report annually on his activities to the standing committees of the General Assembly having jurisdiction over insurance and over health and the Joint Commission on Health Care by December 1 of each year.
M. The plan established in accordance with this section shall not refuse to accept or make reimbursement pursuant to an assignment of benefits made to a dentist or oral surgeon by a covered employee.
For purposes of this subsection, "assignment of benefits" means the transfer of dental care coverage reimbursement benefits or other rights under the plan. The assignment of benefits shall not be effective until the covered employee notifies the plan in writing of the assignment.
N. Beginning July 1, 2006, any plan established pursuant to this section shall provide for an identification number, which shall be assigned to the covered employee and shall not be the same as the employee's social security number.
O. Any group health insurance plan established by the Department of Human Resource Management that contains a coordination of benefits provision shall provide written notification to any eligible employee as a prominent part of its enrollment materials that if such eligible employee is covered under another group accident and sickness insurance policy, group accident and sickness subscription contract, or group health care plan for health care services, that insurance policy, subscription contract, or health care plan may have primary responsibility for the covered expenses of other family members enrolled with the eligible employee. Such written notification shall describe generally the conditions upon which the other coverage would be primary for dependent children enrolled under the eligible employee's coverage and the method by which the eligible enrollee may verify from the plan that coverage would have primary responsibility for the covered expenses of each family member.
P. Any plan established by the Department of Human Resource Management pursuant to this section shall provide that coverage under such plan for family members enrolled under a participating state employee's coverage shall continue for a period of at least 30 days following the death of such state employee.
Q. The plan established in accordance with this section that follows a policy of sending its payment to the covered employee or covered family member for a claim for services received from a nonparticipating physician or osteopath shall (i) include language in the member handbook that notifies the covered employee of the responsibility to apply the plan payment to the claim from such nonparticipating provider, (ii) include this language with any such payment sent to the covered employee or covered family member, and (iii) include the name and any last known address of the nonparticipating provider on the explanation of benefits statement.
R. The plan established by the Department of Human Resource Management pursuant to this section shall provide that coverage under such plan for an incapacitated child enrolled under a participating state employee's coverage shall be valid without regard to whether such child lives with the covered employee as a member of the employee's household so long as the child is dependent upon the employee for more than half of the child's financial support and the child is receiving residential support services.
For purposes of this subsection, "incapacitated child" means an adult child who is incapacitated due to a physical or mental health condition that existed prior to the termination of coverage due to such child attaining the limiting age under the plan for eligible children dependents.
S. The Department of Human Resource Management shall report annually, by November 30 of each year, on cost and utilization information for each of the mandated benefits set forth in subsection B, including any mandated benefit made applicable, pursuant to subdivision B 22, to any plan established pursuant to this section. The report shall be in the same detail and form as required of reports submitted pursuant to § 38.2-3419.1, with such additional information as is required to determine the financial impact, including the costs and benefits, of the particular mandated benefit.
§ 2.2-2905. Certain officers and employees exempt from chapter.
The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:
1. Officers and employees for whom the Constitution specifically directs the manner of selection;
2. Officers and employees of the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals;
3. Officers appointed by the Governor, whether confirmation by the General Assembly or by either house thereof is required or not;
4. Officers elected by popular vote or by the General Assembly or either house thereof;
5. Members of boards and commissions however selected;
6. Judges, referees, receivers, arbiters, masters and commissioners in chancery, commissioners of accounts, and any other persons appointed by any court to exercise judicial functions, and jurors and notaries public;
7. Officers and employees of the General Assembly and persons employed to conduct temporary or special inquiries, investigations, or examinations on its behalf;
8. The presidents and teaching and research staffs of state educational institutions;
9. Commissioned officers and enlisted personnel of the National Guard;
10. Student employees at institutions of higher education and patient or inmate help in other state institutions;
11. Upon general or special authorization of the Governor, laborers, temporary employees, and employees compensated on an hourly or daily basis;
12. County, city, town, and district officers, deputies, assistants, and employees;
13. The employees of the Virginia Workers' Compensation Commission;
14. The officers and employees of the Virginia Retirement System;
15. Employees whose positions are identified by the State Council of Higher Education and the boards of the Virginia Museum of Fine Arts, The Science Museum of Virginia, the Jamestown-Yorktown Foundation, the Frontier Culture Museum of Virginia, the Virginia Museum of Natural History, the New College Institute, the Southern Virginia Higher Education Center, and The Library of Virginia, and approved by the Director of the Department of Human Resource Management as requiring specialized and professional training;
16. Employees of the Virginia Lottery;
17. Employees of the Department for the Blind and Vision Impaired's rehabilitative manufacturing and service industries who have a human resources classification of industry worker;
18. Employees of the Virginia Commonwealth University Health System Authority;
19. Employees of the University of Virginia Medical Center. Any changes in compensation plans for such employees shall be subject to the review and approval of the Board of Visitors of the University of Virginia. The University of Virginia shall ensure that its procedures for hiring University of Virginia Medical Center personnel are based on merit and fitness. Such employees shall remain subject to the provisions of the State Grievance Procedure (§ 2.2-3000 et seq.);
20. In executive branch agencies the employee who has accepted serving in the capacity of chief deputy, or equivalent, and the employee who has accepted serving in the capacity of a confidential assistant for policy or administration. An employee serving in either one of these two positions shall be deemed to serve on an employment-at-will basis. An agency may not exceed two employees who serve in this exempt capacity;
21. Employees of Virginia Correctional Enterprises. Such employees shall remain subject to the provisions of the State Grievance Procedure (§ 2.2-3000 et seq.);
22. Officers and employees of the Virginia Port Authority;
23. Employees of the Commonwealth Savers Plan;
24. Directors of state facilities operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services employed or reemployed by the Commissioner after July 1, 1999, under a contract pursuant to § 37.2-707. Such employees shall remain subject to the provisions of the State Grievance Procedure (§ 2.2-3000 et seq.);
25. Employees of the Virginia Foundation for Healthy Youth. Such employees shall be treated as state employees for purposes of participation in the Virginia Retirement System, health insurance, and all other employee benefits offered by the Commonwealth to its classified employees;
26. Employees of the Virginia Indigent Defense Commission;
27. Any chief of a campus police department that has been designated by the governing body of a public institution of higher education as exempt, pursuant to § 23.1-809;
28. The Chief Executive Officer, agents, officers, and employees of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority; and
29. Officers and employees of the Fort Monroe Authority.
§ 2.2-3114. Disclosure by state officers and employees.
A. In accordance with the requirements set forth in § 2.2-3118.2, the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Justices of the Supreme Court, judges of the Court of Appeals, judges of any circuit court, judges and substitute judges of any district court, members of the State Corporation Commission, members of the Virginia Workers' Compensation Commission, members of the Commonwealth Transportation Board, members of the Board of Trustees of the Virginia Retirement System, members of the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, members of the board of directors of the Commonwealth of Virginia Innovation Partnership Authority, members of the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan, and members of the Virginia Lottery Board and other persons occupying such offices or positions of trust or employment in state government, including members of the governing bodies of authorities, as may be designated by the Governor, or officers or employees of the legislative branch, as may be designated by the Joint Rules Committee of the General Assembly, shall file with the Council, as a condition to assuming office or employment, a disclosure statement of their personal interests and such other information as is required on the form prescribed by the Council pursuant to § 2.2-3117 and thereafter shall file such a statement annually on or before February 1.
B. In accordance with the requirements set forth in § 2.2-3118.2, nonsalaried citizen members of all policy and supervisory boards, commissions, and councils in the executive branch of state government, other than the members of the Commonwealth Transportation Board, members of the Board of Trustees of the Virginia Retirement System, members of the board of directors of the Commonwealth of Virginia Innovation Partnership Authority, members of the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan, and members of the Virginia Lottery Board, shall file with the Council, as a condition to assuming office, a disclosure form of their personal interests and such other information as is required on the form prescribed by the Council pursuant to § 2.2-3118 and thereafter shall file such form annually on or before February 1. Nonsalaried citizen members of other boards, commissions, and councils, including advisory boards and authorities, may be required to file a disclosure form if so designated by the Governor, in which case the form shall be that prescribed by the Council pursuant to § 2.2-3118.
C. The disclosure forms required by subsections A and B shall be made available by the Council at least 30 days prior to the filing deadline. Disclosure forms shall be filed electronically with the Council in accordance with the standards approved by it pursuant to § 30-356. All forms shall be maintained as public records for five years in the office of the Council. Such forms shall be made public no later than six weeks after the filing deadline.
D. Candidates for the offices of Governor, Lieutenant Governor, or Attorney General shall file a disclosure statement of their personal interests as required by § 24.2-502.
E. Any officer or employee of state government who has a personal interest in any transaction before the governmental or advisory agency of which he is an officer or employee and who is disqualified from participating in that transaction pursuant to subsection A of § 2.2-3112, or otherwise elects to disqualify himself, shall forthwith make disclosure of the existence of his interest, including the full name and address of the business and the address or parcel number for the real estate if the interest involves a business or real estate, and his disclosure shall also be reflected in the public records of the agency for five years in the office of the administrative head of the officer's or employee's governmental agency or advisory agency or, if the agency has a clerk, in the clerk's office.
F. An officer or employee of state government who is required to declare his interest pursuant to subdivision B 1 of § 2.2-3112, shall declare his interest by stating (i) the transaction involved, (ii) the nature of the officer's or employee's personal interest affected by the transaction, (iii) that he is a member of a business, profession, occupation, or group the members of which are affected by the transaction, and (iv) that he is able to participate in the transaction fairly, objectively, and in the public interest. The officer or employee shall either make his declaration orally to be recorded in written minutes for his agency or file a signed written declaration with the clerk or administrative head of his governmental or advisory agency, as appropriate, who shall, in either case, retain and make available for public inspection such declaration for a period of five years from the date of recording or receipt. If reasonable time is not available to comply with the provisions of this subsection prior to participation in the transaction, the officer or employee shall prepare and file the required declaration by the end of the next business day.
G. An officer or employee of state government who is required to declare his interest pursuant to subdivision B 2 of § 2.2-3112, shall declare his interest by stating (i) the transaction involved, (ii) that a party to the transaction is a client of his firm, (iii) that he does not personally represent or provide services to the client, and (iv) that he is able to participate in the transaction fairly, objectively, and in the public interest. The officer or employee shall either make his declaration orally to be recorded in written minutes for his agency or file a signed written declaration with the clerk or administrative head of his governmental or advisory agency, as appropriate, who shall, in either case, retain and make available for public inspection such declaration for a period of five years from the date of recording or receipt. If reasonable time is not available to comply with the provisions of this subsection prior to participation in the transaction, the officer or employee shall prepare and file the required declaration by the end of the next business day.
H. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, chairs of departments at a public institution of higher education in the Commonwealth shall not be required to file the disclosure form prescribed by the Council pursuant to § 2.2-3117 or 2.2-3118.
§ 2.2-3705.3. (Effective until July 1, 2026) Exclusions to application of chapter; records relating to administrative investigations.
The following information contained in a public record is excluded from the mandatory disclosure provisions of this chapter but may be disclosed by the custodian in his discretion, except where such disclosure is prohibited by law. Redaction of information excluded under this section from a public record shall be conducted in accordance with § 2.2-3704.01.
1. Information relating to investigations of applicants for licenses and permits, and of all licensees and permittees, made by or submitted to the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority, the Virginia Lottery pursuant to Chapter 40 (§ 58.1-4000 et seq.) and Chapter 41 (§ 58.1-4100 et seq.) of Title 58.1, the Virginia Racing Commission, the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services relating to investigations and applications pursuant to Article 1.1:1 (§ 18.2-340.15 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 18.2, or the Private Security Services Unit of the Department of Criminal Justice Services.
2. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority or by the Department of Health Professions or any health regulatory board in the Commonwealth pursuant to § 54.1-108.
3. Investigator notes, and other correspondence and information, furnished in confidence with respect to an active investigation of individual employment discrimination complaints made to the Department of Human Resource Management, to such personnel of any local public body, including local school boards, as are responsible for conducting such investigations in confidence, or to any public institution of higher education. However, nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the disclosure of information taken from inactive reports in a form that does not reveal the identity of charging parties, persons supplying the information, or other individuals involved in the investigation.
4. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Department of Medical Assistance Services pursuant to Chapter 10 (§ 32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1.
5. Investigative notes and other correspondence and information furnished in confidence with respect to an investigation or conciliation process involving an alleged unlawful discriminatory practice under the Virginia Human Rights Act (§ 2.2-3900 et seq.) or under any local ordinance adopted in accordance with the authority specified in § 2.2-524, or adopted pursuant to § 15.2-965, or adopted prior to July 1, 1987, in accordance with applicable law, relating to local human rights or human relations commissions. However, nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the distribution of information taken from inactive reports in a form that does not reveal the identity of the parties involved or other persons supplying information.
6. Information relating to studies and investigations by the Virginia Lottery of (i) lottery agents, (ii) lottery vendors, (iii) lottery crimes under §§ 58.1-4014 through 58.1-4018, (iv) defects in the law or regulations that cause abuses in the administration and operation of the lottery and any evasions of such provisions, or (v) the use of the lottery as a subterfuge for organized crime and illegal gambling where such information has not been publicly released, published or copyrighted. All studies and investigations referred to under clauses (iii), (iv), and (v) shall be open to inspection and copying upon completion of the study or investigation.
7. Investigative notes, correspondence and information furnished in confidence, and records otherwise exempted by this chapter or any Virginia statute, provided to or produced by or for (i) the Auditor of Public Accounts; (ii) the Joint Legislative Audit and Review Commission; (iii) an appropriate authority as defined in § 2.2-3010 with respect to an allegation of wrongdoing or abuse under the Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Protection Act (§ 2.2-3009 et seq.); (iv) the Office of the State Inspector General with respect to an investigation initiated through the Fraud, Waste and Abuse Hotline or an investigation initiated pursuant to Chapter 3.2 (§ 2.2-307 et seq.); (v) internal auditors appointed by the head of a state agency or by any public institution of higher education; (vi) the committee or the auditor with respect to an investigation or audit conducted pursuant to § 15.2-825; (vii) the auditors, appointed by the local governing body of any county, city, or town or a school board, who by charter, ordinance, or statute have responsibility for conducting an investigation of any officer, department, or program of such body; or (viii) the Behavioral Health Commission. Information contained in completed investigations shall be disclosed in a form that does not reveal the identity of the complainants or persons supplying information to investigators. Unless disclosure is excluded by this subdivision, the information disclosed shall include the agency involved, the identity of the person who is the subject of the complaint, the nature of the complaint, and the actions taken to resolve the complaint. If an investigation does not lead to corrective action, the identity of the person who is the subject of the complaint may be released only with the consent of the subject person. Local governing bodies shall adopt guidelines to govern the disclosure required by this subdivision.
8. The names and personal contact information of complainants furnished in confidence with respect to an investigation of individual zoning enforcement complaints or complaints relating to the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.) or the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.) made to a local governing body. As used in this subdivision, "personal contact information" includes the complainant's home or business (i) address, (ii) email address, or (iii) telephone number or comparable number assigned to any other electronic communication device.
9. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Department of Criminal Justice Services pursuant to Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.), Article 4.1 (§ 9.1-150.1 et seq.), Article 11 (§ 9.1-185 et seq.), and Article 12 (§ 9.1-186 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 9.1.
10. Information furnished to or prepared by the Board of Education pursuant to subsection D of § 22.1-253.13:3 in connection with the review or investigation of any alleged breach in security, unauthorized alteration, or improper administration of tests by local school board employees responsible for the distribution or administration of the tests. However, this section shall not prohibit the disclosure of such information to (i) a local school board or division superintendent for the purpose of permitting such board or superintendent to consider or to take personnel action with regard to an employee or (ii) any requester, after the conclusion of a review or investigation, in a form that (a) does not reveal the identity of any person making a complaint or supplying information to the Board on a confidential basis and (b) does not compromise the security of any test mandated by the Board.
11. Information contained in (i) an application for licensure or renewal of a license for teachers and other school personnel, including transcripts or other documents submitted in support of an application, and (ii) an active investigation conducted by or for the Board of Education related to the denial, suspension, cancellation, revocation, or reinstatement of teacher and other school personnel licenses including investigator notes and other correspondence and information, furnished in confidence with respect to such investigation. However, this subdivision shall not prohibit the disclosure of such (a) application information to the applicant at his own expense or (b) investigation information to a local school board or division superintendent for the purpose of permitting such board or superintendent to consider or to take personnel action with regard to an employee. Information contained in completed investigations shall be disclosed in a form that does not reveal the identity of any complainant or person supplying information to investigators. The completed investigation information disclosed shall include information regarding the school or facility involved, the identity of the person who was the subject of the complaint, the nature of the complaint, and the actions taken to resolve the complaint. If an investigation fails to support a complaint or does not lead to corrective action, the identity of the person who was the subject of the complaint may be released only with the consent of the subject person. No personally identifiable information regarding a current or former student shall be released except as permitted by state or federal law.
12. Information provided in confidence and related to an investigation by the Attorney General under Article 1 (§ 3.2-4200 et seq.) or Article 3 (§ 3.2-4204 et seq.) of Chapter 42 of Title 3.2, Article 10 (§ 18.2-246.6 et seq.) of Chapter 6 or Chapter 13 (§ 18.2-512 et seq.) of Title 18.2, or Article 1 (§ 58.1-1000) of Chapter 10 of Title 58.1. However, information related to an investigation that has been inactive for more than six months shall, upon request, be disclosed provided such disclosure is not otherwise prohibited by law and does not reveal the identity of charging parties, complainants, persons supplying information, witnesses, or other individuals involved in the investigation.
13. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services pursuant to Chapter 4 (§ 37.2-400 et seq.) of Title 37.2.
§ 2.2-3705.3. (Effective July 1, 2026) Exclusions to application of chapter; records relating to administrative investigations.
The following information contained in a public record is excluded from the mandatory disclosure provisions of this chapter but may be disclosed by the custodian in his discretion, except where such disclosure is prohibited by law. Redaction of information excluded under this section from a public record shall be conducted in accordance with § 2.2-3704.01.
1. Information relating to investigations of applicants for licenses and permits, and of all licensees and permittees, made by or submitted to the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority, the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority, the Virginia Lottery pursuant to Chapter 40 (§ 58.1-4000 et seq.) and Chapter 41 (§ 58.1-4100 et seq.) of Title 58.1, the Virginia Racing Commission, the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services relating to investigations and applications pursuant to Article 1.1:1 (§ 18.2-340.15 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 18.2, or the Private Security Services Unit of the Department of Criminal Justice Services.
2. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority or by the Department of Health Professions or any health regulatory board in the Commonwealth pursuant to § 54.1-108.
3. Investigator notes, and other correspondence and information, furnished in confidence with respect to an active investigation of individual employment discrimination complaints made to the Department of Human Resource Management, to such personnel of any local public body, including local school boards, as are responsible for conducting such investigations in confidence, or to any public institution of higher education. However, nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the disclosure of information taken from inactive reports in a form that does not reveal the identity of charging parties, persons supplying the information, or other individuals involved in the investigation.
4. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Department of Medical Assistance Services pursuant to Chapter 10 (§ 32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1.
5. Investigative notes and other correspondence and information furnished in confidence with respect to an investigation or conciliation process involving an alleged unlawful discriminatory practice under the Virginia Human Rights Act (§ 2.2-3900 et seq.) or under any local ordinance adopted in accordance with the authority specified in § 2.2-524, or adopted pursuant to § 15.2-965, or adopted prior to July 1, 1987, in accordance with applicable law, relating to local human rights or human relations commissions. However, nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the distribution of information taken from inactive reports in a form that does not reveal the identity of the parties involved or other persons supplying information.
6. Information relating to studies and investigations by the Virginia Lottery of (i) lottery agents, (ii) lottery vendors, (iii) lottery crimes under §§ 58.1-4014 through 58.1-4018, (iv) defects in the law or regulations that cause abuses in the administration and operation of the lottery and any evasions of such provisions, or (v) the use of the lottery as a subterfuge for organized crime and illegal gambling where such information has not been publicly released, published or copyrighted. All studies and investigations referred to under clauses (iii), (iv), and (v) shall be open to inspection and copying upon completion of the study or investigation.
7. Investigative notes, correspondence and information furnished in confidence, and records otherwise exempted by this chapter or any Virginia statute, provided to or produced by or for (i) the Auditor of Public Accounts; (ii) the Joint Legislative Audit and Review Commission; (iii) an appropriate authority as defined in § 2.2-3010 with respect to an allegation of wrongdoing or abuse under the Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Protection Act (§ 2.2-3009 et seq.); (iv) the Office of the State Inspector General with respect to an investigation initiated through the Fraud, Waste and Abuse Hotline or an investigation initiated pursuant to Chapter 3.2 (§ 2.2-307 et seq.); (v) internal auditors appointed by the head of a state agency or by any public institution of higher education; (vi) the committee or the auditor with respect to an investigation or audit conducted pursuant to § 15.2-825; (vii) the auditors, appointed by the local governing body of any county, city, or town or a school board, who by charter, ordinance, or statute have responsibility for conducting an investigation of any officer, department, or program of such body; or (viii) the Behavioral Health Commission. Information contained in completed investigations shall be disclosed in a form that does not reveal the identity of the complainants or persons supplying information to investigators. Unless disclosure is excluded by this subdivision, the information disclosed shall include the agency involved, the identity of the person who is the subject of the complaint, the nature of the complaint, and the actions taken to resolve the complaint. If an investigation does not lead to corrective action, the identity of the person who is the subject of the complaint may be released only with the consent of the subject person. Local governing bodies shall adopt guidelines to govern the disclosure required by this subdivision.
8. The names and personal contact information of complainants furnished in confidence with respect to an investigation of individual zoning enforcement complaints or complaints relating to the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.) or the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.) made to a local governing body. As used in this subdivision, "personal contact information" includes the complainant's home or business (i) address, (ii) email address, or (iii) telephone number or comparable number assigned to any other electronic communication device.
9. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Department of Criminal Justice Services pursuant to Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.), Article 4.1 (§ 9.1-150.1 et seq.), Article 11 (§ 9.1-185 et seq.), and Article 12 (§ 9.1-186 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 9.1.
10. Information furnished to or prepared by the Board of Education pursuant to subsection F of § 22.1-253.13:3 in connection with the review or investigation of any alleged breach in security, unauthorized alteration, or improper administration of tests by local school board employees responsible for the distribution or administration of the tests. However, this section shall not prohibit the disclosure of such information to (i) a local school board or division superintendent for the purpose of permitting such board or superintendent to consider or to take personnel action with regard to an employee or (ii) any requester, after the conclusion of a review or investigation, in a form that (a) does not reveal the identity of any person making a complaint or supplying information to the Board on a confidential basis and (b) does not compromise the security of any test mandated by the Board.
11. Information contained in (i) an application for licensure or renewal of a license for teachers and other school personnel, including transcripts or other documents submitted in support of an application, and (ii) an active investigation conducted by or for the Board of Education related to the denial, suspension, cancellation, revocation, or reinstatement of teacher and other school personnel licenses including investigator notes and other correspondence and information, furnished in confidence with respect to such investigation. However, this subdivision shall not prohibit the disclosure of such (a) application information to the applicant at his own expense or (b) investigation information to a local school board or division superintendent for the purpose of permitting such board or superintendent to consider or to take personnel action with regard to an employee. Information contained in completed investigations shall be disclosed in a form that does not reveal the identity of any complainant or person supplying information to investigators. The completed investigation information disclosed shall include information regarding the school or facility involved, the identity of the person who was the subject of the complaint, the nature of the complaint, and the actions taken to resolve the complaint. If an investigation fails to support a complaint or does not lead to corrective action, the identity of the person who was the subject of the complaint may be released only with the consent of the subject person. No personally identifiable information regarding a current or former student shall be released except as permitted by state or federal law.
12. Information provided in confidence and related to an investigation by the Attorney General under Article 1 (§ 3.2-4200 et seq.) or Article 3 (§ 3.2-4204 et seq.) of Chapter 42 of Title 3.2, Article 10 (§ 18.2-246.6 et seq.) of Chapter 6 or Chapter 13 (§ 18.2-512 et seq.) of Title 18.2, or Article 1 (§ 58.1-1000) of Chapter 10 of Title 58.1. However, information related to an investigation that has been inactive for more than six months shall, upon request, be disclosed provided such disclosure is not otherwise prohibited by law and does not reveal the identity of charging parties, complainants, persons supplying information, witnesses, or other individuals involved in the investigation.
13. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services pursuant to Chapter 4 (§ 37.2-400 et seq.) of Title 37.2.
§ 2.2-3711. (Effective until July 1, 2026) Closed meetings authorized for certain limited purposes.
A. Public bodies may hold closed meetings only for the following purposes:
1. Discussion, consideration, or interviews of prospective candidates for employment; assignment, appointment, promotion, performance, demotion, salaries, disciplining, or resignation of specific public officers, appointees, or employees of any public body; and evaluation of performance of departments or schools of public institutions of higher education where such evaluation will necessarily involve discussion of the performance of specific individuals. Any teacher shall be permitted to be present during a closed meeting in which there is a discussion or consideration of a disciplinary matter that involves the teacher and some student and the student involved in the matter is present, provided that the teacher makes a written request to be present to the presiding officer of the appropriate board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall be construed to authorize a closed meeting by a local governing body or an elected school board to discuss compensation matters that affect the membership of such body or board collectively.
2. Discussion or consideration of admission or disciplinary matters or any other matters that would involve the disclosure of information contained in a scholastic record concerning any student of any public institution of higher education in the Commonwealth or any state school system. However, any such student, legal counsel and, if the student is a minor, the student's parents or legal guardians shall be permitted to be present during the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence at a closed meeting, if such student, parents, or guardians so request in writing and such request is submitted to the presiding officer of the appropriate board.
3. Discussion or consideration of the acquisition of real property for a public purpose, or of the disposition of publicly held real property, where discussion in an open meeting would adversely affect the bargaining position or negotiating strategy of the public body.
4. The protection of the privacy of individuals in personal matters not related to public business.
5. Discussion concerning a prospective business or industry or the expansion of an existing business or industry where no previous announcement has been made of the business' business's or industry's interest in locating or expanding its facilities in the community.
6. Discussion or consideration of the investment of public funds where competition or bargaining is involved, where, if made public initially, the financial interest of the governmental unit would be adversely affected.
7. Consultation with legal counsel and briefings by staff members or consultants pertaining to actual or probable litigation, where such consultation or briefing in open meeting would adversely affect the negotiating or litigating posture of the public body. For the purposes of this subdivision, "probable litigation" means litigation that has been specifically threatened or on which the public body or its legal counsel has a reasonable basis to believe will be commenced by or against a known party. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit the closure of a meeting merely because an attorney representing the public body is in attendance or is consulted on a matter.
8. Consultation with legal counsel employed or retained by a public body regarding specific legal matters requiring the provision of legal advice by such counsel. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit the closure of a meeting merely because an attorney representing the public body is in attendance or is consulted on a matter.
9. Discussion or consideration by governing boards of public institutions of higher education of matters relating to gifts, bequests and fund-raising activities, and of grants and contracts for services or work to be performed by such institution. However, the terms and conditions of any such gifts, bequests, grants, and contracts made by a foreign government, a foreign legal entity, or a foreign person and accepted by a public institution of higher education in the Commonwealth shall be subject to public disclosure upon written request to the appropriate board of visitors. For the purpose of this subdivision, (i) "foreign government" means any government other than the United States government or the government of a state or a political subdivision thereof, (ii) "foreign legal entity" means any legal entity (a) created under the laws of the United States or of any state thereof if a majority of the ownership of the stock of such legal entity is owned by foreign governments or foreign persons or if a majority of the membership of any such entity is composed of foreign persons or foreign legal entities or (b) created under the laws of a foreign government, and (iii) "foreign person" means any individual who is not a citizen or national of the United States or a trust territory or protectorate thereof.
10. Discussion or consideration by the boards of trustees of the Virginia Museum of Fine Arts, the Virginia Museum of Natural History, the Jamestown-Yorktown Foundation, the Fort Monroe Authority, and The Science Museum of Virginia of matters relating to specific gifts, bequests, and grants from private sources.
11. Discussion or consideration of honorary degrees or special awards.
12. Discussion or consideration of tests, examinations, or other information used, administered, or prepared by a public body and subject to the exclusion in subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.1.
13. Discussion, consideration, or review by the appropriate House or Senate committees of possible disciplinary action against a member arising out of the possible inadequacy of the disclosure statement filed by the member, provided that the member may request in writing that the committee meeting not be conducted in a closed meeting.
14. Discussion of strategy with respect to the negotiation of a hazardous waste siting agreement or to consider the terms, conditions, and provisions of a hazardous waste siting agreement if the governing body in open meeting finds that an open meeting will have an adverse effect upon the negotiating position of the governing body or the establishment of the terms, conditions and provisions of the siting agreement, or both. All discussions with the applicant or its representatives may be conducted in a closed meeting.
15. Discussion by the Governor and any economic advisory board reviewing forecasts of economic activity and estimating general and nongeneral fund revenues.
16. Discussion or consideration of medical and mental health records subject to the exclusion in subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.5.
17. Deliberations of the Virginia Lottery Board in a licensing appeal action conducted pursuant to subsection D of § 58.1-4007 regarding the denial or revocation of a license of a lottery sales agent; and discussion, consideration or review of Virginia Lottery matters related to proprietary lottery game information and studies or investigations excluded from disclosure under subdivision 6 of § 2.2-3705.3 and subdivision 11 of § 2.2-3705.7.
18. Those portions of meetings in which the State Board of Local and Regional Jails discusses or discloses the identity of, or information tending to identify, any prisoner who (i) provides information about crimes or criminal activities, (ii) renders assistance in preventing the escape of another prisoner or in the apprehension of an escaped prisoner, or (iii) voluntarily or at the instance of a prison official renders other extraordinary services, the disclosure of which is likely to jeopardize the prisoner's life or safety.
19. Discussion of plans to protect public safety as it relates to terrorist activity or specific cybersecurity threats or vulnerabilities and briefings by staff members, legal counsel, or law-enforcement or emergency service officials concerning actions taken to respond to such matters or a related threat to public safety; discussion of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 2 or 14 of § 2.2-3705.2, where discussion in an open meeting would jeopardize the safety of any person or the security of any facility, building, structure, information technology system, or software program; or discussion of reports or plans related to the security of any governmental facility, building or structure, or the safety of persons using such facility, building or structure.
20. Discussion by the Board of the Virginia Retirement System, acting pursuant to § 51.1-124.30, or of any local retirement system, acting pursuant to § 51.1-803, or by a local finance board or board of trustees of a trust established by one or more local public bodies to invest funds for postemployment benefits other than pensions, acting pursuant to Article 8 (§ 15.2-1544 et seq.) of Chapter 15 of Title 15.2, or by the board of visitors of the University of Virginia, acting pursuant to § 23.1-2210, or by the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan, acting pursuant to § 23.1-706, regarding the acquisition, holding or disposition of a security or other ownership interest in an entity, where such security or ownership interest is not traded on a governmentally regulated securities exchange, to the extent that such discussion (i) concerns confidential analyses prepared for the board of visitors of the University of Virginia, prepared by the retirement system, or a local finance board or board of trustees, or the Commonwealth Savers Plan or provided to the retirement system, a local finance board or board of trustees, or the Commonwealth Savers Plan under a promise of confidentiality, of the future value of such ownership interest or the future financial performance of the entity, and (ii) would have an adverse effect on the value of the investment to be acquired, held, or disposed of by the retirement system, a local finance board or board of trustees, the board of visitors of the University of Virginia, or the Commonwealth Savers Plan. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prevent the disclosure of information relating to the identity of any investment held, the amount invested or the present value of such investment.
21. Those portions of meetings in which individual child death cases are discussed by the State Child Fatality Review Team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.1, those portions of meetings in which individual child death cases are discussed by a regional or local child fatality review team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.2, those portions of meetings in which individual death cases are discussed by family violence fatality review teams established pursuant to § 32.1-283.3, those portions of meetings in which individual adult death cases are discussed by the state Adult Fatality Review Team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.5, those portions of meetings in which individual adult death cases are discussed by a local or regional adult fatality review team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.6, those portions of meetings in which individual death cases are discussed by overdose fatality review teams established pursuant to § 32.1-283.7, those portions of meetings in which individual maternal death cases are discussed by the Maternal Mortality Review Team pursuant to § 32.1-283.8, and those portions of meetings in which individual death cases of persons with developmental disabilities are discussed by the Developmental Disabilities Mortality Review Committee established pursuant to § 37.2-314.1.
22. Those portions of meetings of the board of visitors of the University of Virginia or Old Dominion University, as the case may be, and those portions of meetings of any persons to whom management responsibilities for the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be, have been delegated, in which there is discussed proprietary, business-related information pertaining to the operations of the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be, including business development or marketing strategies and activities with existing or future joint venturers, partners, or other parties with whom the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be, has formed, or forms, any arrangement for the delivery of health care, if disclosure of such information would adversely affect the competitive position of the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be.
23. Discussion or consideration by the Virginia Commonwealth University Health System Authority or the board of visitors of Virginia Commonwealth University of any of the following: the acquisition or disposition by the Authority of real property, equipment, or technology software or hardware and related goods or services, where disclosure would adversely affect the bargaining position or negotiating strategy of the Authority; matters relating to gifts or bequests to, and fund-raising activities of, the Authority; grants and contracts for services or work to be performed by the Authority; marketing or operational strategies plans of the Authority where disclosure of such strategies or plans would adversely affect the competitive position of the Authority; and members of the Authority's medical and teaching staffs and qualifications for appointments thereto.
24. Those portions of the meetings of the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee within the Department of Health Professions to the extent such discussions identify any practitioner who may be, or who actually is, impaired pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.) of Title 54.1.
25. Meetings or portions of meetings of the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan wherein personal information, as defined in § 2.2-3801, which has been provided to the Board or its employees by or on behalf of individuals who have requested information about, applied for, or entered into prepaid tuition contracts or savings trust account agreements pursuant to Chapter 7 (§ 23.1-700 et seq.) of Title 23.1 is discussed.
26. Discussion or consideration, by the former Wireless Carrier E-911 Cost Recovery Subcommittee created pursuant to former § 56-484.15, of trade secrets submitted by CMRS providers, as defined in § 56-484.12, related to the provision of wireless E-911 service.
27. Those portions of disciplinary proceedings by any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, Department of Health Professions, or the Board of Accountancy conducted pursuant to § 2.2-4019 or 2.2-4020 during which the board deliberates to reach a decision or meetings of health regulatory boards or conference committees of such boards to consider settlement proposals in pending disciplinary actions or modifications to previously issued board orders as requested by either of the parties.
28. Discussion or consideration of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 11 of § 2.2-3705.6 by a responsible public entity or an affected locality or public entity, as those terms are defined in § 33.2-1800, or any independent review panel appointed to review information and advise the responsible public entity concerning such records.
29. Discussion of the award of a public contract involving the expenditure of public funds, including interviews of bidders or offerors, and discussion of the terms or scope of such contract, where discussion in an open session would adversely affect the bargaining position or negotiating strategy of the public body.
30. Discussion or consideration of grant or loan application information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 17 of § 2.2-3705.6 by the Commonwealth Health Research Board.
31. Discussion or consideration by the Commitment Review Committee of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 5 of § 2.2-3705.2 relating to individuals subject to commitment as sexually violent predators under Chapter 9 (§ 37.2-900 et seq.) of Title 37.2.
32. Discussion or consideration of confidential proprietary information and trade secrets developed and held by a local public body providing certain telecommunication services or cable television services and subject to the exclusion in subdivision 18 of § 2.2-3705.6. However, the exemption provided by this subdivision shall not apply to any authority created pursuant to the BVU Authority Act (§ 15.2-7200 et seq.).
33. Discussion or consideration by a local authority created in accordance with the Virginia Wireless Service Authorities Act (§ 15.2-5431.1 et seq.) of confidential proprietary information and trade secrets subject to the exclusion in subdivision 19 of § 2.2-3705.6.
34. Discussion or consideration by the State Board of Elections or local electoral boards of voting security matters made confidential pursuant to § 24.2-410.2 or 24.2-625.1.
35. Discussion or consideration by the Forensic Science Board or the Scientific Advisory Committee created pursuant to Article 2 (§ 9.1-1109 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 9.1 of criminal investigative files.
36. Discussion or consideration by the Brown v. Board of Education Scholarship Committee of information or confidential matters subject to the exclusion in subdivision A 3 of § 2.2-3705.4, and meetings of the Committee to deliberate concerning the annual maximum scholarship award, review and consider scholarship applications and requests for scholarship award renewal, and cancel, rescind, or recover scholarship awards.
37. Discussion or consideration by the Virginia Port Authority of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to certain proprietary information gathered by or for the Virginia Port Authority.
38. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Trustees of the Virginia Retirement System acting pursuant to § 51.1-124.30, by the Investment Advisory Committee appointed pursuant to § 51.1-124.26, by any local retirement system, acting pursuant to § 51.1-803, by the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan acting pursuant to § 23.1-706, or by the Commonwealth Savers Plan's Investment Advisory Committee appointed pursuant to § 23.1-702 of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 24 of § 2.2-3705.7.
39. Discussion or consideration of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 3 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to economic development.
40. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Education of information relating to the denial, suspension, or revocation of teacher licenses subject to the exclusion in subdivision 11 of § 2.2-3705.3.
41. Those portions of meetings of the Virginia Military Advisory Council or any commission created by executive order for the purpose of studying and making recommendations regarding preventing closure or realignment of federal military and national security installations and facilities located in Virginia and relocation of such facilities to Virginia, or a local or regional military affairs organization appointed by a local governing body, during which there is discussion of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 8 of § 2.2-3705.2.
42. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Trustees of the Veterans Services Foundation of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 28 of § 2.2-3705.7 related to personally identifiable information of donors.
43. Discussion or consideration by the Virginia Tobacco Region Revitalization Commission of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 23 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to certain information contained in grant applications.
44. Discussion or consideration by the board of directors of the Commercial Space Flight Authority of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 24 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to rate structures or charges for the use of projects of, the sale of products of, or services rendered by the Authority and certain proprietary information of a private entity provided to the Authority.
45. Discussion or consideration of personal and proprietary information related to the resource management plan program and subject to the exclusion in (i) subdivision 25 of § 2.2-3705.6 or (ii) subsection E of § 10.1-104.7. This exclusion shall not apply to the discussion or consideration of records that contain information that has been certified for release by the person who is the subject of the information or transformed into a statistical or aggregate form that does not allow identification of the person who supplied, or is the subject of, the information.
46. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.3 related to investigations of applicants for licenses and permits and of licensees and permittees.
47. Discussion or consideration of grant, loan, or investment application records subject to the exclusion in subdivision 28 of § 2.2-3705.6 for a grant, loan, or investment pursuant to Article 11 (§ 2.2-2351 et seq.) of Chapter 22.
48. Discussion or development of grant proposals by a regional council established pursuant to Article 26 (§ 2.2-2484 et seq.) of Chapter 24 to be submitted for consideration to the Virginia Growth and Opportunity Board.
49. Discussion or consideration of (i) individual sexual assault cases by a sexual assault response team established pursuant to § 15.2-1627.4, (ii) individual child abuse or neglect cases or sex offenses involving a child by a child sexual abuse response team established pursuant to § 15.2-1627.5, (iii) individual cases involving abuse, neglect, or exploitation of adults as defined in § 63.2-1603 pursuant to §§ 15.2-1627.5 and 63.2-1605, or (iv) individual human trafficking cases by any human trafficking response team established pursuant to § 15.2-1627.6.
50. Discussion or consideration by the Board of the Virginia Economic Development Partnership Authority, the Joint Legislative Audit and Review Commission, or any subcommittees thereof, of the portions of the strategic plan, marketing plan, or operational plan exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 33 of § 2.2-3705.7.
51. Those portions of meetings of the subcommittee of the Board of the Virginia Economic Development Partnership Authority established pursuant to subsection F of § 2.2-2237.3 to review and discuss information received from the Virginia Employment Commission pursuant to subdivision C 2 of § 60.2-114 and the Department of Workforce Development and Advancement pursuant to subsection B of § 2.2-2040.
52. Discussion or consideration by the Commonwealth of Virginia Innovation Partnership Authority (the Authority), an advisory committee of the Authority, or any other entity designated by the Authority, of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 35 of § 2.2-3705.7.
53. Deliberations of the Virginia Lottery Board conducted pursuant to § 58.1-4105 regarding the denial or revocation of a license of a casino gaming operator, or the refusal to issue, suspension of, or revocation of any license or permit related to casino gaming, and discussion, consideration, or review of matters related to investigations excluded from mandatory disclosure under subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.3.
54. Deliberations of the Virginia Lottery Board in an appeal conducted pursuant to § 58.1-4007 regarding the denial of, revocation of, suspension of, or refusal to renew any license or permit related to sports betting and any discussion, consideration, or review of matters related to investigations excluded from mandatory disclosure under subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.3.
55. Meetings or portions of meetings of the Board of Criminal Justice Services or the Department of Criminal Justice Services concerning the decertification of an identifiable law-enforcement or jail officer.
B. No resolution, ordinance, rule, contract, regulation or motion adopted, passed or agreed to in a closed meeting shall become effective unless the public body, following the meeting, reconvenes in open meeting and takes a vote of the membership on such resolution, ordinance, rule, contract, regulation, or motion that shall have its substance reasonably identified in the open meeting.
C. Public officers improperly selected due to the failure of the public body to comply with the other provisions of this section shall be de facto officers and, as such, their official actions are valid until they obtain notice of the legal defect in their election.
D. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent the holding of conferences between two or more public bodies, or their representatives, but these conferences shall be subject to the same procedures for holding closed meetings as are applicable to any other public body.
E. This section shall not be construed to (i) require the disclosure of any contract between the Department of Health Professions and an impaired practitioner entered into pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.) of Title 54.1 or (ii) require the board of directors of any authority created pursuant to the Industrial Development and Revenue Bond Act (§ 15.2-4900 et seq.), or any public body empowered to issue industrial revenue bonds by general or special law, to identify a business or industry to which subdivision A 5 applies. However, such business or industry shall be identified as a matter of public record at least 30 days prior to the actual date of the board's authorization of the sale or issuance of such bonds.
§ 2.2-3711. (Effective July 1, 2026) Closed meetings authorized for certain limited purposes.
A. Public bodies may hold closed meetings only for the following purposes:
1. Discussion, consideration, or interviews of prospective candidates for employment; assignment, appointment, promotion, performance, demotion, salaries, disciplining, or resignation of specific public officers, appointees, or employees of any public body; and evaluation of performance of departments or schools of public institutions of higher education where such evaluation will necessarily involve discussion of the performance of specific individuals. Any teacher shall be permitted to be present during a closed meeting in which there is a discussion or consideration of a disciplinary matter that involves the teacher and some student and the student involved in the matter is present, provided that the teacher makes a written request to be present to the presiding officer of the appropriate board. Nothing in this subdivision, however, shall be construed to authorize a closed meeting by a local governing body or an elected school board to discuss compensation matters that affect the membership of such body or board collectively.
2. Discussion or consideration of admission or disciplinary matters or any other matters that would involve the disclosure of information contained in a scholastic record concerning any student of any public institution of higher education in the Commonwealth or any state school system. However, any such student, legal counsel and, if the student is a minor, the student's parents or legal guardians shall be permitted to be present during the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence at a closed meeting, if such student, parents, or guardians so request in writing and such request is submitted to the presiding officer of the appropriate board.
3. Discussion or consideration of the acquisition of real property for a public purpose, or of the disposition of publicly held real property, where discussion in an open meeting would adversely affect the bargaining position or negotiating strategy of the public body.
4. The protection of the privacy of individuals in personal matters not related to public business.
5. Discussion concerning a prospective business or industry or the expansion of an existing business or industry where no previous announcement has been made of the business' or industry's interest in locating or expanding its facilities in the community.
6. Discussion or consideration of the investment of public funds where competition or bargaining is involved, where, if made public initially, the financial interest of the governmental unit would be adversely affected.
7. Consultation with legal counsel and briefings by staff members or consultants pertaining to actual or probable litigation, where such consultation or briefing in open meeting would adversely affect the negotiating or litigating posture of the public body. For the purposes of this subdivision, "probable litigation" means litigation that has been specifically threatened or on which the public body or its legal counsel has a reasonable basis to believe will be commenced by or against a known party. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit the closure of a meeting merely because an attorney representing the public body is in attendance or is consulted on a matter.
8. Consultation with legal counsel employed or retained by a public body regarding specific legal matters requiring the provision of legal advice by such counsel. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit the closure of a meeting merely because an attorney representing the public body is in attendance or is consulted on a matter.
9. Discussion or consideration by governing boards of public institutions of higher education of matters relating to gifts, bequests and fund-raising activities, and of grants and contracts for services or work to be performed by such institution. However, the terms and conditions of any such gifts, bequests, grants, and contracts made by a foreign government, a foreign legal entity, or a foreign person and accepted by a public institution of higher education in the Commonwealth shall be subject to public disclosure upon written request to the appropriate board of visitors. For the purpose of this subdivision, (i) "foreign government" means any government other than the United States government or the government of a state or a political subdivision thereof, (ii) "foreign legal entity" means any legal entity (a) created under the laws of the United States or of any state thereof if a majority of the ownership of the stock of such legal entity is owned by foreign governments or foreign persons or if a majority of the membership of any such entity is composed of foreign persons or foreign legal entities or (b) created under the laws of a foreign government, and (iii) "foreign person" means any individual who is not a citizen or national of the United States or a trust territory or protectorate thereof.
10. Discussion or consideration by the boards of trustees of the Virginia Museum of Fine Arts, the Virginia Museum of Natural History, the Jamestown-Yorktown Foundation, the Fort Monroe Authority, and The Science Museum of Virginia of matters relating to specific gifts, bequests, and grants from private sources.
11. Discussion or consideration of honorary degrees or special awards.
12. Discussion or consideration of tests, examinations, or other information used, administered, or prepared by a public body and subject to the exclusion in subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.1.
13. Discussion, consideration, or review by the appropriate House or Senate committees of possible disciplinary action against a member arising out of the possible inadequacy of the disclosure statement filed by the member, provided that the member may request in writing that the committee meeting not be conducted in a closed meeting.
14. Discussion of strategy with respect to the negotiation of a hazardous waste siting agreement or to consider the terms, conditions, and provisions of a hazardous waste siting agreement if the governing body in open meeting finds that an open meeting will have an adverse effect upon the negotiating position of the governing body or the establishment of the terms, conditions and provisions of the siting agreement, or both. All discussions with the applicant or its representatives may be conducted in a closed meeting.
15. Discussion by the Governor and any economic advisory board reviewing forecasts of economic activity and estimating general and nongeneral fund revenues.
16. Discussion or consideration of medical and mental health records subject to the exclusion in subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.5.
17. Deliberations of the Virginia Lottery Board in a licensing appeal action conducted pursuant to subsection D of § 58.1-4007 regarding the denial or revocation of a license of a lottery sales agent; and discussion, consideration or review of Virginia Lottery matters related to proprietary lottery game information and studies or investigations excluded from disclosure under subdivision 6 of § 2.2-3705.3 and subdivision 11 of § 2.2-3705.7.
18. Those portions of meetings in which the State Board of Local and Regional Jails discusses or discloses the identity of, or information tending to identify, any prisoner who (i) provides information about crimes or criminal activities, (ii) renders assistance in preventing the escape of another prisoner or in the apprehension of an escaped prisoner, or (iii) voluntarily or at the instance of a prison official renders other extraordinary services, the disclosure of which is likely to jeopardize the prisoner's life or safety.
19. Discussion of plans to protect public safety as it relates to terrorist activity or specific cybersecurity threats or vulnerabilities and briefings by staff members, legal counsel, or law-enforcement or emergency service officials concerning actions taken to respond to such matters or a related threat to public safety; discussion of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 2 or 14 of § 2.2-3705.2, where discussion in an open meeting would jeopardize the safety of any person or the security of any facility, building, structure, information technology system, or software program; or discussion of reports or plans related to the security of any governmental facility, building or structure, or the safety of persons using such facility, building or structure.
20. Discussion by the Board of the Virginia Retirement System, acting pursuant to § 51.1-124.30, or of any local retirement system, acting pursuant to § 51.1-803, or by a local finance board or board of trustees of a trust established by one or more local public bodies to invest funds for postemployment benefits other than pensions, acting pursuant to Article 8 (§ 15.2-1544 et seq.) of Chapter 15 of Title 15.2, or by the board of visitors of the University of Virginia, acting pursuant to § 23.1-2210, or by the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan, acting pursuant to § 23.1-706, regarding the acquisition, holding or disposition of a security or other ownership interest in an entity, where such security or ownership interest is not traded on a governmentally regulated securities exchange, to the extent that such discussion (i) concerns confidential analyses prepared for the board of visitors of the University of Virginia, prepared by the retirement system, or a local finance board or board of trustees, or the Commonwealth Savers Plan or provided to the retirement system, a local finance board or board of trustees, or the Commonwealth Savers Plan under a promise of confidentiality, of the future value of such ownership interest or the future financial performance of the entity, and (ii) would have an adverse effect on the value of the investment to be acquired, held, or disposed of by the retirement system, a local finance board or board of trustees, the board of visitors of the University of Virginia, or the Commonwealth Savers Plan. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prevent the disclosure of information relating to the identity of any investment held, the amount invested or the present value of such investment.
21. Those portions of meetings in which individual child death cases are discussed by the State Child Fatality Review Team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.1, those portions of meetings in which individual child death cases are discussed by a regional or local child fatality review team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.2, those portions of meetings in which individual death cases are discussed by family violence fatality review teams established pursuant to § 32.1-283.3, those portions of meetings in which individual adult death cases are discussed by the state Adult Fatality Review Team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.5, those portions of meetings in which individual adult death cases are discussed by a local or regional adult fatality review team established pursuant to § 32.1-283.6, those portions of meetings in which individual death cases are discussed by overdose fatality review teams established pursuant to § 32.1-283.7, those portions of meetings in which individual maternal death cases are discussed by the Maternal Mortality Review Team pursuant to § 32.1-283.8, and those portions of meetings in which individual death cases of persons with developmental disabilities are discussed by the Developmental Disabilities Mortality Review Committee established pursuant to § 37.2-314.1.
22. Those portions of meetings of the board of visitors of the University of Virginia or Old Dominion University, as the case may be, and those portions of meetings of any persons to whom management responsibilities for the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be, have been delegated, in which there is discussed proprietary, business-related information pertaining to the operations of the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be, including business development or marketing strategies and activities with existing or future joint venturers, partners, or other parties with whom the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be, has formed, or forms, any arrangement for the delivery of health care, if disclosure of such information would adversely affect the competitive position of the University of Virginia Medical Center or the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, as the case may be.
23. Discussion or consideration by the Virginia Commonwealth University Health System Authority or the board of visitors of Virginia Commonwealth University of any of the following: the acquisition or disposition by the Authority of real property, equipment, or technology software or hardware and related goods or services, where disclosure would adversely affect the bargaining position or negotiating strategy of the Authority; matters relating to gifts or bequests to, and fund-raising activities of, the Authority; grants and contracts for services or work to be performed by the Authority; marketing or operational strategies plans of the Authority where disclosure of such strategies or plans would adversely affect the competitive position of the Authority; and members of the Authority's medical and teaching staffs and qualifications for appointments thereto.
24. Those portions of the meetings of the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee within the Department of Health Professions to the extent such discussions identify any practitioner who may be, or who actually is, impaired pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.) of Title 54.1.
25. Meetings or portions of meetings of the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan wherein personal information, as defined in § 2.2-3801, which has been provided to the Board or its employees by or on behalf of individuals who have requested information about, applied for, or entered into prepaid tuition contracts or savings trust account agreements pursuant to Chapter 7 (§ 23.1-700 et seq.) of Title 23.1 is discussed.
26. Discussion or consideration, by the former Wireless Carrier E-911 Cost Recovery Subcommittee created pursuant to former § 56-484.15, of trade secrets submitted by CMRS providers, as defined in § 56-484.12, related to the provision of wireless E-911 service.
27. Those portions of disciplinary proceedings by any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, Department of Health Professions, or the Board of Accountancy conducted pursuant to § 2.2-4019 or 2.2-4020 during which the board deliberates to reach a decision or meetings of health regulatory boards or conference committees of such boards to consider settlement proposals in pending disciplinary actions or modifications to previously issued board orders as requested by either of the parties.
28. Discussion or consideration of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 11 of § 2.2-3705.6 by a responsible public entity or an affected locality or public entity, as those terms are defined in § 33.2-1800, or any independent review panel appointed to review information and advise the responsible public entity concerning such records.
29. Discussion of the award of a public contract involving the expenditure of public funds, including interviews of bidders or offerors, and discussion of the terms or scope of such contract, where discussion in an open session would adversely affect the bargaining position or negotiating strategy of the public body.
30. Discussion or consideration of grant or loan application information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 17 of § 2.2-3705.6 by the Commonwealth Health Research Board.
31. Discussion or consideration by the Commitment Review Committee of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 5 of § 2.2-3705.2 relating to individuals subject to commitment as sexually violent predators under Chapter 9 (§ 37.2-900 et seq.) of Title 37.2.
32. Discussion or consideration of confidential proprietary information and trade secrets developed and held by a local public body providing certain telecommunication services or cable television services and subject to the exclusion in subdivision 18 of § 2.2-3705.6. However, the exemption provided by this subdivision shall not apply to any authority created pursuant to the BVU Authority Act (§ 15.2-7200 et seq.).
33. Discussion or consideration by a local authority created in accordance with the Virginia Wireless Service Authorities Act (§ 15.2-5431.1 et seq.) of confidential proprietary information and trade secrets subject to the exclusion in subdivision 19 of § 2.2-3705.6.
34. Discussion or consideration by the State Board of Elections or local electoral boards of voting security matters made confidential pursuant to § 24.2-410.2 or 24.2-625.1 and review by the State Board of Elections of complaints related to the personal use of campaign funds pursuant to § 24.2-948.7.
35. Discussion or consideration by the Forensic Science Board or the Scientific Advisory Committee created pursuant to Article 2 (§ 9.1-1109 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 9.1 of criminal investigative files.
36. Discussion or consideration by the Brown v. Board of Education Scholarship Committee of information or confidential matters subject to the exclusion in subdivision A 3 of § 2.2-3705.4, and meetings of the Committee to deliberate concerning the annual maximum scholarship award, review and consider scholarship applications and requests for scholarship award renewal, and cancel, rescind, or recover scholarship awards.
37. Discussion or consideration by the Virginia Port Authority of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to certain proprietary information gathered by or for the Virginia Port Authority.
38. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Trustees of the Virginia Retirement System acting pursuant to § 51.1-124.30, by the Investment Advisory Committee appointed pursuant to § 51.1-124.26, by any local retirement system, acting pursuant to § 51.1-803, by the Board of the Commonwealth Savers Plan acting pursuant to § 23.1-706, or by the Commonwealth Savers Plan's Investment Advisory Committee appointed pursuant to § 23.1-702 of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 24 of § 2.2-3705.7.
39. Discussion or consideration of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 3 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to economic development.
40. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Education of information relating to the denial, suspension, or revocation of teacher licenses subject to the exclusion in subdivision 11 of § 2.2-3705.3.
41. Those portions of meetings of the Virginia Military Advisory Council or any commission created by executive order for the purpose of studying and making recommendations regarding preventing closure or realignment of federal military and national security installations and facilities located in Virginia and relocation of such facilities to Virginia, or a local or regional military affairs organization appointed by a local governing body, during which there is discussion of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 8 of § 2.2-3705.2.
42. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Trustees of the Veterans Services Foundation of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 28 of § 2.2-3705.7 related to personally identifiable information of donors.
43. Discussion or consideration by the Virginia Tobacco Region Revitalization Commission of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 23 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to certain information contained in grant applications.
44. Discussion or consideration by the board of directors of the Commercial Space Flight Authority of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 24 of § 2.2-3705.6 related to rate structures or charges for the use of projects of, the sale of products of, or services rendered by the Authority and certain proprietary information of a private entity provided to the Authority.
45. Discussion or consideration of personal and proprietary information related to the resource management plan program and subject to the exclusion in (i) subdivision 25 of § 2.2-3705.6 or (ii) subsection E of § 10.1-104.7. This exclusion shall not apply to the discussion or consideration of records that contain information that has been certified for release by the person who is the subject of the information or transformed into a statistical or aggregate form that does not allow identification of the person who supplied, or is the subject of, the information.
46. Discussion or consideration by the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.3 related to investigations of applicants for licenses and permits and of licensees and permittees.
47. Discussion or consideration of grant, loan, or investment application records subject to the exclusion in subdivision 28 of § 2.2-3705.6 for a grant, loan, or investment pursuant to Article 11 (§ 2.2-2351 et seq.) of Chapter 22.
48. Discussion or development of grant proposals by a regional council established pursuant to Article 26 (§ 2.2-2484 et seq.) of Chapter 24 to be submitted for consideration to the Virginia Growth and Opportunity Board.
49. Discussion or consideration of (i) individual sexual assault cases by a sexual assault response team established pursuant to § 15.2-1627.4, (ii) individual child abuse or neglect cases or sex offenses involving a child by a child sexual abuse response team established pursuant to § 15.2-1627.5, (iii) individual cases involving abuse, neglect, or exploitation of adults as defined in § 63.2-1603 pursuant to §§ 15.2-1627.5 and 63.2-1605, or (iv) individual human trafficking cases by any human trafficking response team established pursuant to § 15.2-1627.6.
50. Discussion or consideration by the Board of the Virginia Economic Development Partnership Authority, the Joint Legislative Audit and Review Commission, or any subcommittees thereof, of the portions of the strategic plan, marketing plan, or operational plan exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 33 of § 2.2-3705.7.
51. Those portions of meetings of the subcommittee of the Board of the Virginia Economic Development Partnership Authority established pursuant to subsection F of § 2.2-2237.3 to review and discuss information received from the Virginia Employment Commission pursuant to subdivision C 2 of § 60.2-114 and the Department of Workforce Development and Advancement pursuant to subsection B of § 2.2-2040.
52. Discussion or consideration by the Commonwealth of Virginia Innovation Partnership Authority (the Authority), an advisory committee of the Authority, or any other entity designated by the Authority, of information subject to the exclusion in subdivision 35 of § 2.2-3705.7.
53. Deliberations of the Virginia Lottery Board conducted pursuant to § 58.1-4105 regarding the denial or revocation of a license of a casino gaming operator, or the refusal to issue, suspension of, or revocation of any license or permit related to casino gaming, and discussion, consideration, or review of matters related to investigations excluded from mandatory disclosure under subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.3.
54. Deliberations of the Virginia Lottery Board in an appeal conducted pursuant to § 58.1-4007 regarding the denial of, revocation of, suspension of, or refusal to renew any license or permit related to sports betting and any discussion, consideration, or review of matters related to investigations excluded from mandatory disclosure under subdivision 1 of § 2.2-3705.3.
55. Meetings or portions of meetings of the Board of Criminal Justice Services or the Department of Criminal Justice Services concerning the decertification of an identifiable law-enforcement or jail officer.
B. No resolution, ordinance, rule, contract, regulation or motion adopted, passed or agreed to in a closed meeting shall become effective unless the public body, following the meeting, reconvenes in open meeting and takes a vote of the membership on such resolution, ordinance, rule, contract, regulation, or motion that shall have its substance reasonably identified in the open meeting.
C. Public officers improperly selected due to the failure of the public body to comply with the other provisions of this section shall be de facto officers and, as such, their official actions are valid until they obtain notice of the legal defect in their election.
D. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent the holding of conferences between two or more public bodies, or their representatives, but these conferences shall be subject to the same procedures for holding closed meetings as are applicable to any other public body.
E. This section shall not be construed to (i) require the disclosure of any contract between the Department of Health Professions and an impaired practitioner entered into pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.) of Title 54.1 or (ii) require the board of directors of any authority created pursuant to the Industrial Development and Revenue Bond Act (§ 15.2-4900 et seq.), or any public body empowered to issue industrial revenue bonds by general or special law, to identify a business or industry to which subdivision A 5 applies. However, such business or industry shall be identified as a matter of public record at least 30 days prior to the actual date of the board's authorization of the sale or issuance of such bonds.
§ 2.2-3802. Systems to which chapter inapplicable.
The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to personal information systems:
1. Maintained by any court of the Commonwealth;
2. Which may exist in publications of general circulation;
3. Contained in the Criminal Justice Information System as defined in §§ 9.1-126 through 9.1-137 or in the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry maintained by the Department of State Police pursuant to Chapter 9 (§ 9.1-900 et seq.) of Title 9.1, except to the extent that information is required to be posted on the Internet pursuant to § 9.1-913;
4. Contained in the Virginia Juvenile Justice Information System as defined in §§ 16.1-222 through 16.1-225;
5. Maintained by agencies concerning persons required by law to be licensed in the Commonwealth to engage in the practice of any profession, in which case the names and addresses of persons applying for or possessing the license may be disseminated upon written request to a person engaged in the profession or business of offering professional educational materials or courses for the sole purpose of providing the licensees or applicants for licenses with informational materials relating solely to available professional educational materials or courses, provided the disseminating agency is reasonably assured that the use of the information will be so limited;
6. Maintained by the Parole Board, the Crime Commission, the Judicial Inquiry and Review Commission, the Virginia Racing Commission, the Virginia Criminal Sentencing Commission, and the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority;
7. Maintained by any of the following and that deal with investigations and intelligence gathering related to criminal activity:
a. The Department of State Police;
b. The police department of the Chesapeake Bay Bridge and Tunnel Commission;
c. Police departments of cities, counties, and towns;
d. Sheriff's departments of counties and cities;
e. Campus police departments of public institutions of higher education as established by Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1; and
f. The Division of Capitol Police.
8. Maintained by local departments of social services regarding alleged cases of child abuse or neglect while such cases are also subject to an ongoing criminal prosecution;
9. Maintained by the Virginia Port Authority as provided in § 62.1-132.4 or 62.1-134.1;
10. Maintained by the Virginia Tourism Authority in connection with or as a result of the promotion of travel or tourism in the Commonwealth, in which case names and addresses of persons requesting information on those subjects may be disseminated upon written request to a person engaged in the business of providing travel services or distributing travel information, provided the Virginia Tourism Authority is reasonably assured that the use of the information will be so limited;
11. Maintained by the Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services of the Department of General Services and the Department of Forensic Science, which deal with scientific investigations relating to criminal activity or suspected criminal activity, except to the extent that § 9.1-1104 may apply;
12. Maintained by the Department of Corrections or the Office of the State Inspector General that deal with investigations and intelligence gathering by persons acting under the provisions of Chapter 3.2 (§ 2.2-307 et seq.);
13. Maintained by (i) the Office of the State Inspector General or internal audit departments of state agencies or institutions that deal with communications and investigations relating to the Fraud, Waste and Abuse Hotline or (ii) an auditor appointed by the local governing body of any county, city, or town or a school board that deals with local investigations required by § 15.2-2511.2;
14. Maintained by the Department of Social Services or any local department of social services relating to public assistance fraud investigations;
15. Maintained by the Department of Social Services related to child welfare or public assistance programs when requests for personal information are made to the Department of Social Services. Requests for information from these systems shall be made to the appropriate local department of social services that is the custodian of that record. Notwithstanding the language in this section, an individual shall not be prohibited from obtaining information from the central registry in accordance with the provisions of § 63.2-1515; and
16. Maintained by the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services related to adult services, adult protective services, or auxiliary grants when requests for personal information are made to the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services. Requests for information from these systems shall be made to the appropriate local department of social services that is the custodian of that record.
§ 2.2-4024. Hearing officers.
A. In all formal hearings conducted in accordance with § 2.2-4020, the hearing shall be presided over by a hearing officer selected from a list prepared by the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court and maintained in the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court. Parties to informal fact-finding proceedings conducted pursuant to § 2.2-4019 may agree at the outset of the proceeding to have a hearing officer preside at the proceeding, such agreement to be revoked only by mutual consent. The Executive Secretary may promulgate rules necessary for the administration of the hearing officer system and shall have the authority to establish the number of hearing officers necessary to preside over administrative hearings in the Commonwealth.
Prior to being included on the list, all hearing officers shall meet the following minimum standards:
1. Active membership in good standing in the Virginia State Bar;
2. Active practice of law for at least five years; and
3. Completion of a course of training approved by the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court. In order to comply with the demonstrated requirements of the agency requesting a hearing officer, the Executive Secretary may require additional training before a hearing officer shall be assigned to a proceeding before that agency.
B. On request from the head of an agency, the Executive Secretary shall name a hearing officer from the list, selected on a rotation system administered by the Executive Secretary. Lists reflecting geographic preference and specialized training or knowledge shall be maintained by the Executive Secretary if an agency demonstrates the need.
C. A hearing officer appointed in accordance with this section shall be subject to disqualification as provided in § 2.2-4024.1. If the hearing officer denies a petition for disqualification pursuant to § 2.2-4024.1, the petitioning party may request reconsideration of the denial by filing a written request with the Executive Secretary along with an affidavit, prior to the taking of evidence at a hearing, stating with particularity the grounds upon which it is claimed that a fair and impartial hearing cannot be accorded, or the applicable rule of practice requiring disqualification.
The issue shall be determined not less than 10 days prior to the hearing by the Executive Secretary.
D. Any hearing officer empowered by the agency to provide a recommendation or conclusion in a case decision matter shall render that recommendation or conclusion as follows:
1. If the agency's written regulations or procedures require the hearing officer to render a recommendation or conclusion within a specified time period, the hearing officer shall render the recommendation or conclusion on or before the expiration of the specified period; and
2. In all other cases, the hearing officer shall render the recommendation or conclusion within 90 days from the date of the case decision proceeding or from a later date agreed to by the named party and the agency.
If the hearing officer does not render a decision within the time required by this subsection, then the agency or the named party to the case decision may provide written notice to the hearing officer and the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court that a decision is due. If no decision is made within 30 days from receipt by the hearing officer of the notice, then the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court shall remove the hearing officer from the hearing officer list and report the hearing officer to the Virginia State Bar for possible disciplinary action, unless good cause is shown for the delay.
E. The Executive Secretary shall remove hearing officers from the list, upon a showing of cause after written notice and an opportunity for a hearing. When there is a failure by a hearing officer to render a decision as required by subsection D, the burden shall be on the hearing officer to show good cause for the delay. Decisions to remove a hearing officer may be reviewed by a request to the Executive Secretary for reconsideration, followed by judicial review in accordance with this chapter.
F. This section shall not apply to hearings conducted by (i) any commission or board where all of the members, or a quorum, are present; (ii) the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Virginia Workers' Compensation Commission, the State Corporation Commission, the Virginia Employment Commission, the Department of Motor Vehicles under Title 46.2 (§ 46.2-100 et seq.), § 58.1-2409, or Chapter 27 (§ 58.1-2700 et seq.) of Title 58.1, or the Motor Vehicle Dealer Board under Chapter 15 (§ 46.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 46.2; or (iii) any panel of a health regulatory board convened pursuant to § 54.1-2400, including any panel having members of a relevant advisory board to the Board of Medicine. All employees hired after July 1, 1986, pursuant to §§ 65.2-201 and 65.2-203 by the Virginia Workers' Compensation Commission to conduct hearings pursuant to its basic laws shall meet the minimum qualifications set forth in subsection A. Agency employees who are not licensed to practice law in the Commonwealth, and are presiding as hearing officers in proceedings pursuant to clause (ii) shall participate in periodic training courses.
G. Notwithstanding the exemptions of subsection A of § 2.2-4002, this article shall apply to hearing officers conducting hearings of the kind described in § 2.2-4020 for the Department of Wildlife Resources, the Virginia Housing Development Authority, the Milk Commission, and the Virginia Resources Authority pursuant to their basic laws.
§ 2.2-4345. Exemptions from competitive sealed bidding and competitive negotiation for certain transactions; limitations.
A. The following public bodies may enter into contracts without competitive sealed bidding or competitive negotiation:
1. The Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services for special services provided for eligible recipients pursuant to subsection H of § 32.1-325, provided that the Director has made a determination in advance after reasonable notice to the public and set forth in writing that competitive sealed bidding or competitive negotiation for such services is not fiscally advantageous to the public, or would constitute an imminent threat to the health or welfare of such recipients. The writing shall document the basis for this determination.
2. The State Health Commissioner for the compilation, storage, analysis, evaluation, and publication of certain data submitted by health care providers and for the development of a methodology to measure the efficiency and productivity of health care providers pursuant to Chapter 7.2 (§ 32.1-276.2 et seq.) of Title 32.1, if the Commissioner has made a determination in advance, after reasonable notice to the public and set forth in writing, that competitive sealed bidding or competitive negotiation for such services is not fiscally advantageous to the public. The writing shall document the basis for this determination. Such agreements and contracts shall be based on competitive principles.
3. The Virginia Code Commission when procuring the services of a publisher, pursuant to §§ 30-146 and 30-148, to publish the Code of Virginia or the Virginia Administrative Code.
4. The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority for the purchase of alcoholic beverages.
5. The Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services, for the administration of elder rights programs, with (i) nonprofit Virginia corporations granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code with statewide experience in Virginia in conducting a state long-term care ombudsman program or (ii) designated area agencies on aging.
6. The Department of Health for (a) child restraint devices, pursuant to § 46.2-1097; (b) health care services with Virginia corporations granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operating as clinics for the indigent and uninsured that are organized for the delivery of primary health care services in a community (i) as federally qualified health centers designated by the Health Care Financing Administration or (ii) at a reduced or sliding fee scale or without charge; or (c) contracts with laboratories providing cytology and related services if competitive sealed bidding and competitive negotiations are not fiscally advantageous to the public to provide quality control as prescribed in writing by the Commissioner of Health.
7. Virginia Correctional Enterprises, when procuring materials, supplies, or services for use in and support of its production facilities, provided that the procurement is accomplished using procedures that ensure as efficient use of funds as practicable and, at a minimum, includes obtaining telephone quotations. Such procedures shall require documentation of the basis for awarding contracts under this section.
8. The Virginia Baseball Stadium Authority for the operation of any facilities developed under the provisions of Chapter 58 (§ 15.2-5800 et seq.) of Title 15.2, including contracts or agreements with respect to the sale of food, beverages and souvenirs at such facilities.
9. With the consent of the Governor, the Jamestown-Yorktown Foundation for the promotion of tourism through marketing with private entities provided a demonstrable cost savings, as reviewed by the Secretary of Education, can be realized by the Foundation and such agreements or contracts are based on competitive principles.
10. The Chesapeake Hospital Authority in the exercise of any power conferred under Chapter 271, as amended, of the Acts of Assembly of 1966, provided that it does not discriminate against any person on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions, age, marital status, or disability in the procurement of goods and services.
11. Richmond Eye and Ear Hospital Authority, any authorities created under Chapter 53 (§ 15.2-5300 et seq.) of Title 15.2 and any hospital or health center commission created under Chapter 52 (§ 15.2-5200 et seq.) of Title 15.2 in the exercise of any power conferred under their respective authorizing legislation, provided that these entities shall not discriminate against any person on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions, age, marital status, or disability in the procurement of goods and services.
12. The Patrick Hospital Authority sealed in the exercise of any power conferred under the Acts of Assembly of 2000, provided that it does not discriminate against any person on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions, age, marital status, or disability in the procurement of goods and services.
13. Public bodies for insurance or electric utility services if purchased through an association of which it is a member if the association was formed and is maintained for the purpose of promoting the interest and welfare of and developing close relationships with similar public bodies, provided that such association has procured the insurance or electric utility services by use of competitive principles and that the public body has made a determination in advance after reasonable notice to the public and set forth in writing that competitive sealed bidding and competitive negotiation are not fiscally advantageous to the public. The writing shall document the basis for this determination.
14. Public bodies administering public assistance and social services programs as defined in § 63.2-100, community services boards as defined in § 37.2-100, or any public body purchasing services under the Children's Services Act (§ 2.2-5200 et seq.) or the Virginia Juvenile Community Crime Control Act (§ 16.1-309.2 et seq.) for goods or personal services for direct use by the recipients of such programs if the procurement is made for an individual recipient. Contracts for the bulk procurement of goods or services for the use of recipients shall not be exempted from the requirements of § 2.2-4303.
B. No contract for the construction of any building or for an addition to or improvement of an existing building by any local government or subdivision of local government for which state funds of not more than $50,000 in the aggregate or for the sum of all phases of a contract or project either by appropriation, grant-in-aid or loan, are used or are to be used for all or part of the cost of construction shall be let except after competitive sealed bidding or after competitive negotiation as provided under subsection D of § 2.2-4303 or Chapter 43.1 (§ 2.2-4378 et seq.). The procedure for the advertising for bids or for proposals and for letting of the contract shall conform, mutatis mutandis, to this chapter.
§ 3.2-1010. Enforcement of chapter; summons.
Any conservation police officer or law-enforcement officer as defined in § 9.1-101, excluding certain members of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, may enforce the provisions of this chapter and the regulations adopted hereunder as well as those who are so designated by the Commissioner. Those designated by the Commissioner may issue a summons to any person who violates any provision of this chapter to appear at a time and place to be specified in such summons.
§ 3.2-3008. Virginia Spirits Board; purpose; composition and appointment of members; quorum; meeting.
A. The Virginia Spirits Board is established within the Department. The purpose of the Board is to foster the development of the Virginia spirits industry by expanding spirits research, increasing education, and promoting the production of ingredients necessary for alcohol distillation and the production of spirits in the Commonwealth.
B. The Board shall consist of 11 members as follows: the Commissioner and the Chief Executive Officer of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, both of whom shall serve ex officio without voting privileges, or their designees, and nine voting nonlegislative citizen members to be appointed by the Governor, three of whom shall be coopers or maltsters and six of whom shall be owners or operators of a distillery in the Commonwealth. Nonlegislative citizen members shall be citizens of the Commonwealth. The Governor shall make his appointments upon consideration of the recommendations made by any cooper or maltster or any owner or operator of a distillery. Each entity or person shall submit two or more recommendations for each available position at least 90 days before the expiration of the member's term for which the recommendation is being provided. If such entities or persons fail to provide the nominations at least 90 days before the expiration date pursuant to this section, the Governor may appoint other nominees that meet the foregoing criteria.
C. A majority of the members of the Board shall constitute a quorum, but a two-thirds vote of the members present shall be required for passage of items taken up by the Board. The Board shall meet at least four times each year. The meetings of the Board shall be held at the call of the chairman or whenever the majority of the members so request.
§ 3.2-3906. Board to adopt regulations.
The Board may adopt regulations pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), including:
1. Licensing of businesses that manufacture, sell, store, recommend for use, mix, or apply pesticides;
2. Registration of pesticides for manufacture, distribution, sale, storage, or use;
3. Requiring reporting and record keeping related to licensing and registration;
4. Establishing training, testing and standards for certification of commercial applicators, registered technicians, and private applicators;
5. Revoking, suspending or denying licenses (business), registration (products), and certification or certificate (applicators or technicians);
6. Requiring licensees and certificate holders to inform the public when using pesticides in and around structures;
7. Establishing a fee structure for licensure, registration and certification to defray the costs of implementing this chapter;
8. Classifying or subclassifying certification or certificates to be issued under this chapter. Such classifications may include agricultural, forest, ornamental, aquatic, right-of-way or industrial, institutional, structural or health-related pest control;
9. Restricting or prohibiting the sale or use and disposal of any pesticide or pesticide container or residuals that: (i) undesirably persists in the environment or increases due to biological amplification or unreasonable adverse effects on the environment; or (ii) because of toxicity or inordinate hazard to man, animal, bird or plant may be contrary to the public interest; and
10. Establishing criteria for or a list of pesticides that may be used on cannabis cultivated in compliance with Subtitle II (§ 4.1-600 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or Chapter 41.1 (§ 3.2-4112 et seq.) of Title 3.2; and
11. Other regulations necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes of this chapter.
§ 3.2-4113. Production of industrial hemp lawful.
A. It is lawful for a grower, his agent, or a federally licensed hemp producer to grow, a handler or his agent to handle, or a processor or his agent to process industrial hemp in the Commonwealth for any lawful purpose. No federally licensed hemp producer or grower or his agent shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-247, Subtitle II of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for the possession or growing of industrial hemp or any Cannabis sativa with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration that does not exceed the total tetrahydrocannabinol concentration percentage established in federal regulations applicable to negligent violations located at 7 C.F.R. § 990.6(b)(3). No handler or his agent or processor or his agent shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-247, 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 or issued a summons or judgment for the possession, handling, or processing of industrial hemp. In any complaint, information, or indictment, and in any action or proceeding brought for the enforcement of any provision of Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 or the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), it shall not be necessary to negate any exception, excuse, proviso, or exemption contained in this article or the Drug Control Act, and the burden of proof of any such exception, excuse, proviso, or exemption shall be on the defendant.
B. Nothing in this article shall be construed to authorize any person to violate any federal law or regulation.
C. No person shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-247, Subtitle II of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for the involuntary growth of industrial hemp through the inadvertent natural spread of seeds or pollen as a result of proximity to a production field, handler's storage site, or process site.
§ 3.2-4114. Regulations.
A. The Board may adopt regulations pursuant to this article as necessary to register persons to grow, handle, or process industrial hemp or implement the provisions of this article.
B. Upon publication by the U.S. Department of Agriculture in the Federal Register of any final rule regarding industrial hemp that materially expands opportunities for growing, producing, or handling industrial hemp in the Commonwealth, the Board shall immediately adopt amendments conforming Department regulations to such federal final rule. Such adoption of regulations by the Board shall be exempt from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).
C. The Board shall adopt regulations (i) establishing acceptable testing practices for a hemp product intended for smoking, (ii) identifying the contaminants for which a hemp product intended for smoking shall be tested, and (iii) establishing the maximum level of allowable contamination for each contaminant.
D. The Board shall adopt regulations establishing (i) labeling and packaging requirements for a hemp product intended for smoking and a hemp product that is an industrial hemp extract intended for human consumption and (ii) advertising requirements for a hemp product intended for smoking and a hemp product that is an industrial hemp extract intended for human consumption.
E. With the exception of § 2.2-4031, neither the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) nor public participation guidelines adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to the regulations adopted pursuant to subsections C or D. Prior to adopting any regulation pursuant to subsections C or D, the Board shall publish a notice of opportunity to comment in the Virginia Register of Regulations and post the action on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall. Such notice of opportunity to comment shall contain (i) a summary of the proposed regulation; (ii) the text of the proposed regulation; and (iii) the name, address, and telephone number of the agency contact person responsible for receiving public comments. Such notice shall be made at least 60 days in advance of the last date prescribed in such notice for submittals of public comment. The legislative review provisions of subsections A and B of § 2.2-4014 shall apply to the promulgation or final adoption process for regulations adopted pursuant to subsections C or D. The Board shall consider and keep on file all public comments received for any regulation adopted pursuant to subsections C or D.
§ 3.2-4114.2. Authority of Commissioner; notice to law enforcement; report.
A. The Commissioner may charge a nonrefundable fee not to exceed $250 for any application for registration or license or renewal of registration or license allowed under this article. The Commissioner may charge a nonrefundable fee for the tetrahydrocannabinol testing allowed under this article. All fees collected by the Commissioner shall be deposited in the state treasury.
B. The Commissioner shall adopt regulations establishing a fee structure for a registration issued pursuant to § 3.2-4115. With the exception of § 2.2-4031, no provision of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) or public participation guideline adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to the adoption of any regulation pursuant to this subsection. However, prior to adopting any regulation pursuant to this subsection, the Commissioner shall review the recommendation of an advisory panel that shall consider the economic impact of any proposed fee amount on the Commonwealth's industrial hemp industry. The advisory panel shall, at a minimum, include (i) an agribusiness representative or organization, (ii) a farming representative or organization, and (iii) a hemp industry representative or organization. Prior to adopting any regulation pursuant to this subsection, the Commissioner shall publish a notice of opportunity to comment in the Virginia Register of Regulations and post the action on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall. Such notice shall contain (a) a summary of the proposed regulation; (b) the text of the proposed regulation; and (c) the name, address, and telephone number of the agency contact person responsible for receiving public comments. Such notice shall be made at least 60 days in advance of the last date prescribed in such notice of submittals of public comment. The legislative review provisions of subsections A and B of § 2.2-4014 shall apply to the promulgation or final adoption process of regulations pursuant to this subsection. The Commissioner shall consider and keep on file all public comments received for any regulation adopted pursuant to this subsection.
C. The Commissioner may establish an application period for a registration or renewal of registration allowed under this article.
D. The Commissioner shall notify the Superintendent of State Police of each registration issued by the Commissioner under this article and each license submitted to the Commissioner by a federally licensed hemp producer.
E. The Commissioner shall forward a copy or appropriate electronic record of each registration issued by the Commissioner under this article and each license submitted to the Commissioner by a federally licensed hemp producer to the chief law-enforcement officer of the county or city where industrial hemp will be grown, handled, or processed.
F. The Commissioner may monitor the industrial hemp grown, handled, or processed by a person registered pursuant to § 3.2-4115 and provide for random sampling and testing of the industrial hemp in accordance with any criteria established by the Commissioner and at the cost of the grower, handler, or processor, for compliance with tetrahydrocannabinol limits and for other appropriate purposes established pursuant to § 3.2-4114. In addition to any routine inspection and sampling, the Commissioner may inspect and sample the industrial hemp at any production field, handler's storage site, or process site during normal business hours without advance notice if he has reason to believe a violation of this article is occurring or has occurred.
G. The Commissioner may require a grower, handler, or processor to destroy, at the cost of the grower, handler, or processor and in a manner approved of and verified by the Commissioner, any Cannabis sativa that the grower grows, the handler handles, or the processor processes that has been tested and is found to have a concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol that is greater than that allowed by federal law, or any Cannabis sativa product that the processor produces.
H. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection G, if the provisions of subdivisions 1 and 2 are included in a plan that (i) is submitted by the Department pursuant to § 10113 of the federal Agriculture Improvement Act of 2018, P.L. 115-334, (ii) requires the Department to monitor and regulate the production of industrial hemp in the Commonwealth, and (iii) is approved by the U.S. Secretary of Agriculture:
1. The Commissioner may require a grower, handler, or processor to destroy, at the cost of the grower, handler, or processor and in a manner approved of and verified by the Commissioner, any Cannabis sativa that the grower grows, the handler handles, or the processor processes that has been tested and is found to have a concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol that is greater than 0.6 percent.
2. If such a test of Cannabis sativa indicates a concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol that is greater than 0.6 percent but less than one percent, the Commissioner shall allow the grower, handler, or processor to request that the Cannabis sativa be sampled and tested again before he requires its destruction.
I. The Commissioner shall advise the Superintendent of State Police or the chief law-enforcement officer of the appropriate county or city when, with a culpable mental state greater than negligence, a grower grows, a handler handles, or a processor processes any Cannabis sativa with a concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol that is greater than that allowed by federal law or a processor produces a Cannabis sativa product.
J. The Commissioner may pursue any permits or waivers from the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration or appropriate federal agency that he determines to be necessary for the advancement of the industrial hemp industry.
K. The Commissioner may establish a corrective action plan to address a negligent violation of any provision of this article.
§ 3.2-4116. Registration conditions.
A. A person who is not a federally licensed hemp producer shall obtain a registration pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 prior to growing, handling, or processing any industrial hemp in the Commonwealth.
B. A person issued a registration pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 shall:
1. Maintain records that reflect compliance with this article;
2. Retain all industrial hemp growing, handling, or processing records for at least three years;
3. Allow his production field, handler's storage site, or process site to be inspected by and at the discretion of the Commissioner or his designee, the Department of State Police, or the chief law-enforcement officer of the locality in which the production field, or handler's storage site, or process site exists;
4. Allow the Commissioner or his designee to monitor and test the grower's, handler's, or processor's industrial hemp for compliance with tetrahydrocannabinol levels and for other appropriate purposes established pursuant to § 3.2-4114, at the cost of the grower, handler, or processor; and
5. If required by the Commissioner, destroy, at the cost of the grower, handler, or processor and in a manner approved of and verified by the Commissioner, any Cannabis sativa that the grower grows, the handler handles, or the processor processes that has been tested and, following any re-sampling and retesting as authorized pursuant to the provisions of § 3.2-4114.2, is found to have a concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol that is greater than that allowed by federal law, or any Cannabis sativa product that the processor produces.
C. A processor shall not sell industrial hemp or a substance containing an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1, to a person if the processor knows or has reason to know that such person will use the industrial hemp or substance containing an industrial hemp extract in a substance that (i) contains a total tetrahydrocannabinol concentration that is greater than 0.3 percent or (ii) contains more than two milligrams of total tetrahydrocannabinol per package and does not contain an amount of cannabidiol that is at least 25 times greater than the amount of total tetrahydrocannabinol per package.
D. A processor that processes a hemp product intended for smoking shall make available the results of the testing conducted in accordance with § 3.2-4122 to each retail establishment that offers for sale the processor's hemp product intended for smoking.
Article 6.
Edible Marijuana Products.
§ 3.2-5145.6. Definitions.
As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Edible marijuana product" means the same as that term is defined in § 4.1-600.
"Food" means any article that is intended for human consumption and introduction into commerce, whether the article is simple, mixed, or compound, and all substances or ingredients used in the preparation thereof. "Food" does not mean drug as defined in § 54.1-3401.
§ 3.2-5145.7. Edible marijuana products; approved food; adulterated food.
A. An edible marijuana product is a food and is subject to the requirements of this chapter and regulations adopted pursuant to this chapter.
B. An edible marijuana product that does not comply with the provisions of § 4.1-689 or health and safety regulations adopted pursuant thereto shall be deemed to be adulterated.
§ 3.2-5145.8. Manufacturer of edible marijuana products.
A manufacturer of an edible marijuana product shall be an approved source if the manufacturer operates:
1. Under inspection by the Commissioner in the location in which such manufacturing occurs; and
2. In compliance with the laws, regulations, or criteria that pertain to the manufacturer of edible marijuana products in the location in which such manufacturing occurs.
§ 3.2-5145.9. Regulations.
A. The Board is authorized to adopt regulations for the efficient enforcement of this article.
B. With the exception of § 2.2-4031, neither the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) nor public participation guidelines adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to the adoption of any regulation pursuant to this section. Prior to adopting any regulation pursuant to this section, the Board shall publish a notice of opportunity to comment in the Virginia Register of Regulations and post the action on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall. Such notice of opportunity to comment shall contain (i) a summary of the proposed regulation; (ii) the text of the proposed regulation; and (iii) the name, address, and telephone number of the agency contact person responsible for receiving public comments. Such notice shall be made at least 60 days in advance of the last date prescribed in such notice for submittals of public comment. The legislative review provisions of subsections A and B of § 2.2-4014 shall apply to the promulgation or final adoption process for regulations adopted pursuant to this section. The Board shall consider and keep on file all public comments received for any regulation adopted pursuant to this section.
TITLE 4.1 ALCOHOL BEVERAGE AND CANNABIS CONTROL ACT.
§ 4.1-100. Definitions.
As used in this subtitle unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Alcohol" means the product known as ethyl or grain alcohol obtained by distillation of any fermented liquor, rectified either once or more often, whatever the origin, and shall include synthetic ethyl alcohol, but shall not include methyl alcohol and alcohol completely denatured in accordance with formulas approved by the government of the United States.
"Alcohol vaporizing device" means any device, machine, or process that mixes any alcoholic beverages with pure oxygen or other gas to produce a vaporized product for the purpose of consumption by inhalation.
"Alcoholic beverages" includes alcohol, spirits, wine, and beer, and any one or more of such varieties containing one-half of one percent or more of alcohol by volume, including mixed alcoholic beverages, and every liquid or solid, powder or crystal, patented or not, containing alcohol, spirits, wine, or beer and capable of being consumed by a human being. Any liquid or solid containing more than one of the four varieties shall be considered as belonging to that variety which has the higher percentage of alcohol, however obtained, according to the order in which they are set forth in this definition; except that beer may be manufactured to include flavoring materials and other nonbeverage ingredients containing alcohol, as long as no more than 49 percent of the overall alcohol content of the finished product is derived from the addition of flavors and other nonbeverage ingredients containing alcohol for products with an alcohol content of no more than six percent by volume; or, in the case of products with an alcohol content of more than six percent by volume, as long as no more than one and one-half percent of the volume of the finished product consists of alcohol derived from added flavors and other nonbeverage ingredients containing alcohol.
"Arts venue" means a commercial or nonprofit establishment that is open to the public and in which works of art are sold or displayed.
"Authority" means the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority created pursuant to this subtitle.
"Barrel" means any container or vessel having a capacity of more than 43 ounces.
"Bed and breakfast establishment" means any establishment (i) having no more than 15 bedrooms; (ii) offering to the public, for compensation, transitory lodging or sleeping accommodations; and (iii) offering at least one meal per day, which may but need not be breakfast, to each person to whom overnight lodging is provided. For purposes of the licensing requirements of this subtitle, "bed and breakfast establishment" includes any property offered to the public for short-term rental, as that term is defined in § 15.2-983, other than a hotel as defined in this section, regardless of whether a meal is offered to each person to whom overnight lodging is provided.
"Beer" means any alcoholic beverage obtained by the fermentation of an infusion or decoction of barley, malt, and hops or of any similar products in drinkable water and containing one-half of one percent or more of alcohol by volume.
"Board" means the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority.
"Bottle" means any vessel intended to contain liquids and having a capacity of not more than 43 ounces.
"Bus" means a motor vehicle that (i) is operated by a common carrier licensed under Chapter 20 (§ 46.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 46.2 to transport passengers for compensation over the highways of the Commonwealth on regular or irregular routes of not less than 100 miles, (ii) seats no more than 24 passengers, (iii) is 40 feet in length or longer, (iv) offers wireless Internet services, (v) is equipped with charging stations at every seat for cellular phones or other portable devices, and (vi) during the transportation of passengers, is staffed by an attendant who has satisfied all training requirements set forth in this subtitle or Board regulation.
"Club" means any private nonprofit corporation or association which is the owner, lessee, or occupant of an establishment operated solely for a national, social, patriotic, political, athletic, or other like purpose, but not for pecuniary gain, the advantages of which belong to all of the members. It also means the establishment so operated. A corporation or association shall not lose its status as a club because of the conduct of charitable gaming conducted pursuant to Article 1.1:1 (§ 18.2-340.15 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 18.2 in which nonmembers participate frequently or in large numbers, provided that no alcoholic beverages are served or consumed in the room where such charitable gaming is being conducted while such gaming is being conducted and that no alcoholic beverages are made available upon the premises to any person who is neither a member nor a bona fide guest of a member.
Any such corporation or association which has been declared exempt from federal and state income taxes as one which is not organized and operated for pecuniary gain or profit shall be deemed a nonprofit corporation or association.
"Commercial lifestyle center" means a mixed-use commercial development covering a minimum of 10 acres of land and having at least 100,000 square feet of retail space featuring national specialty chain stores and a combination of dining, entertainment, office, residential, or hotel establishments located in a physically integrated outdoor setting that is pedestrian friendly and that is governed by a commercial owners' association that is responsible for the management, maintenance, and operation of the common areas thereof.
"Container" means any barrel, bottle, carton, keg, vessel, or other receptacle used for holding alcoholic beverages.
"Contract winemaking facility" means the premises of a licensed winery or farm winery that obtains grapes, fruits, and other agricultural products from a person holding a winery or farm winery license and crushes, processes, ferments, bottles, or provides any combination of such services pursuant to an agreement with the winery or farm winery licensee. For all purposes of this subtitle, wine produced by a contract winemaking facility for a winery or farm winery shall be considered to be wine owned and produced by the winery or farm winery that supplied the grapes, fruits, or other agricultural products used in the production of the wine. The contract winemaking facility shall have no right to sell the wine so produced, unless the terms of payment have not been fulfilled in accordance with the contract. The contract winemaking facility may charge the winery or farm winery for its services. A winery licensee may utilize contract winemaking services only for the manufacture or processing of wine of which no less than 90 percent of the grapes, fruits, and other agricultural products used to make such wine are grown in the Commonwealth.
"Convenience grocery store" means an establishment that (i) has an enclosed room in a permanent structure where stock is displayed and offered for sale and (ii) maintains an inventory of edible items intended for human consumption consisting of a variety of such items of the types normally sold in grocery stores.
"Culinary lodging resort" means a facility (i) having not less than 13 overnight guest rooms in a building that has at least 20,000 square feet of indoor floor space; (ii) located on a farm in the Commonwealth with at least 1,000 acres of land zoned agricultural; (iii) equipped with a full-service kitchen; and (iv) offering to the public, for compensation, at least one meal per day, lodging, and recreational and educational activities related to farming, livestock, and other rural activities.
"Delicatessen" means an establishment that sells a variety of prepared foods or foods requiring little preparation, such as cheeses, salads, cooked meats, and related condiments.
"Designated area" means a room or area approved by the Board for on-premises licensees.
"Dining area" means a public room or area in which meals are regularly served.
"Drugstore" means an establishment that sells medicines prepared by a licensed pharmacist pursuant to a prescription and other medicines and items for home and general use.
"Establishment" means, except for purposes of Subtitle II, any place where alcoholic beverages of one or more varieties are lawfully manufactured, sold, or used.
"Farm winery" means (i) an establishment or cooperative located in the Commonwealth on land zoned agricultural that has (a) a vineyard, orchard, or similar growing area that produces fruits or other agricultural products used to manufacture the wine of such farm winery, subject to the requirements set forth in § 4.1-219, and (b) facilities for fermenting and bottling wine on the premises where such farm winery manufactures wine that contains not more than 21 percent alcohol by volume or (ii) an accredited public or private institution of higher education, provided that (a) no wine manufactured by the institution shall be sold, (b) the wine manufactured by the institution shall be used solely for research and educational purposes, (c) the wine manufactured by the institution shall be stored on the premises of such farm winery that shall be separate and apart from all other facilities of the institution, and (d) such farm winery is operated in strict conformance with the requirements of this clause (ii) and Board regulations. As used in this definition, the term "cooperative" means a cooperative formed by an association of individuals for the purpose of manufacturing wine. In determining whether a cooperative licensed as a farm winery has met the requirements set forth in clause (i), the Board shall consider all land in the Commonwealth that is owned or leased by a member of the cooperative. For purposes of this definition, "land zoned agricultural" means (1) land zoned as an agricultural district or classification or (2) land otherwise permitted by a locality for farm winery use. For purposes of this definition, "land zoned agricultural" does not include land zoned "residential conservation." Except for the limitation on land zoned "residential conservation," nothing in the definition of "land zoned agricultural" shall otherwise limit or affect local zoning authority.
"Gift shop" means any bona fide retail store selling, predominantly, gifts, books, souvenirs, specialty items relating to history, original and handmade arts and products, collectibles, crafts, and floral arrangements, which is open to the public on a regular basis. Such shop shall be a permanent structure where stock is displayed and offered for sale and which has facilities to properly secure any stock of wine or beer. Such shop may be located (i) on the premises or grounds of a government registered national, state or local historic building or site or (ii) within the premises of a museum. The Board shall consider the purpose, characteristics, nature, and operation of the shop in determining whether it shall be considered a gift shop.
"Gourmet brewing shop" means an establishment which sells to persons to whom wine or beer may lawfully be sold, ingredients for making wine or brewing beer, including packaging, and rents to such persons facilities for manufacturing, fermenting and bottling such wine or beer.
"Gourmet oyster house" means an establishment that (i) is located on the premises of a commercial marina, (ii) is permitted by the Department of Health to serve oysters and other fresh seafood for consumption on the premises, and (iii) offers to the public events for the purpose of featuring and educating the consuming public about local oysters and other seafood products.
"Gourmet shop" means an establishment provided with adequate inventory, shelving, and storage facilities, where, in consideration of payment, substantial amounts of domestic and imported wines and beers of various types and sizes and related products such as cheeses and gourmet foods are habitually furnished to persons.
"Government store" means a store established by the Authority for the sale of alcoholic beverages.
"Grocery store" means an establishment that sells food and other items intended for human consumption, including a variety of ingredients commonly used in the preparation of meals.
"Historic cinema house" means a nonprofit establishment exempt from taxation under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that was built prior to 1970 and that exists for the primary purpose of showing motion pictures to the public.
"Hotel" means any duly licensed establishment, provided with special space and accommodation, where, in consideration of payment, food and lodging are habitually furnished to persons, and which has four or more bedrooms. It shall also mean the person who operates such hotel.
"Interdicted person" means a person to whom the sale of alcoholic beverages is prohibited by order pursuant to this subtitle.
"Internet wine and beer retailer" means a person who owns or operates an establishment with adequate inventory, shelving, and storage facilities, where, in consideration of payment, Internet or telephone orders are taken and shipped directly to consumers and which establishment is not a retail store open to the public.
"Intoxicated" means a condition in which a person has drunk enough alcoholic beverages to observably affect his manner, disposition, speech, muscular movement, general appearance, or behavior.
"Licensed" means the holding of a valid license granted by the Authority. For purposes of Subtitle II, "licensed" means the holding of a valid license granted by the Authority pursuant to that subtitle.
"Licensee" means any person to whom a license has been granted by the Authority. For purposes of Subtitle II, "licensee" means any person to whom a license has been granted by the Authority pursuant to that subtitle.
"Liqueur" means any of a class of highly flavored alcoholic beverages that do not exceed an alcohol content of 25 percent by volume.
"Low alcohol beverage cooler" means a drink containing one-half of one percent or more of alcohol by volume, but not more than seven and one-half percent alcohol by volume, and consisting of spirits mixed with nonalcoholic beverages or flavoring or coloring materials; it may also contain water, fruit juices, fruit adjuncts, sugar, carbon dioxide, preservatives or other similar products manufactured by fermenting fruit or fruit juices. Low alcohol beverage coolers shall be treated as wine for all purposes of this subtitle, except that low alcohol beverage coolers may be manufactured by a licensed distiller or a distiller located outside the Commonwealth.
"Marijuana" means any part of a plant of the genus Cannabis, whether growing or not, its seeds or resin; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, its resin, or any extract containing one or more cannabinoids. "Marijuana" does not include (i) the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalk, or oil or cake made from the seed of such plant, unless such stalks, fiber, oil, or cake is combined with other parts of plants of the genus Cannabis; (ii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person registered pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 or his agent; (iii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person who holds a hemp producer license issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture pursuant to 7 C.F.R. Part 990; (iv) a hemp product, as defined in § 3.2-4112; (v) an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1; or (vi) any substance containing a tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt, or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether that has been placed by the Board of Pharmacy into one of the schedules set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) pursuant to § 54.1-3443.
"Marina store" means an establishment that is located on the same premises as a marina, is operated by the owner of such marina, and sells food and nautical and fishing supplies.
"Meals" means, for a mixed beverage license, an assortment of foods commonly ordered in bona fide, full-service restaurants as principal meals of the day. Such restaurants shall include establishments specializing in full course meals with a single substantial entree.
"Member of a club" means (i) a person who maintains his membership in the club by the payment of monthly, quarterly, or annual dues in the manner established by the rules and regulations thereof or (ii) a person who is a member of a bona fide auxiliary, local chapter, or squadron composed of direct lineal descendants of a bona fide member, whether alive or deceased, of a national or international organization to which an individual lodge holding a club license is an authorized member in the same locality. It shall also mean a lifetime member whose financial contribution is not less than 10 times the annual dues of resident members of the club, the full amount of such contribution being paid in advance in a lump sum.
"Mixed beverage" or "mixed alcoholic beverage" means a drink composed in whole or in part of spirits.
"Mixer" means any prepackaged ingredients containing beverages or flavoring or coloring materials, and which may also contain water, fruit juices, fruit adjuncts, sugar, carbon dioxide, or preservatives which are not commonly consumed unless combined with alcoholic beverages, whether or not such ingredients contain alcohol. Such specialty beverage product shall be manufactured or distributed by a Virginia corporation.
"Municipal golf course" means any golf course that is owned by any town incorporated in 1849 and which is the county seat of Smyth County.
"Performing arts facility" means an indoor or outdoor amphitheater, arena, multipurpose theater, or similar facility at which live musical, dance, theatre, or similar performances, the types of which are approved by the Authority, are performed, provided that the facility has stationary stadium or similar seating for more than 500 persons.
"Place or premises" means, except for purposes of Subtitle II, the real estate, together with any buildings or other improvements thereon, designated in the application for a license as the place at which the manufacture, bottling, distribution, use or sale of alcoholic beverages shall be performed, except that portion of any such building or other improvement actually and exclusively used as a private residence.
"Principal stockholder" means any person who individually or in concert with his spouse and immediate family members beneficially owns or controls, directly or indirectly, five percent or more of the equity ownership of any person that is a licensee of the Authority, or who in concert with his spouse and immediate family members has the power to vote or cause the vote of five percent or more of any such equity ownership. "Principal stockholder" does not include a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, that holds in inventory shares for sale on the financial markets for a publicly traded corporation holding, directly or indirectly, a license from the Authority.
"Public place" means any place, building, or conveyance to which the public has, or is permitted to have, access, including restaurants, soda fountains, hotel dining areas, lobbies and corridors of hotels, and any park, place of public resort or amusement, highway, street, lane, or sidewalk adjoining any highway, street, or lane.
"Public place" does not include (i) hotel or restaurant dining areas or ballrooms while in use for private meetings or private parties limited in attendance to members and guests of a particular group, association or organization; (ii) restaurants licensed by the Authority in office buildings or industrial or similar facilities while such restaurant is closed to the public and in use for private meetings or parties limited in attendance to employees and nonpaying guests of the owner or a lessee of all or part of such building or facility; (iii) offices, office buildings or industrial facilities while closed to the public and in use for private meetings or parties limited in attendance to employees and nonpaying guests of the owner or a lessee of all or part of such building or facility; or (iv) private recreational or chartered boats which are not licensed by the Board and on which alcoholic beverages are not sold.
"Residence" means any building or part of a building or structure where a person resides, but does not include any part of a building that is not actually and exclusively used as a private residence, nor any part of a hotel or club other than a private guest room thereof.
"Resort complex" means a facility (i) with a hotel owning year-round sports and recreational facilities located contiguously on the same property; (ii) owned by a nonstock, nonprofit, taxable corporation with voluntary membership which, as its primary function, makes available golf, ski, and other recreational facilities both to its members and to the general public; or (iii) operated by a corporation that operates as a management company which, as its primary function, makes available (a) vacation accommodations, guest rooms, or dwelling units and (b) golf, ski, and other recreational facilities to members of the managed entities and the general public. The hotel or corporation shall have or manage a minimum of 140 private guest rooms or dwelling units contained on not less than 50 acres, whether or not contiguous to the licensed premises; if the guest rooms or dwelling units are located on property that is not contiguous to the licensed premises, such guest rooms and dwelling units shall be located within the same locality. The Authority may consider the purpose, characteristics, and operation of the applicant establishment in determining whether it shall be considered as a resort complex. All other pertinent qualifications established by the Board for a hotel operation shall be observed by such licensee.
"Restaurant" means, for a wine and beer license or a limited mixed beverage restaurant license, any establishment provided with special space and accommodation, where, in consideration of payment, meals or other foods prepared on the premises are regularly sold.
"Restaurant" means, for a mixed beverage license other than a limited mixed beverage restaurant license, an established place of business (i) where meals with substantial entrees are regularly sold and (ii) which has adequate facilities and sufficient employees for cooking, preparing, and serving such meals for consumption at tables in dining areas on the premises, and includes establishments specializing in full course meals with a single substantial entree.
"Retail marijuana" means marijuana that is cultivated, manufactured, or sold by a licensed marijuana establishment.
"Retail marijuana products" means marijuana products that are manufactured and sold by a licensed marijuana establishment.
"Sale" and "sell" includes soliciting or receiving an order for; keeping, offering or exposing for sale; peddling, exchanging or bartering; or delivering otherwise than gratuitously, by any means, (i) alcoholic beverages or (ii) for purposes of Subtitle II, marijuana.
"Sangria" means a drink consisting of red or white wine mixed with some combination of sweeteners, fruit, fruit juice, soda, or soda water that may also be mixed with brandy, triple sec, or other similar spirits.
"Special agent" means an employee of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority whom the Board has designated as a law-enforcement officer pursuant to § 4.1-105.
"Special event" means an event sponsored by a duly organized nonprofit corporation or association and conducted for an athletic, charitable, civic, educational, political, or religious purpose.
"Spirits" means any beverage that contains alcohol obtained by distillation mixed with drinkable water and other substances, in solution, and includes, among other things, brandy, rum, whiskey, and gin, or any one or more of the last four named ingredients, but shall not include any such liquors completely denatured in accordance with formulas approved by the United States government.
"Sports facility" means a coliseum, stadium, racetrack, or similar facility at which professional sports, as defined in § 58.1-4030, or similar events, the types of which are approved by the Authority, are conducted.
"Wine" means any alcoholic beverage, including cider, obtained by the fermentation of the natural sugar content of fruits or other agricultural products containing (i) sugar, including honey and milk, either with or without additional sugar; (ii) one-half of one percent or more of alcohol by volume; and (iii) no product of distillation. "Wine" includes any wine to which wine spirits have been added, as provided in the Internal Revenue Code, to make products commonly known as "fortified wine" which do not exceed an alcohol content of 21 percent by volume.
"Wine cooler" means a drink containing one-half of one percent or more of alcohol by volume, and not more than three and two-tenths percent of alcohol by weight or four percent by volume consisting of wine mixed with nonalcoholic beverages or flavoring or coloring materials, and which may also contain water, fruit juices, fruit adjuncts, sugar, carbon dioxide, or preservatives and shall include other similar products manufactured by fermenting fruit or fruit juices. Wine coolers and similar fermented fruit juice beverages shall be treated as wine for all purposes except for taxation under § 4.1-236.
"With or without meals" means the selling and serving of alcoholic beverages by retail licensees for on-premises consumption whether or not accompanied by food so long as the total food-beverage ratio required by § 4.1-206.3, or the monthly food sale requirement established by Board regulation, is met by such retail licensee.
§ 4.1-101. Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority created; public purpose.
A. The General Assembly has determined that there exists in the Commonwealth a need to control the possession, sale, transportation, distribution, and delivery of alcoholic beverages, retail marijuana, and retail marijuana products in the Commonwealth. Further, the General Assembly determines that the creation of an authority for this purpose is in the public interest, serves a public purpose, and will promote the health, safety, welfare, convenience, and prosperity of the people of the Commonwealth. To achieve this objective, there is hereby created an independent political subdivision of the Commonwealth, exclusive of the legislative, executive, or judicial branches of state government, to be known as the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority. The Authority's exercise of powers and duties conferred by this subtitle shall be deemed the performance of an essential governmental function and a matter of public necessity for which public moneys may be spent. The Board of Directors of the Authority is vested with control of the possession, sale, transportation, distribution, and delivery of alcoholic beverages, retail marijuana and retail marijuana products in the Commonwealth, with plenary power to prescribe and enforce regulations and conditions under which alcoholic beverages, retail marijuana, and retail marijuana products are possessed, sold, transported, distributed, and delivered, so as to prevent any corrupt, incompetent, dishonest, or unprincipled practices and to promote the health, safety, welfare, convenience, and prosperity of the people of the Commonwealth. The exercise of the powers granted by this subtitle shall be in all respects for the benefit of the citizens of the Commonwealth and for the promotion of their safety, health, welfare, and convenience. No part of the assets or net earnings of the Authority shall inure to the benefit of, or be distributable to, any private individual, except that reasonable compensation may be paid for services rendered to or for the Authority affecting one or more of its purposes, and benefits may be conferred that are in conformity with said purposes, and no private individual shall be entitled to share in the distribution of any of the corporate assets on dissolution of the Authority.
B. The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority shall consist of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Board of Directors, the Chief Executive Officer, and the agents and employees of the Authority. The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority shall be deemed successor in interest to the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority, the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, and the Alcoholic Beverage Control Board.
C. Nothing contained in this subtitle shall be construed as a restriction or limitation upon any powers that the Board of Directors of the Authority might otherwise have under any other law of the Commonwealth.
§ 4.1-116. Disposition of moneys collected by Board; creation of Enterprise Fund; reserve fund.
A. All moneys collected by the Board shall be paid directly and promptly into the state treasury, or shall be deposited to the credit of the State Treasurer in a state depository, without any deductions on account of salaries, fees, costs, charges, expenses, refunds or claims of any description whatever, as required by § 2.2-1802.
All moneys so paid into the state treasury, less the net profits determined pursuant to subsection C, shall be set aside as and constitute an Enterprise Fund, subject to appropriation, for the payment of (i) the salaries and remuneration of the members, agents, and employees of the Board and (ii) all costs and expenses incurred in establishing and maintaining government stores and in the administration of the provisions of this subtitle, including the purchasing, building, leasing and operation of distilleries and the manufacture of alcoholic beverages.
B. The net profits derived under the provisions of this subtitle shall be transferred by the Comptroller to the general fund of the state treasury quarterly, within fifty days after the close of each quarter or as otherwise provided in the appropriation act. As allowed by the Governor, the Board may deduct from the net profits quarterly a sum for the creation of a reserve fund not exceeding the sum of $2.5 million in connection with the administration of this subtitle and to provide for the depreciation on the buildings, plants and equipment owned, held or operated by the Board. After accounting for the Authority's expenses as provided in subsection A, net profits derived under the provisions of Subtitle II (§ 4.1-600 et seq.) shall be appropriated as provided in § 4.1-607.
C. The term "net profits" as As used in this section, "net profits" means the total of all moneys collected by the Board, less local marijuana tax revenues collected pursuant to § 4.1-6XXX and distributed pursuant to § 4.1-609 and all costs, expenses and charges authorized by this section.
§ 4.1-121. Referendum on establishment of government stores.
A. The qualified voters of any county, city, or town having a population of 1,000 or more may file a petition with the circuit court of the county or city, or of the county wherein the town or the greater part thereof is situated, asking that a referendum be held on the question of whether the sale by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority of alcoholic beverages, other than beer and wine not produced by farm wineries, should be prohibited within that jurisdiction. The petition shall be signed by qualified voters equal in number to at least 10 percent of the number registered in the jurisdiction on January 1 preceding its filing or by at least 100 qualified voters, whichever is greater. Upon the filing of a petition, the court shall order the election officials of the county, city, or town, on the date fixed in the order, to conduct a referendum on the question. The clerk of the circuit court shall publish notice of the referendum in a newspaper of general circulation in the county, city, or town once a week for three consecutive weeks prior to the referendum.
The question on the ballot shall be:
"Shall the sale by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority of alcoholic beverages, other than beer and wine not produced by farm wineries, be prohibited in ................ (name of county, city, or town)?"
The referendum shall be ordered and held and the results certified as provided in § 24.2-684. Thereupon the court shall enter of record an order certified by the clerk of the court to be transmitted to the Board and to the governing body of the county, city, or town.
B. Once a referendum has been held, no other referendum on the same question shall be held in the county, city, or town within four years of the date of the prior referendum. However, a town shall not be prescribed proscribed from holding a referendum within such period although an election has been held in the county in which the town or a part thereof is located less than four years prior thereto.
§ 4.1-124. Referendum on the sale of mixed beverages.
A. The provisions of this subtitle relating to the sale of mixed beverages shall be effective in any town, county, or supervisor's election district of a county unless a majority of the voters voting in a referendum vote "Yes" on the question of whether the sale of mixed alcoholic beverages by restaurants licensed under this subtitle should be prohibited. The qualified voters of a town, county, or supervisor's election district of a county may file a petition with the circuit court of the county asking that a referendum be held on the question of whether the sale of mixed beverages by restaurants licensed by the Board should be prohibited within that jurisdiction. The petition shall be signed by qualified voters equal in number to at least 10 percent of the number registered in the town, county, or supervisor's election district on January 1 preceding its filing or at least 100 qualified voters, whichever is greater.
Petition requirements for any county shall be based on the number of registered voters in the county, including the number of registered voters in any town having a population in excess of 1,000 located within such county. Upon the filing of a petition, and under no other circumstances, the court shall order the election officials of the county to conduct a referendum on the question.
The clerk of the circuit court of the county shall publish notice of the referendum in a newspaper of general circulation in the town, county, or supervisor's election district once a week for three consecutive weeks prior to the referendum.
The question on the ballot shall be:
"Shall the sale of mixed alcoholic beverages by restaurants licensed by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority be prohibited in __________ (name of town, county, or supervisor's election district of county)?"
The referendum shall be ordered and held and the results certified as provided in Article 5 (§ 24.2-681 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 24.2. Thereupon the court shall enter of record an order certified by the clerk of the court to be transmitted to the Board and to the governing body of the town or county. Mixed beverages prohibited from sale by such referendum shall not be sold by restaurants within the town, county, or supervisor's election district of a county on or after 30 days following the entry of the order if a majority of the voters voting in the referendum have voted "Yes."
The provisions of this section shall be applicable to towns having a population in excess of 1,000 to the same extent and subject to the same conditions and limitations as are otherwise applicable to counties under this section. Such towns shall be treated as separate local option units, and only residents of any such town shall be eligible to vote in any referendum held pursuant to this section for any such town. Residents of towns having a population in excess of 1,000, however, shall also be eligible to vote in any referendum held pursuant to this section for any county in which the town is located.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the sale of mixed beverages by restaurants shall be prohibited in any town created as a result of a city-to-town reversion pursuant to Chapter 41 (§ 15.2-4100 et seq.) of Title 15.2 if a referendum on the question of whether the sale of mixed beverages by restaurants licensed under this subtitle should be prohibited was previously held in the former city and a majority of the voters voting in such referendum voted "Yes."
B. Once a referendum has been held, no other referendum on the same question shall be held in the town, county, or supervisor's election district of a county for a period of 23 months.
C. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, the sale of mixed beverages shall be allowed on property dedicated for industrial or commercial development and controlled through the provision of public utilities and covenanting of the land by any multijurisdictional industrial development authority, as set forth under Chapter 49 (§ 15.2-4900 et seq.) of Title 15.2, provided that (i) such authority operates under a partnership agreement between three or more counties, cities, or towns and such jurisdictions participate administratively and financially in the authority and (ii) the sale of mixed beverages is permitted in one of the member counties, cities, towns, or a supervisor's election district of one of the counties and that the governing board of the authority authorizes an establishment located within the confines of such property to apply to the Board for such license. The appropriate license fees shall be paid for this privilege.
D. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A of this section and subsection C of § 4.1-122, the sale of mixed beverages by licensees, and the sale of alcoholic beverages other than beer and wine not produced by farm wineries by the Board, shall be allowed in any city in the Commonwealth.
E. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, the Board may grant a mixed beverage restaurant license to a restaurant located on the premises of and operated by a private club exclusively for its members and their guests, subject to the qualifications and restrictions on the issuance of such license imposed by § 4.1-206.3. However, no license authorized by this subsection shall be granted if the private club restricts its membership on the basis of race, color, creed, national origin, or sex.
§ 4.1-225. Grounds for which Board may suspend or revoke licenses; exception.
A. The Board may suspend or revoke any license other than a brewery license, in which case the Board may impose penalties as provided in § 4.1-227, if it has reasonable cause to believe that:
1. The licensee, or if the licensee is a partnership, any general partner thereof, or if the licensee is an association, any member thereof, or a limited partner of 10 percent or more with voting rights, or if the licensee is a corporation, any officer, director, or shareholder owning 10 percent or more of its capital stock, or if the licensee is a limited liability company, any member-manager or any member owning 10 percent or more of the membership interest of the limited liability company:
a. Has misrepresented a material fact in applying to the Board for such license;
b. Within the five years immediately preceding the date of the hearing held in accordance with § 4.1-227, has (i) been convicted of a violation of any law, ordinance, or regulation of the Commonwealth, of any county, city, or town in the Commonwealth, of any state, or of the United States, applicable to the manufacture, transportation, possession, use, or sale of alcoholic beverages; (ii) violated any provision of Chapter 3 (§ 4.1-300 et seq.); (iii) committed a violation of the Wine Franchise Act (§ 4.1-400 et seq.) or the Beer Franchise Act (§ 4.1-500 et seq.) in bad faith; (iv) violated or failed or refused to comply with any regulation, rule, or order of the Board; or (v) failed or refused to comply with any of the conditions or restrictions of the license granted by the Board;
c. Has been convicted in any court of a felony or of any crime or offense involving moral turpitude under the laws of any state, or of the United States;
d. Is not the legitimate owner of the business conducted under the license granted by the Board, or other persons have ownership interests in the business which have not been disclosed;
e. Cannot demonstrate financial responsibility sufficient to meet the requirements of the business conducted under the license granted by the Board;
f. Has been intoxicated or under the influence of some self-administered drug while upon the licensed premises;
g. Has maintained the licensed premises in an unsanitary condition, or allowed such premises to become a meeting place or rendezvous for members of a criminal street gang as defined in § 18.2-46.1 or persons of ill repute, or has allowed any form of illegal gambling to take place upon such premises;
h. Knowingly employs in the business conducted under such license, as agent, servant, or employee, other than a busboy, cook, or other kitchen help, any person who has been convicted in any court of a felony or of any crime or offense involving moral turpitude, or who has violated the laws of the Commonwealth, of any other state, or of the United States, applicable to the manufacture, transportation, possession, use, or sale of alcoholic beverages;
i. Subsequent to the granting of his original license, has demonstrated by his police record a lack of respect for law and order;
j. Has allowed the consumption of alcoholic beverages upon the licensed premises by any person whom he knew or had reason to believe was (i) less younger than 21 years of age, (ii) interdicted, or (iii) intoxicated, or has allowed any person whom he knew or had reason to believe was intoxicated to loiter upon such licensed premises;
k. Has allowed any person to consume upon the licensed premises any alcoholic beverages except as provided under this subtitle;
l. Is physically unable to carry on the business conducted under such license or has been adjudicated incapacitated;
m. Has allowed any obscene literature, pictures, or materials upon the licensed premises;
n. Has possessed any illegal gambling apparatus, machine, or device upon the licensed premises;
o. Has upon the licensed premises (i) illegally possessed, distributed, sold, or used, or has knowingly allowed any employee or agent, or any other person, to illegally possess, distribute, sell, or use marijuana, controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, or controlled paraphernalia as those terms are defined in Articles 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) and 1.1 (§ 18.2-265.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 and the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.); (ii) laundered money in violation of § 18.2-246.3; or (iii) conspired to commit any drug-related offense in violation of Article 1 or 1.1 of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 or the Drug Control Act. The provisions of this subdivision shall also apply to any conduct related to the operation of the licensed business that facilitates the commission of any of the offenses set forth herein;
p. Has failed to take reasonable measures to prevent (i) the licensed premises, (ii) any premises immediately adjacent to the licensed premises that are is owned or leased by the licensee, or (iii) any portion of public property immediately adjacent to the licensed premises from becoming a place where patrons of the establishment commit criminal violations of Article 1 (§ 18.2-30 et seq.), 2 (§ 18.2-38 et seq.), 2.1 (§ 18.2-46.1 et seq.), 2.2 (§ 18.2-46.4 et seq.), 3 (§ 18.2-47 et seq.), 4 (§ 18.2-51 et seq.), 5 (§ 18.2-58 et seq.), 6 (§ 18.2-59 et seq.), or 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2; Article 2 (§ 18.2-266 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2; Article 3 (§ 18.2-346 et seq.) or 5 (§ 18.2-372 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 18.2; or Article 1 (§ 18.2-404 et seq.), 2 (§ 18.2-415), or 3 (§ 18.2-416 et seq.) of Chapter 9 of Title 18.2 and such violations lead to arrests that are so frequent and serious as to reasonably be deemed a continuing threat to the public safety; or
q. Has failed to take reasonable measures to prevent an act of violence resulting in death or serious bodily injury, or a recurrence of such acts, from occurring on (i) the licensed premises, (ii) any premises immediately adjacent to the licensed premises that is owned or leased by the licensee, or (iii) any portion of public property immediately adjacent to the licensed premises.
2. The place occupied by the licensee:
a. Does not conform to the requirements of the governing body of the county, city, or town in which such establishment is located, with respect to sanitation, health, construction, or equipment, or to any similar requirements established by the laws of the Commonwealth or by Board regulations;
b. Has been adjudicated a common nuisance under the provisions of this subtitle or § 18.2-258; or
c. Has become a meeting place or rendezvous for illegal gambling, illegal users of narcotics, drunks, prostitutes, pimps, panderers, or habitual law violators or has become a place where illegal drugs are regularly used or distributed. The Board may consider the general reputation in the community of such establishment in addition to any other competent evidence in making such determination.
3. The licensee or any employee of the licensee discriminated against any member of the armed forces of the United States by prices charged or otherwise.
4. The licensee, his employees, or any entertainer performing on the licensed premises has been convicted of a violation of a local public nudity ordinance for conduct occurring on the licensed premises and the licensee allowed such conduct to occur.
5. Any cause exists for which the Board would have been entitled to refuse to grant such license had the facts been known.
6. The licensee is delinquent for a period of 90 days or more in the payment of any taxes, or any penalties or interest related thereto, lawfully imposed by the locality where the licensed business is located, as certified by the treasurer, commissioner of the revenue, or finance director of such locality, unless (i) the outstanding amount is de minimis; (ii) the licensee has pending a bona fide application for correction or appeal with respect to such taxes, penalties, or interest; or (iii) the licensee has entered into a payment plan approved by the same locality to settle the outstanding liability.
7. Any other cause authorized by this subtitle.
B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision A 1 h, a licensee may employ a person who has been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude if (i) except for violations of § 18.2-54.1 or 18.2-54.2, two years have elapsed following the conviction and the person has completed and been released from the term of any probation or parole, if applicable, or (ii) the licensee has obtained written approval for such employment from the Authority and, in instances in which the person has not completed or been released from the term of any probation or parole, the Authority has consulted with the person's probation and parole officer.
SUBTITLE II
CANABIS CONTROL ACT
CHAPTER 6
GENERAL PROVISIONS.
§ 4.1-600. Definitions.
As used in this subtitle, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Advertisement" or "advertising" means any written or verbal statement, illustration, or depiction that is calculated to induce sales of retail marijuana, retail marijuana products, marijuana plants, or marijuana seeds, including any written, printed, graphic, digital, electronic, or other material, billboard, sign, or other outdoor display, publication, or radio or television broadcast.
"Authority" means the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority created pursuant to this subtitle.
"Board" means the Board of Directors of the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority.
"Cannabis Control Act" means Subtitle II (§ 4.1-600 et seq.).
"Canopy" means the space used by a licensee to produce flowering marijuana plants, including areas between plants, pathways, walkways, and empty space between rows that allow for airflow, light, growth, access for watering, trimming, and other activities associated with marijuana cultivation. "Canopy" does not include space used for mother plants, clones, immature or nonflowering plants, processing, drying, curing, trimming, storage, offices, hallways, work areas, or other administrative and nonproduction uses. If flowering marijuana plants are cultivated using a shelving or other layered system, the surface area of each level shall be included for purposes of calculating canopy.
"Child-resistant" means, with respect to packaging or a container, (i) specially designed or constructed to be significantly difficult for a typical child under five years of age to open and not to be significantly difficult for a typical adult to open and reseal and (ii) for any product intended for more than a single use or that contains multiple servings, resealable.
"Cultivation" or "cultivate" means the planting, propagation, growing, harvesting, drying, curing, grading, trimming, or other similar processing of marijuana for use or sale. "Cultivation" or "cultivate" does not include manufacturing or testing.
"Edible marijuana product" means a marijuana product intended to be consumed orally, including marijuana intended to be consumed orally or marijuana concentrate intended to be consumed orally.
"Hemp product" means the same as that term is defined in § 3.2-4112.
"Historically economically disadvantaged community" means either (i) a jurisdiction identified by the Board utilizing census tract data made available by the United States Census Bureau in which offenses for marijuana possession were committed at a rate in excess of 150 percent of the statewide average for marijuana possession offenses during the 10-year period of 2009 to 2019 or (ii) a historically underutilized business zone as defined in 15 U.S.C. § 657a.
"Immature plant" means a nonflowering marijuana plant that is no taller than eight inches and no wider than eight inches, is produced from a cutting, clipping, or seedling, and is growing in a container.
"Licensed" means the holding of a valid license granted by the Authority.
"Licensee" means any person to whom a license has been granted by the Authority.
"Manufacturing" or "manufacture" means the production of marijuana products or the blending, infusing, compounding, or other preparation of marijuana and marijuana products, including marijuana extraction or preparation by means of chemical synthesis. "Manufacturing" or "manufacture" does not include cultivation or testing.
"Marijuana" means any part of a plant of the genus Cannabis, whether growing or not, its seeds or resin; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, its resin, or any extract containing one or more cannabinoids. "Marijuana" does not include (i) the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalk, or oil or cake made from the seed of such plant, unless such stalks, fiber, oil, or cake is combined with other parts of plants of the genus Cannabis; (ii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person registered pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 or his agent; (iii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person who holds a hemp producer license issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture pursuant to 7 C.F.R. Part 990; (iv) a hemp product, as defined in § 3.2-4112; (v) an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1; or (vi) any substance containing a tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt, or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether that has been placed by the Board of Pharmacy into one of the schedules set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) pursuant to § 54.1-3443.
"Marijuana concentrate" means marijuana that has undergone a process to concentrate one or more active cannabinoids, thereby increasing the product's potency. Resin from granular trichomes from a marijuana plant is a concentrate for purposes of this subtitle.
"Marijuana cultivation facility" means a facility licensed under this subtitle to cultivate, label, and package retail marijuana; to purchase or take possession of marijuana plants and seeds from other marijuana cultivation facilities; to transfer possession of and sell retail marijuana, immature marijuana plants, and marijuana seeds to marijuana wholesalers and retail marijuana stores; to transfer possession of and sell retail marijuana, marijuana plants, and marijuana seeds to other marijuana cultivation facilities; to transfer possession of and sell retail marijuana to marijuana manufacturing facilities; and to sell immature marijuana plants and marijuana seeds to consumers for the purpose of cultivating marijuana at home for personal use.
"Marijuana establishment" means a marijuana cultivation facility, a marijuana testing facility, a marijuana manufacturing facility, a marijuana wholesaler, or a retail marijuana store.
"Marijuana manufacturing facility" means a facility licensed under this subtitle to manufacture, label, and package retail marijuana and retail marijuana products; to purchase or take possession of retail marijuana from a marijuana cultivation facility or another marijuana manufacturing facility; and to transfer possession of and sell retail marijuana and retail marijuana products to marijuana wholesalers, retail marijuana stores, or other marijuana manufacturing facilities.
"Marijuana paraphernalia" means all equipment, products, and materials of any kind that are either designed for use or are intended for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, strength testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body marijuana.
"Marijuana products" means (i) products that are composed of marijuana and other ingredients and are intended for use or consumption, ointments, and tinctures or (ii) marijuana concentrate.
"Marijuana testing facility" means a facility licensed under this subtitle to develop, research, or test marijuana, marijuana products, and other substances.
"Marijuana wholesaler" means a facility licensed under this subtitle to purchase or take possession of retail marijuana, retail marijuana products, immature marijuana plants, and marijuana seeds from a marijuana cultivation facility, a marijuana manufacturing facility, or another marijuana wholesaler and to transfer possession and sell or resell retail marijuana, retail marijuana products, immature marijuana plants, and marijuana seeds to a marijuana cultivation facility, marijuana manufacturing facility, retail marijuana store, or another marijuana wholesaler.
"Non-retail marijuana" means marijuana that is not cultivated, manufactured, or sold by a licensed marijuana establishment.
"Non-retail marijuana products" means marijuana products that are not manufactured and sold by a licensed marijuana establishment.
"Place or premises" means the real estate, together with any buildings or other improvements thereon, designated in the application for a license as the place at which the cultivation, manufacture, sale, or testing of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products shall be performed, except that portion of any such building or other improvement actually and exclusively used as a private residence.
"Public place" means any place, building, or conveyance to which the public has, or is permitted to have, access, including restaurants, soda fountains, hotel dining areas, lobbies and corridors of hotels, and any park, place of public resort or amusement, highway, street, lane, or sidewalk adjoining any highway, street, or lane.
"Residence" means any building or part of a building or structure where a person resides, but does not include any part of a building that is not actually and exclusively used as a private residence, nor any part of a hotel or club other than a private guest room thereof.
"Retail marijuana" means marijuana that is cultivated, manufactured, or sold by a licensed marijuana establishment.
"Retail marijuana products" means marijuana products that are manufactured and sold by a licensed marijuana establishment.
"Retail marijuana store" means a facility licensed under this subtitle to purchase or take possession of retail marijuana, retail marijuana products, immature marijuana plants, or marijuana seeds from a marijuana cultivation facility, marijuana manufacturing facility, or marijuana wholesaler and to sell retail marijuana, retail marijuana products, immature marijuana plants, or marijuana seeds to consumers.
"Sale" and "sell" includes soliciting or receiving an order for; keeping, offering, or exposing for sale; peddling, exchanging, or bartering; or delivering otherwise than gratuitously, by any means, retail marijuana or retail marijuana products.
"Special agent" means an employee of the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority whom the Board has designated as a law-enforcement officer pursuant to this subtitle.
"Testing" or "test" means the research and analysis of marijuana, marijuana products, or other substances for contaminants, safety, or potency. "Testing" or "test" does not include cultivation or manufacturing.
"Tetrahydrocannabinol" means the same as that term is defined in § 3.2-4112.
"Total tetrahydrocannabinol" means the same as that term is defined in § 3.2-4112.
§ 4.1-601. Virginia Cannabis Control Authority created; public purpose Advisory Board.
A. The General Assembly has determined that there exists in the Commonwealth a need to control the possession, sale, transportation, distribution, and delivery of retail marijuana and retail marijuana products in the Commonwealth. Further, the General Assembly determines that the creation of an authority for this purpose is in the public interest, serves a public purpose, and will promote the health, safety, welfare, convenience, and prosperity of the people of the Commonwealth. To achieve this objective, there is hereby created an independent political subdivision of the Commonwealth, exclusive of the legislative, executive, or judicial branches of state government, to be known as the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority. The Authority's exercise of powers and duties conferred by this subtitle shall be deemed the performance of an essential governmental function and a matter of public necessity for which public moneys may be spent.
B. The Board of Directors of the Authority is vested with control of the possession, sale, transportation, distribution, and delivery of retail marijuana and retail marijuana products in the Commonwealth, with plenary power to prescribe and enforce regulations and conditions under which retail marijuana and retail marijuana products are possessed, sold, transported, distributed, and delivered, so as to prevent any corrupt, incompetent, dishonest, or unprincipled practices and to promote the health, safety, welfare, convenience, and prosperity of the people of the Commonwealth. The exercise of the powers granted by this subtitle shall be in all respects for the benefit of the citizens of the Commonwealth and for the promotion of their safety, health, welfare, and convenience. No part of the assets or net earnings of the Authority shall inure to the benefit of, or be distributable to, any private individual, except that reasonable compensation may be paid for services rendered to or for the Authority affecting one or more of its purposes, and benefits may be conferred that are in conformity with said purposes, and no private individual shall be entitled to share in the distribution of any of the corporate assets on dissolution of the Authority. The Chief Executive Officer of the Authority, in consultation with the Board, shall establish a Cannabis Control Advisory Board to assist the Authority in the development and operation of the statutory and regulatory programs governing the sale and use of cannabis. The Advisory Board shall consist of seven nonlegislative citizen members, to be appointed by the Governor, and one ex officio member. Members shall be representative of the various segments of the cannabis industry, and at least one shall be a medical professional as defined in § 38.2-602 with experience in appropriate public health duties, and at least one shall be a member of a historically disadvantaged community. Each member shall (i) have been a resident of the Commonwealth for a period of at least three years next preceding his appointment, and his continued residency shall be a condition of his tenure in office and (ii) possess demonstrated experience or expertise in the regulation, manufacture, cultivation, or health effects of cannabis. Members shall be subject to a background check in accordance with § 4.1-101.03. The Director of the Office of Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion shall serve ex officio without voting privileges.
B. After the initial staggering of terms, nonlegislative citizen members shall be appointed for a term of four years. The ex officio member shall serve a term coincident with his term in office. All members shall serve until their successors are appointed. Any appointment to fill a vacancy shall be for the unexpired term. No member shall be eligible to serve more than two consecutive terms; however, a member appointed to fill a vacancy may serve two additional consecutive terms. Members of the Advisory Board may be removed from office by the Advisory Board for cause, including the improper use of its police powers, malfeasance, misfeasance, incompetence, misconduct, neglect of duty, absenteeism, conflict of interests, failure to carry out the policies of the Commonwealth as established in the Constitution or by the General Assembly, or refusal to carry out a lawful directive of the Governor.
C. The Governor shall appoint the chairman and vice-chairman of the Advisory Board from among the membership of the Advisory Board. The Advisory Board may also form committees and advisory councils, which may include representatives who are not members of the Advisory Board, to undertake more extensive study and discussion of the issues before the Advisory Board. A majority of the Advisory Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business, and no vacancy in the membership shall impair the right of a quorum to exercise the rights and perform all duties of the Advisory Board.
D. Members of the Advisory Board shall receive no compensation for the performance of their duties, but shall be reimbursed for all reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as provided in §§ 2.2-2813 and 2.2-2825.
E. The provisions of the State and Local Government Conflict of Interests Act (§ 2.2-3100 et seq.) shall apply to the members of the Advisory Board.
§ 4.1-602. Virginia Cannabis Control Authority; composition Powers and duties of the Board.
A. The Virginia Cannabis Control Authority shall consist of the Board of Directors, the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council, the Chief Executive Officer, and the agents and employees of the Authority.
B. Nothing contained in this subtitle shall be construed as a restriction or limitation upon any powers that the Board might otherwise have under any other law of the Commonwealth. In addition to the powers set forth in § 4.1-103, the Board shall have the following powers and duties:
1. Promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) and § 4.1-606;
2. Control the possession, sale, transportation, and delivery of marijuana and marijuana products;
3. Grant, suspend, and revoke licenses for the cultivation, manufacture, transportation, sale, and testing of marijuana and marijuana products as provided by law;
4. Determine the nature, form, and capacity of all containers used for holding marijuana products to be kept or sold and prescribe the form and content of all labels and seals to be placed thereon;
5. Maintain actions to enjoin common nuisances as defined in § 4.1-657;
6. Establish standards for and implement an online course for employees of retail marijuana stores that trains employees on how to educate consumers on the potential risks of marijuana use;
7. Establish a plan to develop and disseminate to retail marijuana store licensees a pamphlet or similar document regarding the potential risks of marijuana use to be prominently displayed and made available to consumers;
8. Establish a position for a Cannabis Micro Business Liaison who shall lead the Cannabis Business Equity and Diversity Support Team and liaise with the Director of the Office of Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion on matters related to diversity, equity, and inclusion standards in the marijuana industry;
9. Establish a Cannabis Business Equity and Diversity Support Team, which shall (i) develop requirements for the creation and submission of diversity, equity, and inclusion plans by persons who wish to possess more than one license, and an approval process for and requirements for implementation of such plans; (ii) be responsible for conducting an analysis of potential barriers to entry for small, women-owned, and minority-owned businesses and veteran-owned businesses interested in participating in the marijuana industry and recommending strategies to effectively mitigate such potential barriers; (iii) provide assistance with business planning for potential marijuana establishment licensees; (iv) spread awareness of business opportunities related to the marijuana marketplace in areas disproportionately impacted by marijuana prohibition and enforcement; (v) provide technical assistance in navigating the administrative process to potential marijuana establishment licensees; and (vi) conduct other outreach initiatives in areas disproportionately impacted by marijuana prohibition and enforcement as necessary;
10. Establish a position for an individual with professional experience in a health related field who shall staff the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council, established pursuant to § 4.1-601.1, liaise with the Office of the Secretary of Health and Human Resources and relevant health and human services agencies and organizations, and perform other duties as needed.
11. Establish and implement a plan, in coordination with the Cannabis Micro Business Liaison and the Director of the Office of Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion to promote and encourage participation in the marijuana industry by people from communities that have been disproportionately impacted by marijuana prohibition and enforcement and to positively impact those communities; and
12. Do all acts necessary or advisable to carry out the purposes of this chapter.
§ 4.1-603. Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council; purpose; membership; quorum; meetings; compensation and expenses; duties.
A. The Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council (the Advisory Council) is established as an advisory council to within the Advisory Board. The purpose of the Advisory Council is to assess and monitor public health issues, trends, and impacts related to marijuana and marijuana legalization and make recommendations regarding health warnings, retail marijuana and retail marijuana products safety and product composition, and public health awareness, programming, and related resource needs.
B. The Advisory Council shall have a total membership of 21 members that shall consist of 14 nonlegislative citizen members and seven ex officio members. Nonlegislative citizen members of the Council shall be citizens of the Commonwealth and shall reflect the racial, ethnic, gender, and geographic diversity of the Commonwealth. Nonlegislative citizen members shall be appointed as follows: four to be appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules, one of whom shall be a representative from the Virginia Foundation for Healthy Youth, one of whom shall be a representative from the Virginia Chapter of the American Academy of Pediatrics, one of whom shall be a representative from the Medical Society of Virginia, and one of whom shall be a representative from the Virginia Pharmacists Association; six to be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Delegates, one of whom shall be a representative from a community services board, one of whom shall be a person or health care provider with expertise in substance use disorder treatment and recovery, one of whom shall be a person or health care provider with expertise in substance use disorder prevention, one of whom shall be a person with experience in disability rights advocacy, one of whom shall be a person with experience in veterans health care, and one of whom shall be a person with a social or health equity background; and four to be appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly, one of whom shall be a representative of a local health district, one of whom shall be a person who is part of the cannabis industry, one of whom shall be an academic researcher knowledgeable about cannabis, and one of whom shall be a registered medical cannabis patient.
The Secretary of Health and Human Resources, the Commissioner of Health, the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, the Commissioner of Agriculture and Consumer Services, the Director of the Department of Health Professions, and the Director of the Department of Forensic Science, and the Chief Executive Officer of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, or their designees, shall serve ex officio with voting privileges. Ex officio members of the Advisory Council shall serve terms coincident with their terms of office.
After the initial staggering of terms, nonlegislative citizen members shall be appointed for a term of four years. Appointments to fill vacancies, other than by expiration of a term, shall be for the unexpired terms. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointments. All members may be reappointed.
The Advisory Council shall be chaired by the Secretary of Health and Human Resources or his designee. The Advisory Council shall select a vice-chairman from among its membership. A majority of the members shall constitute a quorum. The Advisory Council shall meet at least two times each year and shall meet at the call of the chairman or whenever the majority of the members so request.
The Advisory Council shall have the authority to create subgroups with additional stakeholders, experts, and state agency representatives.
C. Members shall receive no compensation for the performance of their duties but shall be reimbursed for all reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as provided in §§ 2.2-2813 and 2.2-2825.
D. The Advisory Council shall have the following duties, in addition to duties that may be necessary to fulfill its purpose as described in subsection A:
1. To review multi-agency efforts to support collaboration and a unified approach on public health responses related to marijuana and marijuana legalization in the Commonwealth and to develop recommendations as necessary.
2. To monitor changes in drug use data related to marijuana and marijuana legalization in the Commonwealth and the science and medical information relevant to the potential health risks associated with such drug use, and make appropriate recommendations to the Department of Health and the Advisory Board.
3. Submit an annual report to the Governor and the General Assembly for publication as a report document as provided in the procedures of the Division of Legislative Automated Systems for the processing of legislative documents and reports. The chairman shall submit to the Governor and the General Assembly an annual executive summary of the interim activity and work of the Advisory Council no later than the first day of each regular session of the General Assembly. The executive summary shall be submitted as a report document as provided in the procedures of the Division of Legislative Automated Systems for the processing of legislative documents and reports and shall be posted on the General Assembly's website.
§ 4.1-604. Powers and duties Regulations of the Board.
The Board shall have the following powers and duties:
1. Promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) and § 4.1-606;
2. Control the possession, sale, transportation, and delivery of marijuana and marijuana products;
3. Grant, suspend, restrict, revoke, or refuse to grant or renew any license or permit issued or authorized pursuant to this subtitle;
4. Determine the nature, form, and capacity of all containers used for holding marijuana products to be kept or sold and prescribe the form and content of all labels and seals to be placed thereon;
5. Maintain actions to enjoin common nuisances as defined in § 4.1-1113;
6. Establish standards and implement an online course for employees of retail marijuana stores that trains employees on how to educate consumers on the potential risks of marijuana use;
7. Establish a plan to develop and disseminate to retail marijuana store licensees a pamphlet or similar document regarding the potential risks of marijuana use to be prominently displayed and made available to consumers;
8. Establish a position for a Cannabis Social Equity Liaison who shall lead the Cannabis Business Equity and Diversity Support Team and liaise with the Director of Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion on matters related to diversity, equity, and inclusion standards in the marijuana industry;
9. Establish a Cannabis Business Equity and Diversity Support Team, which shall (i) develop requirements for the creation and submission of diversity, equity, and inclusion plans by persons who wish to possess a license in more than one license category pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-805, which may include a requirement that the licensee participate in social equity apprenticeship plan, and an approval process and requirements for implementation of such plans; (ii) be responsible for conducting an analysis of potential barriers to entry for small, women-owned, and minority-owned businesses and veteran-owned businesses interested in participating in the marijuana industry and recommending strategies to effectively mitigate such potential barriers; (iii) provide assistance with business planning for potential marijuana establishment licensees; (iv) spread awareness of business opportunities related to the marijuana marketplace in areas disproportionately impacted by marijuana prohibition and enforcement; (v) provide technical assistance in navigating the administrative process to potential marijuana establishment licensees; and (vi) conduct other outreach initiatives in areas disproportionately impacted by marijuana prohibition and enforcement as necessary;
10. Establish a position for an individual with professional experience in a health related field who shall staff the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council, established pursuant to § 4.1-603, liaise with the Office of the Secretary of Health and Human Resources and relevant health and human services agencies and organizations, and perform other duties as needed;
11. Establish and implement a plan, in coordination with the Cannabis Social Equity Liaison and the Director of Diversity, Equity, and Inclusion to promote and encourage participation in the marijuana industry by people from communities that have been disproportionately impacted by marijuana prohibition and enforcement and to positively impact those communities;
12. Sue and be sued, implead and be impleaded, and complain and defend in all courts;
13. Adopt, use, and alter at will a common seal;
14. Fix, alter, charge, and collect rates, rentals, fees, and other charges for the use of property of, the sale of products of, or services rendered by the Authority at rates to be determined by the Authority for the purpose of providing for the payment of the expenses of the Authority;
15. Make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties, the furtherance of its purposes, and the execution of its powers under this subtitle, including agreements with any person or federal agency;
16. Employ, at its discretion, consultants, researchers, architects, engineers, accountants, financial experts, investment bankers, superintendents, managers, and such other employees and special agents as may be necessary and fix their compensation to be payable from funds made available to the Authority. Legal services for the Authority shall be provided by the Attorney General in accordance with Chapter 5 (§ 2.2-500 et seq.) of Title 2.2;
17. Receive and accept from any federal or private agency, foundation, corporation, association, or person grants or other aid to be expended in accomplishing the objectives of the Authority, and receive and accept from the Commonwealth or any state and any municipality, county, or other political subdivision thereof or from any other source aid or contributions of either money, property, or other things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the purposes for which such grants and contributions may be made. All federal moneys accepted under this section shall be accepted and expended by the Authority upon such terms and conditions as are prescribed by the United States and as are consistent with state law, and all state moneys accepted under this section shall be expended by the Authority upon such terms and conditions as are prescribed by the Commonwealth;
18. Adopt, alter, and repeal bylaws, rules, and regulations governing the manner in which its business shall be transacted and the manner in which the powers of the Authority shall be exercised and its duties performed. The Board may delegate or assign any duty or task to be performed by the Authority to any officer or employee of the Authority. The Board shall remain responsible for the performance of any such duties or tasks. Any delegation pursuant to this subdivision shall, where appropriate, be accompanied by written guidelines for the exercise of the duties or tasks delegated. Where appropriate, the guidelines shall require that the Board receive summaries of actions taken. Such delegation or assignment shall not relieve the Board of the responsibility to ensure faithful performance of the duties and tasks;
19. Conduct or engage in any lawful business, activity, effort, or project consistent with the Authority's purposes or necessary or convenient to exercise its powers;
20. Develop policies and procedures generally applicable to the procurement of goods, services, and construction, based upon competitive principles;
21. Develop policies and procedures consistent with Article 4 (§ 2.2-4347 et seq.) of Chapter 43 of Title 2.2;
22. Acquire, purchase, hold, use, lease, or otherwise dispose of any property, real, personal or mixed, tangible or intangible, or any interest therein necessary or desirable for carrying out the purposes of the Authority; lease as lessee any property, real, personal or mixed, tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, at such annual rental and on such terms and conditions as may be determined by the Board; lease as lessor to any person any property, real, personal or mixed, tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, at any time acquired by the Authority, whether wholly or partially completed, at such annual rental and on such terms and conditions as may be determined by the Board; sell, transfer, or convey any property, real, personal or mixed, tangible or intangible, or any interest therein, at any time acquired or held by the Authority on such terms and conditions as may be determined by the Board; and occupy and improve any land or building required for the purposes of this subtitle;
23. Purchase, lease, or acquire the use of, by any manner, any plant or equipment that may be considered necessary or useful in carrying into effect the purposes of this subtitle, including rectifying, blending, and processing plants;
24. Appoint every agent and employee required for its operations, require any or all of them to give bonds payable to the Commonwealth in such penalty as shall be fixed by the Board, and engage the services of experts and professionals;
25. Hold and conduct hearings, issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of records, memoranda, papers, and other documents before the Board or any agent of the Board, and administer oaths and take testimony thereunder. The Board may authorize any Board member or agent of the Board to hold and conduct hearings, issue subpoenas, administer oaths and take testimony thereunder, and decide cases, subject to final decision by the Board, on application of any party aggrieved. The Board may enter into consent agreements and may request and accept from any applicant, licensee, or permittee a consent agreement in lieu of proceedings on (i) objections to the issuance of a license or permit or (ii) disciplinary action. Any such consent agreement (a) shall include findings of fact and provisions regarding whether the terms of the consent agreement are confidential and (b) may include an admission or a finding of a violation. A consent agreement shall not be considered a case decision of the Board and shall not be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), but may be considered by the Board in future disciplinary proceedings;
26. Make a reasonable charge for preparing and furnishing statistical information and compilations to persons other than (i) officials, including court and police officials, of the Commonwealth and of its subdivisions if the information requested is for official use and (ii) persons who have a personal or legal interest in obtaining the information requested if such information is not to be used for commercial or trade purposes;
27. Take appropriate disciplinary action and assess and collect civil penalties and civil charges for violations of this subtitle and Board regulations;
28. Review and approve any proposed legislative or regulatory changes suggested by the Chief Executive Officer as the Board deems appropriate;
29. Report quarterly to the Secretary of Public Safety and Homeland Security on the law-enforcement activities undertaken to enforce the provisions of this subtitle;
30. Establish and collect fees for all permits set forth in this subtitle, including fees associated with applications for such permits;
31. Develop and make available on its website guidance documents regarding compliance and safe practices for persons who cultivate marijuana at home for personal use, which shall include information regarding cultivation practices that promote personal and public safety, including child protection, and discourage practices that create a nuisance;
32. Develop and make available on its website a resource that provides information regarding (i) responsible marijuana consumption; (ii) health risks and other dangers associated with marijuana consumption, including inability to operate a motor vehicle and other types of transportation and equipment; and (iii) ancillary effects of marijuana consumption, including ineligibility for certain employment opportunities. The Board shall require that the web address for such resource be included on the label of all retail marijuana and retail marijuana product as provided in § 4.1-1402; and
33. Do all acts necessary or advisable to carry out the purposes of this subtitle. A. The Board may promulgate reasonable regulations, not inconsistent with this title or the general laws of the Commonwealth, that it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter and to prevent the illegal cultivation, manufacture, sale, and testing of marijuana and marijuana products. The Board may amend or repeal such regulations. Such regulations shall be promulgated, amended, or repealed in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) and shall have the effect of law.
B. The Board shall promulgate regulations that:
1. Govern the outdoor cultivation of marijuana by a marijuana cultivation facility licensee, including security requirements to include lighting, physical security, and alarm requirements, provided that such requirements do not prohibit the cultivation of marijuana outdoors or in a greenhouse;
2. Establish requirements for securely transporting marijuana between marijuana establishments;
3. Establish sanitary standards for retail marijuana product preparation;
4. Establish a testing program for retail marijuana and retail marijuana products pursuant to Article 9 (§ 4.1-686 et seq.);
5. Establish an application process for licensure as a marijuana establishment pursuant to this title in a way that, when possible, prevents disparate impacts on historically disadvantaged communities;
6. Establish requirements for health and safety warning labels to be placed on retail marijuana and retail marijuana products to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer in accordance with the provisions of this chapter;
7. Establish a maximum tetrahydrocannabinol level for retail marijuana products, which shall not exceed (i) five milligrams per serving for edible marijuana products and where practicable an equivalent amount for other marijuana products, (ii) 50 milligrams per package for edible marijuana products and where practicable an equivalent amount for other marijuana products. Such regulations may include other product and dispensing limitations on tetrahydrocannabinol;
8. Establish requirements for the form, content, and retention of all records and accounts by all licensees;
9. Provide alternative methods for licensees to maintain and store business records that are subject to Board inspection, including methods for Board-approved electronic and offsite storage;
10. Establish (i) criteria by which to evaluate new licensees based on the density of retail marijuana stores in the community and (ii) metrics that have similarly shown an association with negative community-level health outcomes or health disparities. In promulgating such regulations, the Board shall coordinate with the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council established pursuant to § 4.1-601.1;
11. Require retail licensees to file an appeal from any hearing decision rendered by a hearing officer within 30 days of the date the notice of the decision is sent. The notice shall be sent to the licensee at the address on record with the Board by certified mail, return receipt requested, and by regular mail;
12. Prescribe the schedule of proration for refunded license fees to licensees who qualify pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-636;
13. Establish reasonable time, place, and manner restrictions on outdoor advertising of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products, not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter, so that such advertising does not encourage or otherwise promote the consumption of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products by persons to whom retail marijuana or retail marijuana products may not be lawfully sold. Such regulations shall be promulgated in accordance with § 4.1-690;
14. Establish criteria by which to evaluate micro business license applicants, which shall be an applicant who has lived for at least 12 months in the Commonwealth and is either (i) an applicant with at least 51 percent ownership by a person or persons who has been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any marijuana offenses that are eligible for expungement pursuant to § 19.2-392.2 or 19.2-392.2:1; (ii) an applicant with at least 51 percent ownership by a person or persons who is the parent, child, sibling, or spouse of a person who has been arrested for, convicted of, or adjudicated delinquent for any marijuana offenses that are eligible for expungement under § 19.2-392.2 or 19.2-392.2:1; (iii) an applicant with at least 51 percent ownership by a person or persons who have resided for at least three of the past five years in a jurisdiction that is determined by the Board to have been disproportionately policed for marijuana crimes; (iv) an applicant with at least 51 percent ownership by a person or persons who has resided for at least three of the last five years in a jurisdiction determined by the Board as economically distressed; or (v) for applicants with a minimum of 10 full-time employees, an applicant with at least 51 percent of current employees who meet the qualifications in clauses (i), (ii), or (iii);
15. For the purposes of establishing criteria by which to evaluate micro business license applicants, establish standards by which to determine (i) which jurisdictions have been disproportionately policed for marijuana crimes and (ii) which jurisdictions are economically distressed; and
16. Establish standards and requirements for (i) any preference in the licensing process for qualified micro business applicants, (ii) what percentage of application or license fees are waived for a qualified micro business applicant, and (iii) a low-interest business loan program for qualified micro business applicants.
C. The Board may promulgate regulations that:
1. Limit the number of licenses issued by type or class to operate a marijuana establishment; however, the Board shall not limit the number of Class D marijuana cultivation facility licenses issued.
2. Provide for the issuance of additional classes of state license to a marijuana establishment.
3. Prescribe any requirements deemed appropriate for the administration of taxes under §§ 4.1-637 and 4.1-638, including method of filing a return, information required on a return, and form of payment.
D. Board regulations shall be uniform in their application, except those relating to hours of sale for licensees.
E. Courts shall take judicial notice of Board regulations.
F. The Board's power to regulate shall be broadly construed.
§ 4.1-605. Additional powers; mediation; alternative dispute resolution; confidentiality Seed-to-sale tracking system.
A. As used in this section:
"Appropriate case" means any alleged license or permit violation or objection to the application for a license or permit in which it is apparent that there are significant issues of disagreement among interested persons and for which the Board finds that the use of a mediation or dispute resolution proceeding is in the public interest.
"Dispute resolution proceeding" means the same as that term is defined in § 8.01-576.4.
"Mediation" means the same as that term is defined in § 8.01-576.4.
"Neutral" means the same as that term is defined in § 8.01-576.4.
B. The Board may use mediation or a dispute resolution proceeding in appropriate cases to resolve underlying issues or reach a consensus or compromise on contested issues. Mediation and other dispute resolution proceedings as authorized by this section shall be voluntary procedures that supplement, rather than limit, other dispute resolution techniques available to the Board. Mediation or a dispute resolution proceeding may be used for an objection to the issuance of a license or permit only with the consent of, and participation by, the applicant for a license or permit and shall be terminated at the request of such applicant.
C. Any resolution of a contested issue accepted by the Board under this section shall be considered a consent agreement as provided in § 4.1-604. The decision to use mediation or a dispute resolution proceeding is in the Board's sole discretion and shall not be subject to judicial review.
D. The Board may adopt rules and regulations, in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), for the implementation of this section. Such rules and regulations may include (i) standards and procedures for the conduct of mediation and dispute resolution proceedings, including an opportunity for interested persons identified by the Board to participate in the proceeding; (ii) the appointment and function of a neutral to encourage and assist parties to voluntarily compromise or settle contested issues; and (iii) procedures to protect the confidentiality of papers, work products, or other materials.
E. The provisions of § 8.01-576.10 concerning the confidentiality of a mediation or dispute resolution proceeding shall govern all such proceedings held pursuant to this section except where the Board uses or relies on information obtained in the course of such proceeding in granting, suspending, restricting, or revoking a license or permit, or in accepting payment of a civil penalty or investigative costs. Consent agreements shall be signed by all parties and shall include provisions regarding whether the terms of the consent agreement are confidential. To ensure that no retail marijuana or retail marijuana products grown or processed by a marijuana establishment are sold or otherwise transferred except as authorized by law, the Board shall develop and maintain a seed-to-sale tracking system that tracks retail marijuana from either the seed or immature plant stage until the retail marijuana or retail marijuana product is sold to a customer at a retail marijuana store.
§ 4.1-606. Regulations Reports and accounting systems of the Board; auditing books and records.
A. The Board may promulgate reasonable regulations, not inconsistent with this subtitle or the general laws of the Commonwealth, that it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this subtitle and to prevent the illegal cultivation, manufacture, sale, and testing of marijuana and marijuana products. The Board may amend or repeal such regulations. Such regulations shall be promulgated, amended, or repealed in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) and shall have the effect of law.
B. The Board shall promulgate regulations that:
1. Govern the outdoor cultivation of marijuana by a marijuana cultivation facility licensee, including security requirements to include lighting, physical security, and alarm requirements, provided that such requirements do not prohibit the cultivation of marijuana outdoors or in a greenhouse;
2. Establish requirements for securely transporting marijuana between marijuana establishments;
3. Establish sanitary standards for retail marijuana product preparation;
4. Establish a testing program for retail marijuana and retail marijuana products pursuant to Chapter 14 (§ 4.1-1400 et seq.);
5. Establish an application process for licensure as a marijuana establishment pursuant to this subtitle in a way that, when possible, prevents disparate impacts on historically disadvantaged communities;
6. Establish requirements for health and safety warning labels to be placed on retail marijuana and retail marijuana products to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer in accordance with the provisions of this subtitle;
7. Establish a maximum tetrahydrocannabinol level for retail marijuana products, which shall not exceed (i) five milligrams per serving for edible marijuana products and where practicable an equivalent amount for other marijuana products or (ii) 50 milligrams per package for edible marijuana products and where practicable an equivalent amount for other marijuana products. Such regulations may include other product and dispensing limitations on tetrahydrocannabinol;
8. Establish requirements for the form, content, and retention of all records and accounts by all licensees;
9. Provide alternative methods for licensees to maintain and store business records that are subject to Board inspection, including methods for Board-approved electronic and offsite storage;
10. Establish (i) criteria by which to evaluate new licensees based on the density of retail marijuana stores in the community and (ii) metrics that have similarly shown an association with negative community-level health outcomes or health disparities. In promulgating such regulations, the Board shall coordinate with the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council established pursuant to § 4.1-603;
11. Require retail licensees to file an appeal from any hearing decision rendered by a hearing officer within 30 days of the date the notice of the decision is sent. The notice shall be sent to the licensee at the address on record with the Board by certified mail, return receipt requested, and by regular mail;
12. Prescribe the schedule of proration for refunded license fees to licensees who qualify pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-1002;
13. Establish criteria by which to evaluate social equity license applicants, which shall be an applicant who has lived or been domiciled for at least 12 months in the Commonwealth and is either (i) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who have been convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for any misdemeanor violation of § 18.2-248.1, former § 18.2-250.1, or subsection A of § 18.2-265.3 as it relates to marijuana; (ii) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who is the parent, child, sibling, or spouse of a person who has been convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for any misdemeanor violation of § 18.2-248.1, former § 18.2-250.1, or subsection A of § 18.2-265.3 as it relates to marijuana; (iii) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who have resided for at least three of the past five years in a jurisdiction that is determined by the Board after utilizing census tract data made available by the United States Census Bureau to have been disproportionately policed for marijuana crimes; (iv) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who have resided for at least three of the last five years in a jurisdiction determined by the Board after utilizing census tract data made available by the United States Census Bureau to be economically distressed; or (v) an applicant with at least 66 percent ownership by a person or persons who graduated from a historically black college or university located in the Commonwealth;
14. For the purposes of establishing criteria by which to evaluate social equity license applicants, establish standards by which to determine (i) which jurisdictions have been disproportionately policed for marijuana crimes and (ii) which jurisdictions are economically distressed;
15. Establish standards and requirements for (i) any preference in the licensing process for qualified social equity applicants, (ii) what percentage of application or license fees are waived for a qualified social equity applicant, and (iii) a low-interest business loan program for qualified social equity applicants;
16. Establish guidelines, in addition to requirements set forth in this subtitle, for the personal cultivation of marijuana that promote personal and public safety, including child protection, and discourage personal cultivation practices that create a nuisance, including a nuisance caused by odor;
17. Establish reasonable time, place, and manner restrictions on outdoor advertising of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products, not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter, so that such advertising displaces the illicit market and notifies the public of the location of marijuana establishments. Such regulations shall be promulgated in accordance with § 4.1-1404;
18. Establish restrictions on the number of licenses that a person may be granted to operate a marijuana establishment in single locality or region; and
19. Establish restrictions on pharmaceutical processors and industrial hemp processors that have been granted a license in more than one license category pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-805 that ensure all licensees have an equal and meaningful opportunity to participate in the market. Such regulations may limit the amount of products cultivated or manufactured by the pharmaceutical processor or industrial hemp processor that such processor may offer for sale in its retail marijuana stores.
C. The Board may promulgate regulations that:
1. Limit the number of licenses issued by type or class to operate a marijuana establishment; however, the number of licenses issued shall not exceed the following limits:
a. Retail marijuana stores, 400;
b. Marijuana wholesalers, 25;
c. Marijuana manufacturing facilities, 60; and
d. Marijuana cultivation facilities, 450.
In determining the number of licenses issued pursuant to this subdivision, the Board shall not consider any license granted pursuant to subsection C of § 4.1-805 to (i) a pharmaceutical processor that has been issued a permit by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to Article 4.2 (§ 54.1-3442.5 et seq.) of the Drug Control Act or (ii) an industrial hemp processor registered with the Commissioner of Agriculture and Consumer Services pursuant to Chapter 41.1 (§ 3.2-4112 et seq.) of Title 3.2.
2. Prescribe any requirements deemed appropriate for the administration of taxes under §§ 4.1-1003 and 4.1-1004, including method of filing a return, information required on a return, and form of payment.
3. Limit the allowable square footage of a retail marijuana store, which shall not exceed 1,500 square feet.
4. Allow certain persons to be granted or have interest in a license in more than one of the following license categories: marijuana cultivation facility license, marijuana manufacturing facility license, marijuana wholesaler license, or retail marijuana store license. Such regulations shall be drawn narrowly to limit vertical integration to small businesses and ensure that all licensees have an equal and meaningful opportunity to participate in the market.
D. Board regulations shall be uniform in their application, except those relating to hours of sale for licensees.
E. Courts shall take judicial notice of Board regulations.
F. The Board shall consult with the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council in promulgating any regulations relating to public health, including regulations promulgated pursuant to subdivision B 3, 4, 6, 7, 10, or 16, and shall not promulgate any such regulation that has not been approved by a majority of the members of the Cannabis Public Health Advisory Council.
G. With regard to regulations governing licensees that have been issued a permit by the Board of Pharmacy to operate as a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility pursuant to Article 4.2 (§ 54.1-3442.5 et seq.) of the Drug Control Act, the Board shall make reasonable efforts (i) to align such regulations with any applicable regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy that establish health, safety, and security requirements for pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities and (ii) to deem in compliance with applicable regulations promulgated pursuant to this subtitle such pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities that have been found to be in compliance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy that mirror or are more extensive in scope than similar regulations promulgated pursuant to this subtitle.
H. The Board's power to regulate shall be broadly construed. The Board shall make reports to the Governor as he may require covering the administration and enforcement of this chapter. Additionally, the Board shall submit an annual report to the Governor, the General Assembly, the Chief Executive Officer, and the Advisory Board on or before December 15 each year, which shall contain:
1. The number of state licenses of each category issued pursuant to this chapter;
2. Demographic information concerning the licensees;
3. A description of enforcement and disciplinary actions taken against licensees;
4. A statement of revenues and expenses related to the implementation, administration, and enforcement of this chapter;
5. General information and remarks about the working of the cannabis control laws within the Commonwealth;
6. A description of the efforts undertaken by the Board to promote diverse business ownership within the cannabis industry; and
7. Any other information requested by the Governor.
§ 4.1-608. Appointment, salary, and powers of Chief Executive Officer; appointment of confidential assistant to the Chief Executive Officer Certain information not to be made public.
A. The Chief Executive Officer of the Authority shall be appointed by the Governor and confirmed by the affirmative vote of a majority of those voting in each house of the General Assembly. The Chief Executive Officer shall not be a member of the Board, shall hold, at a minimum, a baccalaureate degree in business or a related field of study, and shall possess a minimum of seven years of demonstrated experience or expertise in the direct management, supervision, or control of a business or legal affairs. The Chief Executive Officer shall receive such compensation as determined by the Board and approved by the Governor, including any performance bonuses or incentives as the Board deems advisable. The Chief Executive Officer shall be subject to a background check in accordance with § 4.1-609. The Chief Executive Officer shall (i) carry out the powers and duties conferred upon him by the Board or imposed upon him by law and (ii) meet performance measures or targets set by the Board and approved by the Governor. The Chief Executive Officer may be removed from office by the Governor for cause, including the improper use of the Authority's police powers, malfeasance, misfeasance, incompetence, misconduct, neglect of duty, absenteeism, conflict of interests, failure to meet performance measures or targets as set by the Board and approved by the Governor, failure to carry out the policies of the Commonwealth as established in the Constitution or by the General Assembly, or refusal to carry out a lawful directive of the Governor.
B. The Chief Executive Officer shall devote his full time to the performance of his official duties and shall not be engaged in any other profession or occupation.
C. The Chief Executive Officer shall supervise and administer the operations of the Authority in accordance with this subtitle.
D. The Chief Executive Officer shall:
1. Serve as the secretary to the Board and keep a true and full record of all proceedings of the Authority and preserve at the Authority's general office all books, documents, and papers of the Authority;
2. Exercise and perform such powers and duties as may be delegated to him by the Board or as may be conferred or imposed upon him by law;
3. Employ or retain such special agents or employees subordinate to the Chief Executive Officer as may be necessary to fulfill the duties of the Authority conferred upon the Chief Executive Officer, subject to the Board's approval; and
4. Make recommendations to the Board for legislative and regulatory changes.
E. Neither the Chief Executive Officer nor the spouse or any member of the immediate family of the Chief Executive Officer shall make any contribution to a candidate for office or officeholder at the local or state level or cause such a contribution to be made on his behalf.
F. To assist the Chief Executive Officer in the performance of his duties, the Governor shall also appoint one confidential assistant for administration who shall be deemed to serve on an employment-at-will basis. Neither the Board nor its employees shall divulge any information regarding (i) financial reports or records required pursuant to this chapter; (ii) the purchase orders and invoices for retail marijuana or retail marijuana products filed with the Board by marijuana wholesaler licensees; (iii) taxes collected from, refunded to, or adjusted for any person; or (iv) information contained in the seed-to-sale tracking system maintained by the Board pursuant to § 4.1-604. The provisions of § 58.1-3 shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to taxes collected pursuant to this chapter and to purchase orders and invoices for retail marijuana or retail marijuana products filed with the Board by marijuana wholesaler licensees.
Nothing contained in this section shall prohibit the use or release of such information or documents by the Board to any governmental or law-enforcement agency, or when considering the granting, denial, revocation, or suspension of a license or permit, or the assessment of any penalty against a licensee or permittee, nor shall this section prohibit the Board or its employees from compiling and disseminating to any member of the public aggregate statistical information pertaining to (a) tax collection, as long as such information does not reveal or disclose tax collection from any identified licensee; (b) the total amount of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products sales in the Commonwealth by marijuana wholesaler licensees collectively; or (c) the total amount of purchases or sales submitted by licensees, provided that such information does not identify the licensee.
§ 4.1-609. Background investigations of Board members and Chief Executive Officer Disposition of moneys collected by the Board.
All members of the Board and the Chief Executive Officer shall be fingerprinted before, and as a condition of, appointment. These fingerprints shall be submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history records search and to the Department of State Police for a Virginia criminal history records search. The Department of State Police shall be reimbursed by the Authority for the cost of investigations conducted pursuant to this section. No person shall be appointed to the Board or appointed by the Board who (i) has defrauded or attempted to defraud any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or authority by making or filing any report, document, or tax return required by statute or regulation that is fraudulent or contains a false representation of a material fact; (ii) has willfully deceived or attempted to deceive any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or governmental authority by making or maintaining business records required by statute or regulation that are false and fraudulent; or (iii) has been convicted of (a) a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude or (b) a violation of any law applicable to the manufacture, transportation, possession, use, or sale of marijuana within the five years immediately preceding appointment. A. All moneys collected by the Board under this chapter shall be paid into the state treasury according to the provisions of § 4.1-116.
B. Except for revenues collected from any local marijuana tax imposed under § 4.1-638, which shall be separately accounted for as provided in subsection D, the net profits of the Board from its activities under this chapter shall be calculated according to the provisions of § 4.1-116. As provided in § 4.1-116, any moneys paid into the state treasury pursuant to subsection A that are not net profits shall be set aside in the Enterprise Fund created under § 4.1-116.
C. After accounting for the authority's expenses as provided in subsection A of § 4.1-116, net profits attributable to the Board's activities under this chapter shall be appropriated in the general appropriation act as follows:
1. Forty percent to support early childhood care and early childhood education in the Commonwealth;
2. Thirty percent to the Cannabis Equity Reinvestment Fund established pursuant to § 2.2-2499.4;
3. Twenty-five percent to substance use disorder prevention and treatment programs; and
4. Five percent to public health programs.
D. All local tax revenues collected under § 4.1-638 shall be paid into the state treasury as provided in subsection A and credited to a special fund, which is hereby created on the Comptroller's books under the name "Collections of Local Marijuana Taxes." The revenues shall be credited to the account of the locality in which they were collected. If revenues were collected from a marijuana establishment located in more than one locality by reason of the boundary line or lines passing through the marijuana establishment, tax revenues shall be distributed pro rata among the localities. The Authority shall provide to the Comptroller any records and assistance necessary for the Comptroller to determine the locality to which tax revenues are attributable.
On a quarterly basis, the Comptroller shall draw his warrant on the Treasurer of Virginia in the proper amount in favor of each locality entitled to the return of its tax revenues, and such payments shall be charged to the account of each such locality under the special fund created by this section. If errors are made in any such payment, or adjustments are otherwise necessary, whether attributable to refunds to taxpayers, or to some other fact, the errors shall be corrected and adjustments made in the payments for the next quarter.
§ 4.1-610. Financial interests of Board, employees, and family members prohibited Local ordinances or resolutions regulating retail marijuana or retail marijuana products.
No Board member or employee of the Authority shall (i) be a principal stockholder or (ii) otherwise have any financial interest, direct or indirect, in any licensee subject to the provisions of this subtitle or in any entity that has submitted an application for a license under Chapter 8 (§ 4.1-800 et seq.). No Board member and no spouse or immediate family member of a Board member shall make any contribution to a candidate for office or officeholder at the local or state level or cause such a contribution to be made on his behalf. A. No county, city, or town shall, except as provided in subsection D, adopt any ordinance or resolution that regulates or prohibits the cultivation, manufacture, possession, sale, wholesale distribution, handling, transportation, consumption, use, advertising, or dispensing of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products in the Commonwealth.
B. However, the governing body of any county, city, or town may adopt an ordinance (i) that prohibits the acts described in § 4.1-652, or the acts described in § 4.1-653, and may provide a penalty for violation thereof and (ii) that regulates or prohibits the possession of opened retail marijuana or retail marijuana products containers in its local public parks, playgrounds, public streets, and any sidewalk adjoining any public street.
C. Except as provided in this section, all local acts, including charter provisions and ordinances of counties, cities, and towns, inconsistent with any of the provisions of this chapter, are repealed to the extent of such inconsistency.
D. 1. The governing body of each county may adopt ordinances effective in that portion of such county not embraced within the corporate limits of any incorporated town, and the governing body of each city and town may adopt ordinances effective in such city or town, fixing hours during which retail marijuana and retail marijuana products may be sold. Such governing bodies shall provide for fines and other penalties for violations of any such ordinances, which shall be enforced as if the violations were Class 1 misdemeanors with a right of appeal pursuant to § 16.1-106.
2. A copy of any ordinance adopted pursuant to this section shall be certified by the clerk of the governing body adopting it and transmitted to the Board.
3. On and after the effective date of any ordinance adopted pursuant to this section, no retail marijuana store shall sell retail marijuana and retail marijuana products during the hours limited by the ordinance.
CHAPTER 7.
ADMINISTRATION OF LICENSES; GENERAL PROVISIONS.
§ 4.1-700. Exemptions from licensure.
The licensure requirements of this article shall not apply to (i) a cannabis dispensing facility or pharmaceutical processor that has been issued a permit by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to Article 4.2 (§ 54.1-3442.5 et seq.) of the Drug Control Act; (ii) a dealer, grower, or processor of industrial hemp registered with the Commissioner of Agriculture and Consumer Services pursuant to Chapter 41.1 (§ 3.2-4112 et seq.) of Title 3.2; (iii) a manufacturer of an industrial hemp extract or food containing an industrial hemp extract operating in accordance with Article 5 (§ 3.2-5145.1 et seq.) of Chapter 51 of Title 3.2; or (iv) a person who cultivates marijuana at home for personal use pursuant to § 4.1-645; however, any person described in clause (i), (ii), or (iii) may be licensed pursuant to this article if such person satisfies the license requirements.
§ 4.1-701. To whom privileges conferred by licenses extend; liability for violations of law.
The privilege of any licensee to cultivate, manufacture, transport, sell, or test retail marijuana or retail marijuana products shall extend to such licensee and to all agents or employees of such licensee for the purpose of operating under such license. The licensee may be held liable for any violation of this chapter or any Board regulation committed by such agents or employees in connection with their employment.
§ 4.1-702. Separate license for each place of business; transfer or amendment; posting; expiration; civil penalties.
A. Each license granted by the Board shall designate the place where the business of the licensee will be carried on. A separate license shall be required for each separate place of business.
B. No license shall be transferable from one person to another or from one location to another. The Board may permit a licensee to amend the classification of an existing license without complying with the posting and publishing procedures required by § 4.1-634 if the effect of the amendment is to reduce materially the privileges of an existing license. However, if (i) the Board determines that the amendment is a device to evade the provisions of this article, (ii) a majority of the corporate stock of a retail marijuana store licensee is sold to a new entity, or (iii) there is a change of business at the premises of a retail marijuana store licensee, the Board may, within 30 days of receipt of written notice by the licensee of a change in ownership or a change of business, require the licensee to comply with any or all of the requirements of § 4.1-634. If the Board fails to exercise its authority within the 30-day period, the licensee shall not be required to reapply for a license. The licensee shall submit such written notice to the secretary of the Board.
C. Each license shall be posted in a location conspicuous to the public at the place where the licensee carries on the business for which the license is granted.
D. The privileges conferred by any license granted by the Board shall continue until the last day of the twelfth month next ensuing or the last day of the designated month and year of expiration, except the license may be sooner terminated for any cause for which the Board would be entitled to refuse to grant a license or by operation of law, voluntary surrender, or order of the Board.
The Board may grant licenses for one year or for multiple years, not to exceed three years, based on the fees set by the Board pursuant to § 4.1-635. Qualification for a multiyear license shall be determined on the basis of criteria established by the Board. Fees for multiyear licenses shall not be refundable except as provided in § 4.1-636. The Board may provide a discount for two-year or three-year licenses, not to exceed five percent of the applicable license fee, which extends for one fiscal year and shall not be altered or rescinded during such period.
The Board may permit a licensee who fails to pay:
1. The required license fee covering the continuation or reissuance of his license by midnight of the fifteenth day of the twelfth month or of the designated month of expiration, whichever is applicable, to pay the fee in lieu of posting and publishing notice and reapplying, provided payment of the fee is made within 30 days following that date and is accompanied by a civil penalty of $25 or 10 percent of such fee, whichever is greater; and
2. The fee and civil penalty pursuant to subdivision 1 to pay the fee in lieu of posting and publishing notice and reapplying, provided payment of the fee is made within 45 days following the 30 days specified in subdivision 1 and is accompanied by a civil penalty of $100 or 25 percent of such fee, whichever is greater.
Such civil penalties collected by the Board shall be deposited in accordance with § 4.1-XXXX.
§ 4.1-703. Records of licensees; inspection of records and places of business.
A. Every licensed marijuana manufacturing facility or marijuana wholesaler shall keep complete, accurate, and separate records in accordance with Board regulations of all marijuana and marijuana products it purchased, manufactured, sold, or shipped.
B. Every licensed retail marijuana store shall keep complete, accurate, and separate records in accordance with Board regulations of all purchases of retail marijuana products, the prices charged such licensee therefor, and the names and addresses of the persons from whom purchased. Every licensed retail marijuana store shall also preserve all invoices showing its purchases for a period as specified by Board regulations. The licensee shall also keep an accurate account of daily sales, showing quantities of retail marijuana products sold and the total price charged by it therefor. Except as otherwise provided in subsections D and E, such account need not give the names or addresses of the purchasers thereof, except as may be required by Board regulation.
Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection F, electronic records of licensed retail marijuana stores may be stored off site, provided that such records are readily retrievable and available for electronic inspection by the Board or its special agents at the licensed premises. However, in the case that such electronic records are not readily available for electronic inspection on the licensed premises, the licensee may obtain Board approval, for good cause shown, to permit the licensee to provide the records to a special agent of the Board within three business days or less, as determined by the Board, after a request is made to inspect the records.
C. Every licensed marijuana cultivation facility shall keep complete, accurate, and separate records in accordance with Board regulations of all marijuana and marijuana products it purchased, manufactured, sold, or shipped.
D. Every licensed marijuana testing facility shall keep complete, accurate, and separate records in accordance with Board regulations of all marijuana and marijuana products it developed, researched, or tested and the names and addresses of the licensees or persons who submitted the marijuana or marijuana product to the marijuana testing facility.
E. Every licensed marijuana secure transporter shall keep complete, accurate, and separate records in accordance with Board regulations of all marijuana and marijuana products it transported and the names and addresses of the marijuana establishments from which the marijuana or marijuana products were obtained and to which the marijuana or marijuana products were delivered.
F. The Board and its special agents shall be allowed free access during reasonable hours to every place in the Commonwealth and to the premises of every licensee or for the purpose of examining and inspecting such place and all records, invoices, and accounts therein.
For the purposes of a Board inspection of the records of any retail marijuana store licensees, "reasonable hours" means the hours between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m.; however, if the licensee generally is not open to the public substantially during the same hours, "reasonable hours" means the business hours when the licensee is open to the public. At any other time of day, if the retail marijuana store licensee's records are not available for inspection, the licensee shall provide the records to a special agent of the Board within 24 hours after a request is made to inspect the records.
CHAPTER 8.
ADMINISTRATION OF LICENSES; LICENSES GRANTED BY BOARD.
§ 4.1-800. Marijuana cultivation facility license.
A. The Board may issue any of the following marijuana cultivation facility licenses, which shall authorize the licensee to purchase marijuana plants and seeds from other marijuana cultivation facilities; to cultivate, label, and package retail marijuana on premises approved by the Board; to transfer possession of and to sell retail marijuana to marijuana manufacturing facilities, marijuana wholesalers, and other marijuana cultivation facilities:
1. Class A cultivation facility license, which shall authorize the licensee to cultivate not more than a certain number of marijuana plants or marijuana plants in an area not larger than a certain number of square feet, as determined by the Board;
2. Class B cultivation facility license, which shall authorize the licensee to cultivate marijuana plants with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of no more than one percent, as determined post-decarboxylation.
B. In accordance with the requirements of § 4.1-6XX, a marijuana cultivation facility licensee shall track the retail marijuana it cultivates from seed or immature marijuana plant to the point at which the marijuana plant or the marijuana produced by the marijuana plant is delivered or transferred to a marijuana manufacturing facility, a marijuana testing facility, a marijuana wholesaler, or another marijuana cultivation facility, or is disposed of or destroyed.
§ 4.1-801. Marijuana manufacturing facility license.
A. The Board may issue marijuana manufacturing facility licenses, which shall authorize the licensee to purchase retail marijuana from a marijuana cultivation facility, a marijuana wholesaler, or another marijuana manufacturing facility; to manufacture, label, and package retail marijuana and retail marijuana products on premises approved by the Board; to transfer possession and sell retail marijuana and retail marijuana products to marijuana wholesalers, retail marijuana stores, and other marijuana manufacturing facilities.
B. Retail marijuana products shall be prepared on a licensed premises that is used exclusively for the manufacture and preparation of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products and using equipment that is used exclusively for the manufacture and preparation of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products.
C. All areas within the licensed premises of a marijuana manufacturing facility in which retail marijuana and retail marijuana products are manufactured shall meet all sanitary standards specified in regulations adopted by the Board. A marijuana manufacturing facility that manufactures an edible marijuana product shall comply with the requirements of Chapter 51 (§ 3.2-5100 et seq.) of Title 3.2 and any regulations adopted pursuant thereto.
D. In accordance with the requirements of § 4.1-604, a marijuana manufacturing facility licensee shall track the retail marijuana it uses in its manufacturing processes from the point the retail marijuana is delivered or transferred to the marijuana manufacturing facility by a marijuana cultivation facility to the point the retail marijuana or retail marijuana products produced using the retail marijuana are delivered or transferred to another marijuana manufacturing facility, a marijuana testing facility, a marijuana wholesaler, or a retail marijuana store, or are disposed of or destroyed.
§ 4.1-802. Marijuana testing facility license.
A. The Board may issue marijuana testing facility licenses, which shall authorize the licensee to develop, research, or test retail marijuana, retail marijuana products, and other substances.
B. A marijuana testing facility may develop, research, or test retail marijuana and retail marijuana products for (i) that facility, (ii) another licensee, or (iii) a person who intends to use the retail marijuana or retail marijuana product for personal use as authorized under § 4.1-644.
C. Neither this title nor the regulations adopted pursuant to this title shall prevent a marijuana testing facility from developing, researching, or testing substances that are not marijuana or marijuana products for that facility or for another person.
D. To obtain licensure from the Board, a marijuana testing facility shall be required to obtain and maintain accreditation pursuant to standard ISO/IEC 17025 of the International Organization for Standardization by a third-party accrediting body.
E. In accordance with the requirements of § 4.1-604, a marijuana testing facility licensee shall track all marijuana and marijuana products it receives from a licensee for testing purposes from the point at which the marijuana or marijuana products are delivered or transferred to the marijuana testing facility to the point at which the marijuana or marijuana products are disposed of or destroyed.
F. A person that has an interest in a marijuana testing facility license shall not have any interest in a licensed marijuana cultivation facility, a licensed marijuana products manufacturer, a licensed marijuana wholesaler, or a licensed retail marijuana store.
§ 4.1-803. Marijuana wholesaler license.
A. The Board may issue marijuana wholesaler licenses, which shall authorize the licensee to purchase retail marijuana and retail marijuana products from a marijuana cultivation facility, a marijuana manufacturing facility, or another marijuana wholesaler; to transfer possession and sell or resell retail marijuana or retail marijuana products to a marijuana manufacturing facility, a retail marijuana store, or another marijuana wholesaler.
B. All areas within the licensed premises of a marijuana wholesaler in which retail marijuana and retail marijuana products are stored shall meet all sanitary standards specified in regulations adopted by the Board.
C. In accordance with the requirements of § 4.1-604, a marijuana wholesaler licensee shall track the retail marijuana and retail marijuana products from the point at which the retail marijuana or retail marijuana products are delivered or transferred to the retail marijuana store by a marijuana cultivation facility, a marijuana manufacturing facility, or another marijuana wholesaler to the point at which the retail marijuana or retail marijuana products are sold to a retail marijuana store, delivered or transferred to a marijuana testing facility, or disposed of or destroyed.
§ 4.1-804. Retail marijuana store license.
A. The Board may issue retail marijuana store licenses, which shall authorize the licensee to purchase retail marijuana from a marijuana cultivation facility; to purchase retail marijuana and retail marijuana products from a marijuana wholesaler or marijuana manufacturing facility; to receive possession and sell retail marijuana and retail marijuana products to consumers on premises approved by the Board.
B. Retail marijuana stores shall be operated in accordance with the following provisions:
1. A person shall be 21 years of age or older to make a purchase in a retail marijuana store.
2. A retail marijuana store shall be permitted to sell retail marijuana and retail marijuana products to consumers only in a direct, face-to-face exchange. Such store shall not be permitted to sell marijuana or marijuana products using:
a. An automated dispensing or vending machine;
b. A drive-through sales window;
c. An Internet-based sales platform; or
d. A delivery service.
3. A retail marijuana store shall not be permitted to sell more than one ounce of marijuana or an equivalent amount of marijuana product as determined by regulation promulgated by the Board during a single transaction to one person;
4. A retail marijuana store may sell any other consumable or nonconsumable products that it is otherwise permitted by law to sell, excluding tobacco or alcohol.
5. A retail marijuana store shall not:
a. Give away any retail marijuana or retail marijuana products;
b. Sell retail marijuana or retail marijuana products to any person when at the time of such sale he knows or has reason to believe that the person attempting to purchase the retail marijuana or retail marijuana product is intoxicated or is attempting to purchase retail marijuana for someone younger than 21 years of age; or
c. Employ or allow to volunteer any person younger than 21 years of age.
6. In accordance with the requirements of § 4.1-604, a retail marijuana store licensee shall track all retail marijuana and retail marijuana products from the point at which the retail marijuana or retail marijuana products are delivered or transferred to the retail marijuana store by a marijuana cultivation facility, a marijuana manufacturing facility, or a marijuana wholesaler to the point at which the retail marijuana or retail marijuana products are sold to a consumer, delivered or transferred to a marijuana testing facility, or disposed of or destroyed.
7. A retail marijuana store shall not be subject to the requirements of Chapter 51 (§ 3.2-5100 et seq.) of Title 3.2.
C. Each retail marijuana store licensee shall post in each retail marijuana store notice of the existence of a human trafficking hotline to alert possible witnesses or victims of human trafficking to the availability of a means to report crimes or gain assistance. The notice required by this section shall (i) be posted in a place readily visible and accessible to the public and (ii) meet the requirements specified in subsection C of § 40.1-11.3.
D. Each retail marijuana store licensee shall prominently display and make available for dissemination to consumers Board-approved information regarding the potential risks of marijuana use.
E. Each retail marijuana store licensee shall provide training, established by the Board, to all employees educating them on how to discuss the potential risks of marijuana use with consumers.
§ 4.1-805. Multiple licenses awarded to one person permitted; exceptions.
A. As used in this section, "interest" means an equity ownership interest or a partial equity ownership interest or any other type of financial interest, including but not limited to being an investor or serving in a management position.
B. A person shall be permitted to possess one or any combination of the following licenses: marijuana cultivation facility license, marijuana manufacturing facility license, marijuana wholesaler license, or retail marijuana store license. However, no licensee who has been issued either a marijuana cultivation facility license, marijuana manufacturing facility license, marijuana wholesaler license, or retail marijuana store license shall be issued a marijuana testing facility license or have any interest in a marijuana testing facility licensee. Additionally, no licensee who has been issued a marijuana testing facility license shall be issued a marijuana cultivation facility license, marijuana manufacturing facility license, marijuana wholesaler license, or retail marijuana store license or have any interest in a marijuana cultivation facility licensee, marijuana manufacturing facility licensee, marijuana wholesaler licensee, or retail marijuana store licensee.
C. Additionally, no person shall be permitted to have any interest in more than five marijuana cultivation facility licensees. However, the Board may approve an application from a person who holds an interest in more than five marijuana cultivation facility licensees if, after January 1, 2024, the Board adopts a regulation authorizing a person to hold an interest in more than five marijuana cultivation facility licensees.
D. Any person who wishes to possess more than one license pursuant to subsection B shall pay a $250,000 fee to the Board. The Board shall allocate such fees to the following: (i) the Virginia Cannabis Equity Loan Fund, (ii) the Virginia Cannabis Equity Reinvestment Fund, or (iii) a program, as determined by the Board, which provides job training services to persons recently incarcerated.
In addition, any licensee who wishes to possess more than one license pursuant to subsection B shall submit a diversity, equity, and inclusion plan to the Cannabis Business Equity and Diversity Support Team (the Support Team) for approval, and upon approval shall implement such plan in accordance with the requirements set by the Support Team.
§ 4.1-806. Temporary permits required in certain instances.
A. The Board may grant a permit that shall authorize any person who purchases at a foreclosure, secured creditor's, or judicial auction sale the premises or property of a person licensed by the Board and who has become lawfully entitled to the possession of the licensed premises to continue to operate the marijuana establishment to the same extent as a person holding such licenses for a period not to exceed 60 days or for such longer period as determined by the Board. Such permit shall be temporary and shall confer the privileges of any licenses held by the previous owner to the extent determined by the Board. Such temporary permit may be issued in advance, conditioned on the requirements in this subsection.
B. A temporary permit granted pursuant to subsection A may be revoked summarily by the Board for any cause set forth in § 4.1-812 without complying with subsection A of § 4.1-XXX632. Revocation of a temporary permit shall be effective upon service of the order of revocation upon the permittee or upon the expiration of three business days after the order of the revocation has been mailed to the permittee at either his residence or the address given for the business in the permit application. No further notice shall be required.
§ 4.1-807. Licensee shall maintain possession of premises.
As a condition of licensure, a licensee shall at all times maintain possession of the licensed premises of the marijuana establishment that the licensee is licensed to operate, whether pursuant to a lease, rental agreement, or other arrangement for possession of the premises or by virtue of ownership of the premises. If the licensee fails to maintain possession of the licensed premises, the license shall be revoked by the Board.
§ 4.1-808. Use or consumption of marijuana or marijuana products on premises of licensee by licensee, agent, or employee.
No marijuana or marijuana products may be used or consumed on the premises of a licensee by the licensee or any agent or employee of the licensee, except for certain sampling for quality control purposes that may be permitted by Board regulation.
§ 4.1-809. Conditions under which the Board may refuse to grant licenses.
The Board may refuse to grant any license if it has reasonable cause to believe that:
1. The applicant, or if the applicant is a partnership, any general partner thereof, or if the applicant is an association, any member thereof, or a limited partner of 10 percent or more with voting rights, or if the applicant is a corporation, any officer, director, or shareholder owning 10 percent or more of its capital stock, or if the applicant is a limited liability company, any member-manager or any member owning 10 percent or more of the membership interest of the limited liability company:
a. Is not 21 years of age or older;
b. Is not a resident of the Commonwealth;
c. Has been convicted in any court of any crime or offense involving moral turpitude under the laws of any state or of the United States, within seven years of the date of the application or has not completed all terms of sentencing and probation resulting from any such felony conviction.
d. Knowingly employs someone younger than 21 years of age;
e. Is not the legitimate owner of the business proposed to be licensed, or other persons have ownership interests in the business that have not been disclosed;
f. Has not demonstrated financial responsibility sufficient to meet the requirements of the business proposed to be licensed;
g. Has misrepresented a material fact in applying to the Board for a license;
h. Has defrauded or attempted to defraud the Board, or any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or authority, by making or filing any report, document, or tax return required by statute or regulation that is fraudulent or contains a false representation of a material fact; or has willfully deceived or attempted to deceive the Board, or any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or authority, by making or maintaining business records required by statute or regulation that are false or fraudulent;
i. Is violating or allowing the violation of any provision of this chapter in his establishment at the time his application for a license is pending;
j. Is a police officer with police authority in the political subdivision within which the establishment designated in the application is located;
k. Is a manufacturer, distributor, or retailer of alcoholic beverages licensed under Chapter 2 (§ 4.1-200 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or a retailer of tobacco or tobacco products; or
l. Is physically unable to carry on the business for which the application for a license is filed or has been adjudicated incapacitated.
2. The place to be occupied by the applicant:
a. Does not conform to the requirements of the governing body of the county, city, or town in which such place is located with respect to sanitation, health, construction, or equipment, or to any similar requirements established by the laws of the Commonwealth or by Board regulation;
b. Is so located that granting a license and operation thereunder by the applicant would result in violations of this chapter or Board regulations or violation of the laws of the Commonwealth or local ordinances relating to peace and good order;
c. Is so located with respect to any place of religious worship; hospital; public, private, or parochial school or institution of higher education; public or private playground or other similar recreational facility; substance use disorder treatment facility; or federal, state, or local government-operated facility that the operation of such place under such license will adversely affect or interfere with the normal, orderly conduct of the affairs of such facilities or institutions;
d. Is so located with respect to any residence or residential area that the operation of such place under such license will adversely affect real property values or substantially interfere with the usual quietude and tranquility of such residence or residential area;
e. Is located within 1,000 feet of an existing retail marijuana store; or
f. Under a retail marijuana store license, is so constructed, arranged, or illuminated that law-enforcement officers and special agents of the Board are prevented from ready access to and reasonable observation of any room or area within which retail marijuana or retail marijuana products are to be sold.
Nothing in this subdivision 2 shall be construed to require an applicant to have secured a place or premises until the final stage of the license approval process.
3. The number of licenses existing in the locality is such that the granting of a license is detrimental to the interest, morals, safety, or welfare of the public. In reaching such conclusion, the Board shall consider the (i) criteria established by the Board to evaluate new licensees based on the density of retail marijuana stores in the community; (ii) character of, population of, number of similar licenses, and number of all licenses existent in the particular county, city, or town and the immediate neighborhood concerned; (iii) effect that a new license may have on such county, city, town, or neighborhood in conforming with the purposes of this chapter; and (iv) objections, if any, that may have been filed by a local governing body or local residents.
4. There exists any law, ordinance, or regulation of the United States, the Commonwealth, or any political subdivision thereof that warrants refusal by the Board to grant any license.
5. The Board is not authorized under this title to grant such license.
§ 4.1-810. Notice and hearings for refusal to grant licenses; Administrative Process Act; exceptions.
A. The action of the Board in granting or in refusing to grant any license shall be subject to judicial review in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), except as provided in subsection B or C. Such review shall extend to the entire evidential record of the proceedings provided by the Board in accordance with the Administrative Process Act. An appeal shall lie to the Court of Appeals from any order of the court. Notwithstanding § 8.01-676.1, the final judgment or order of the circuit court shall not be suspended, stayed, or modified by such circuit court pending appeal to the Court of Appeals. Neither mandamus nor injunction shall lie in any such case.
B. The Board may refuse a hearing on any application for the granting of any retail marijuana store license, provided that such:
1. License for the applicant has been refused or revoked within a period of 12 months;
2. License for any premises has been refused or revoked at that location within a period of 12 months; or
3. Applicant, within a period of 12 months immediately preceding, has permitted a license granted by the Board to expire for nonpayment of license fee, and at the time of expiration of such license, there was a pending and unadjudicated charge, either before the Board or in any court, against the licensee alleging a violation of this chapter.
C. If an applicant has permitted a license to expire for nonpayment of license fee, and at the time of expiration there remained unexecuted any period of suspension imposed upon the licensee by the Board, the Board may refuse a hearing on an application for a new license until after the date on which the suspension period would have been executed had the license not have been permitted to expire.
CHAPTER 9.
ADMINISTRATION OF LICENSES; SUSPENSION AND REVOCATION.
§ 4.1-900. Grounds for which Board may suspend or revoke licenses.
The Board may suspend or revoke any license if it has reasonable cause to believe that:
1. The licensee, or if the licensee is a partnership, any general partner thereof, or if the licensee is an association, any member thereof, or a limited partner of 10 percent or more with voting rights, or if the licensee is a corporation, any officer, director, or shareholder owning 10 percent or more of its capital stock, or if the licensee is a limited liability company, any member-manager or any member owning 10 percent or more of the membership interest of the limited liability company:
a. Has misrepresented a material fact in applying to the Board for such license;
b. Within the five years immediately preceding the date of the hearing held in accordance with § 4.1-632, has (i) violated any provision of Article 6 (§ 4.1-644 et seq.), Article 7 (§ 4.1-665 et seq.), or Article 8 (§ 4.1-676 et seq.); (ii) committed a violation of this chapter in bad faith; (iii) violated or failed or refused to comply with any regulation, rule, or order of the Board; or (iv) failed or refused to comply with any of the conditions or restrictions of the license granted by the Board;
c. Has been convicted in any court of a felony or of any crime or offense involving moral turpitude under the laws of any state, or of the United States;
d. Is not the legitimate owner of the business conducted under the license granted by the Board, or other persons have ownership interests in the business that have not been disclosed;
e. Cannot demonstrate financial responsibility sufficient to meet the requirements of the business conducted under the license granted by the Board;
f. Has been intoxicated or under the influence of some self-administered drug while upon the licensed premises;
g. Has maintained the licensed premises in an unsanitary condition, or allowed such premises to become a meeting place or rendezvous for members of a criminal street gang as defined in § 18.2-46.1 or persons of ill repute, or has allowed any form of illegal gambling to take place upon such premises;
h. Has allowed any person whom he knew or had reason to believe was intoxicated to loiter upon such licensed premises;
i. Has allowed any person to consume upon the licensed premises any marijuana or marijuana product except as provided under this title;
j. Is physically unable to carry on the business conducted under such license or has been adjudicated incapacitated;
k. Has possessed any illegal gambling apparatus, machine, or device upon the licensed premises;
l. Has upon the licensed premises (i) illegally possessed, distributed, sold, or used, or has knowingly allowed any employee or agent, or any other person, to illegally possess, distribute, sell, or use, controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, drug paraphernalia, or controlled paraphernalia as those terms are defined in Articles 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) and 1.1 (§ 18.2-265.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 and the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.); (ii) laundered money in violation of § 18.2-246.3; or (iii) conspired to commit any drug-related offense in violation of Article 1 or 1.1 of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 or the Drug Control Act. The provisions of this subdivision l shall also apply to any conduct related to the operation of the licensed business that facilitates the commission of any of the offenses set forth herein;
m. Has failed to take reasonable measures to prevent (i) the licensed premises, (ii) any premises immediately adjacent to the licensed premises that is owned or leased by the licensee, or (iii) any portion of public property immediately adjacent to the licensed premises from becoming a place where patrons of the establishment commit criminal violations of Article 1 (§ 18.2-30 et seq.), 2 (§ 18.2-38 et seq.), 2.1 (§ 18.2-46.1 et seq.), 2.2 (§ 18.2-46.4 et seq.), 3 (§ 18.2-47 et seq.), 4 (§ 18.2-51 et seq.), 5 (§ 18.2-58 et seq.), 6 (§ 18.2-59 et seq.), or 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2; Article 2 (§ 18.2-266 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2; Article 3 (§ 18.2-346 et seq.) or 5 (§ 18.2-372 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 18.2; or Article 1 (§ 18.2-404 et seq.), 2 (§ 18.2-415), or 3 (§ 18.2-416 et seq.) of Chapter 9 of Title 18.2 and such violations lead to arrests that are so frequent and serious as to reasonably be deemed a continuing threat to the public safety;
n. Has failed to take reasonable measures to prevent an act of violence resulting in death or serious bodily injury, or a recurrence of such acts, from occurring on (i) the licensed premises, (ii) any premises immediately adjacent to the licensed premises that is owned or leased by the licensee, or (iii) any portion of public property immediately adjacent to the licensed premises; or
o. Has been sanctioned by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-3316 and regulations promulgated by the Board for a violation pursuant to Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.).
2. The place occupied by the licensee:
a. Does not conform to the requirements of the governing body of the county, city, or town in which such establishment is located, with respect to sanitation, health, construction, or equipment, or to any similar requirements established by the laws of the Commonwealth or by Board regulations;
b. Has been adjudicated a common nuisance under the provisions of this subtitle or § 18.2-258; or
c. Has become a meeting place or rendezvous for illegal gambling, illegal users of narcotics, drunks, prostitutes, pimps, panderers, or habitual law violators or has become a place where illegal drugs are regularly used or distributed. The Board may consider the general reputation in the community of such establishment in addition to any other competent evidence in making such determination.
3. The licensee or any employee of the licensee discriminated against any member of the Armed Forces of the United States by prices charged or otherwise.
4. Any cause exists for which the Board would have been entitled to refuse to grant such license had the facts been known.
5. The licensee is delinquent for a period of 90 days or more in the payment of any taxes, or any penalties or interest related thereto, lawfully imposed by the locality where the licensed business is located, as certified by the treasurer, commissioner of the revenue, or finance director of such locality, unless (i) the outstanding amount is de minimis; (ii) the licensee has pending a bona fide application for correction or appeal with respect to such taxes, penalties, or interest; or (iii) the licensee has entered into a payment plan approved by the same locality to settle the outstanding liability.
6. The licensee has been convicted for a violation of 8 U.S.C. § 1324a(f), as amended, for actions of its agents or employees constituting a pattern or practice of employing unauthorized aliens on the licensed premises in the Commonwealth.
7. Any other cause authorized by this subtitle.
B. The Board shall promulgate regulations regarding suspension and revocation standards and protocols.
§ 4.1-901. Summary suspension in emergency circumstances; grounds; notice and hearing.
A. Notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in Article 3 (§ 2.2-4018 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act or § 4.1-623 or 4.1-632, the Board may summarily suspend any license or permit if it has reasonable cause to believe that an act of violence resulting in death or serious bodily injury, or a recurrence of such acts, has occurred on (i) the licensed premises, (ii) any premises immediately adjacent to the licensed premises that is owned or leased by the licensee, or (iii) any portion of public property immediately adjacent to the licensed premises, and the Board finds that there exists a continuing threat to public safety and that summary suspension of the license or permit is justified to protect the health, safety, or welfare of the public.
B. Prior to issuing an order of suspension pursuant to this section, special agents of the Board shall conduct an initial investigation and submit all findings to the Secretary of the Board within 48 hours of any such act of violence. If the Board determines suspension is warranted, it shall immediately notify the licensee of its intention to temporarily suspend his license pending the outcome of a formal investigation. Such temporary suspension shall remain effective for a minimum of 48 hours. After the 48-hour period, the licensee may petition the Board for a restricted license pending the results of the formal investigation and proceedings for disciplinary review. If the Board determines that a restricted license is warranted, the Board shall have discretion to impose appropriate restrictions based on the facts presented.
C. Upon a determination to temporarily suspend a license, the Board shall immediately commence a formal investigation. The formal investigation shall be completed within 10 days of its commencement and the findings reported immediately to the Secretary of the Board. If, following the formal investigation, the Secretary of the Board determines that suspension of the license is warranted, a hearing shall be held within five days of the completion of the formal investigation. A decision shall be rendered within 10 days of conclusion of the hearing. If a decision is not rendered within 10 days of the conclusion of the hearing, the order of suspension shall be vacated and the license reinstated. Any appeal by the licensee shall be filed within 10 days of the decision and heard by the Board within 20 days of the decision. The Board shall render a decision on the appeal within 10 days of the conclusion of the appeal hearing.
D. Service of any order of suspension issued pursuant to this section shall be made by a special agent of the Board in person and by certified mail to the licensee. The order of suspension shall take effect immediately upon service.
E. This section shall not apply to temporary permits granted under § 4.1-806.
§ 4.1-902. Grounds for which Board shall suspend or revoke licenses.
The Board shall suspend or revoke any license if it finds that:
1. A licensee has violated or permitted the violation of § 18.2-331, relating to the illegal possession of a gambling device, upon the premises for which the Board has granted a retail marijuana store license.
2. A licensee has defrauded or attempted to defraud the Board, or any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or authority, by making or filing any report, document, or tax return required by statute or regulation that is fraudulent or contains a willful or knowing false representation of a material fact or has willfully deceived or attempted to deceive the Board, or any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or authority, by making or maintaining business records required by statute or regulation that are false or fraudulent.
§ 4.1-903. Suspension or revocation of licenses; notice and hearings; imposition of civil penalties.
A. Before the Board may suspend or revoke any license, reasonable notice of such proposed or contemplated action shall be given to the licensee in accordance with the provisions of § 2.2-4020 of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).
Notwithstanding the provisions of § 2.2-4022, the Board shall, upon written request by the licensee, permit the licensee to inspect and copy or photograph all (i) written or recorded statements made by the licensee or copies thereof or the substance of any oral statements made by the licensee or a previous or present employee of the licensee to any law-enforcement officer, the existence of which is known by the Board and upon which the Board intends to rely as evidence in any adversarial proceeding under this chapter against the licensee, and (ii) designated books, papers, documents, tangible objects, buildings, or places, or copies or portions thereof, that are within the possession, custody, or control of the Board and upon which the Board intends to rely as evidence in any adversarial proceeding under this chapter against the licensee. In addition, any subpoena for the production of documents issued to any person at the request of the licensee or the Board pursuant to § 4.1-103 shall provide for the production of the documents sought within 10 working days, notwithstanding anything to the contrary in § 4.1-103.
If the Board fails to provide for inspection or copying under this section for the licensee after a written request, the Board shall be prohibited from introducing into evidence any items the licensee would have lawfully been entitled to inspect or copy under this section.
The action of the Board in suspending or revoking any license or in imposing a civil penalty shall be subject to judicial review in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Such review shall extend to the entire evidential record of the proceedings provided by the Board in accordance with the Administrative Process Act. An appeal shall lie to the Court of Appeals from any order of the court. Notwithstanding § 8.01-676.1, the final judgment or order of the circuit court shall not be suspended, stayed or modified by such circuit court pending appeal to the Court of Appeals. Neither mandamus nor injunction shall lie in any such case.
B. In suspending any license the Board may impose, as a condition precedent to the removal of such suspension or any portion thereof, a requirement that the licensee pay the cost incurred by the Board in investigating the licensee and in holding the proceeding resulting in such suspension, or it may impose and collect such civil penalties as it deems appropriate. In no event shall the Board impose a civil penalty exceeding $2,000 for the first violation occurring within five years immediately preceding the date of the violation or $5,000 for the second or subsequent violation occurring within five years immediately preceding the date of the second or subsequent violation. However, if the violation involved selling retail marijuana or retail marijuana products to a person prohibited from purchasing retail marijuana or retail marijuana products or allowing consumption of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products, the Board may impose a civil penalty not to exceed $3,000 for the first violation occurring within five years immediately preceding the date of the violation and $6,000 for a second or subsequent violation occurring within five years immediately preceding the date of the second or subsequent violation in lieu of such suspension or any portion thereof, or both. The Board may also impose a requirement that the licensee pay for the cost incurred by the Board not exceeding $25,000 in investigating the licensee and in holding the proceeding resulting in the violation in addition to any suspension or civil penalty incurred.
C. Following notice to (i) the licensee of a hearing that may result in the suspension or revocation of his license or (ii) the applicant of a hearing to resolve a contested application, the Board may accept a consent agreement as authorized in subdivision 22 of § 4.1-103. The notice shall advise the licensee or applicant of the option to (a) admit the alleged violation or the validity of the objection; (b) waive any right to a hearing or an appeal under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.); and (c) (1) accept the proposed restrictions for operating under the license, (2) accept the period of suspension of the licensed privileges within the Board's parameters, (3) pay a civil penalty in lieu of the period of suspension, or any portion of the suspension as applicable, or (4) proceed to a hearing.
D. The Board shall, by regulation or written order:
1. Designate those (i) objections to an application or (ii) alleged violations that will proceed to an initial hearing;
2. Designate the violations for which a waiver of a hearing and payment of a civil charge in lieu of suspension may be accepted for a first offense occurring within three years immediately preceding the date of the violation;
3. Provide for a reduction in the length of any suspension and a reduction in the amount of any civil penalty for any retail marijuana store licensee where the licensee can demonstrate that it provided to its employees marijuana seller training certified in advance by the Board;
4. Establish a schedule of penalties for such offenses, prescribing the appropriate suspension of a license and the civil charge acceptable in lieu of such suspension; and
5. Establish a schedule of offenses for which any penalty may be waived upon a showing that the licensee has had no prior violations within five years immediately preceding the date of the violation. No waiver shall be granted by the Board, however, for a licensee's willful and knowing violation of this chapter or Board regulations.
§ 4.1-903. Suspension or revocation of licenses; notice and hearings; imposition of civil penalties.
A. Retail marijuana or retail marijuana products owned by or in the possession of or for sale by any licensee at the time the license of such person is suspended or revoked may be disposed of as follows:
1. Sold to persons in the Commonwealth licensed to sell such retail marijuana or retail marijuana products upon permits granted by the Board in accordance with § 4.1-623 and conditions specified by the Board; or
2. Provided to the Virginia State Police to be destroyed.
B. All retail marijuana or retail marijuana products owned by or in the possession of any person whose license is suspended or revoked shall be disposed of by such person in accordance with the provisions of this section within 60 days from the date of such suspension or revocation.
C. Retail marijuana or retail marijuana products owned by or in the possession of or for sale by persons whose licenses have been terminated other than by suspension or revocation may be disposed of in accordance with subsection A within such time as the Board deems proper. Such period shall not be less than 60 days.
D. All retail marijuana or retail marijuana products owned by or remaining in the possession of any person described in subsection A or C after the expiration of such period shall be deemed contraband and forfeited to the Commonwealth.
CHAPTER 10.
ADMINISTRATION OF LICENSES; APPLICATIONS FOR LICENSES; FEES; TAXES.
§ 4.1-1000. Applications for licenses; publication; notice to localities; fees; permits.
A. Every person intending to apply for any license authorized by this chapter shall file with the Board an application on forms provided by the Board and a statement in writing by the applicant swearing and affirming that all of the information contained therein is true.
Applicants for licenses for establishments that are otherwise required to obtain a food establishment permit from the Department of Health or an inspection by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall provide a copy of such permit, proof of inspection, proof of a pending application for such permit, or proof of a pending request for such inspection. If the applicant provides a copy of such permit, proof of inspection, proof of a pending application for a permit, or proof of a pending request for an inspection, a license may be issued to the applicant. If a license is issued on the basis of a pending application or inspection, such license shall authorize the licensee to purchase retail marijuana or retail marijuana products in accordance with the provisions of this chapter; however, the licensee shall not sell or serve retail marijuana or retail marijuana products until a permit is issued or an inspection is completed.
B. In addition, each applicant for a license under the provisions of this chapter shall post a notice of his application with the Board on the front door of the building, place, or room where he proposes to engage in such business for no more than 30 days and not less than 10 days. Such notice shall be of a size and contain such information as required by the Board, including a statement that any objections shall be submitted to the Board not more than 30 days following initial posting of the notice required pursuant to this subsection.
The applicant shall also cause notice to be published at least once a week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper published in or having a general circulation in the county, city, or town wherein such applicant proposes to engage in such business. Such notice shall contain such information as required by the Board, including a statement that any objections to the issuance of the license be submitted to the Board not later than 30 days from the date of the initial newspaper publication.
The Board shall conduct a background investigation, to include a criminal history records search, which may include a fingerprint-based national criminal history records search, on each applicant for a license. However, the Board may waive, for good cause shown, the requirement for a criminal history records search and completed personal data form for officers, directors, nonmanaging members, or limited partners of any applicant corporation, limited liability company, or limited partnership. In considering criminal history record information, the Board shall not disqualify an applicant because of a past conviction for a marijuana-related offense.
The Board shall notify the local governing body of each license application through the county or city attorney or the chief law-enforcement officer of the locality. Local governing bodies shall submit objections to the granting of a license within 30 days of the filing of the application.
C. Each applicant shall pay the required application fee at the time the application is filed, except that such fee shall be waived or discounted for qualified micro business applicants pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Board. The license application fee shall be determined by the Board and shall be in addition to the actual cost charged to the Department of State Police by the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the Central Criminal Records Exchange for processing any fingerprints through the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the Central Criminal Records Exchange for each criminal history records search required by the Board. Application fees shall be in addition to the state license fee required pursuant to § 4.1-1001 and shall not be refunded.
D. Subsection A shall not apply to the continuance of licenses granted under this chapter; however, all licensees shall file and maintain with the Board a current, accurate record of the information required by the Board pursuant to subsection A and notify the Board of any changes to such information in accordance with Board regulations.
E. Every application for a permit granted pursuant to § 4.1-806 shall be on a form provided by the Board. Such permits shall confer upon their holders no authority to make solicitations in the Commonwealth as otherwise provided by law.
The fee for a temporary permit shall be one-twelfth of the combined fees required by this section for applicable licenses to sell retail marijuana or retail marijuana products computed to the nearest cent and multiplied by the number of months for which the permit is granted.
F. The Board shall have the authority to increase state license fees. The Board shall set the amount of such increases on the basis of the consumer price index and shall not increase fees more than once every three years. Prior to implementing any state license fee increase, the Board shall provide notice to all licensees and the general public of (i) the Board's intent to impose a fee increase and (ii) the new fee that would be required for any license affected by the Board's proposed fee increases. Such notice shall be provided on or before November 1 in any year in which the Board has decided to increase state license fees, and such increases shall become effective July 1 of the following year.
§ 4.1-1001. Fees for state licenses.
A. Annual fees on state licenses shall be established by the Board in an amount sufficient to cover the costs of regulating the marijuana establishment.
B. The fee on each license granted or reissued for a period other than 12, 24, or 36 months shall be equal to one-twelfth of the fees required by subsection A computed to the nearest cent, multiplied by the number of months in the license period, and then increased by five percent. Such fee shall not be refundable, except as provided in § 4.1-1002.
C. Nothing in this subtitle shall exempt any licensee from any state merchants' license or state restaurant license or any other state tax. Every licensee, in addition to the taxes and fees imposed by this subtitle, shall be liable to state merchants' license taxation, state restaurant license taxation, and other state taxation.
D. In addition to the fees set forth in this section, a fee of $5 may be imposed on any license purchased in person from the Board if such license is available for purchase online.
§ 4.1-1002. Refund of state license fee.
A. The Board may (i) correct erroneous assessments made by it against any person, (ii) refund any amounts collected through erroneous assessments or collected as fees on license applications that are subsequently refused or withdrawn, and (iii) allow credit for any license fees paid for any license that is subsequently merged or changed into another license during the same license period. No refund shall be made of any such amount, however, unless made within three years from the date of collection of the same.
B. In any case where a licensee has changed its name or form of organization during a license period without any change being made in its ownership, and because of such change is required to pay an additional license fee for such period, the Board shall refund to such licensee the amount of such fee so paid in excess of the required license fee for such period.
C. The Board shall make refunds, prorated according to a schedule of its prescription, to licensees of state license fees paid pursuant to subsection A of § 4.1-1001 if the place of business designated in the license is destroyed by an act of God, including a fire, earthquake, hurricane, storm, or similar natural disaster or phenomenon.
D. Any amount required to be refunded under this section shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of moneys appropriated to the Board and in the manner prescribed in § 4.1-609.
§ 4.1-1003. Marijuana taxes; exceptions.
A. A tax of 12.875 percent is levied on the sale in the Commonwealth of any marijuana or marijuana products. Subject to the provisions of subsection C, the tax shall be in addition to any tax imposed under the Virginia Retail Sales and Use Tax Act (§ 58.1-600 et seq.) or any other provision of federal, state, or local law. The tax shall not apply to any sale:
1. From a marijuana establishment to another marijuana establishment.
2. Of cannabis products for treatment under the provisions of Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.).
3. Of industrial hemp by a grower, processor, or handler under the provisions of Chapter 41.1 (§ 3.2-4112 et seq.) of Title 3.2.
4. Of a hemp product.
B. 1. Each locality shall by ordinance levy an additional local tax on any sale taxable under subsection A at a rate equal to three percent. Other than the tax authorized and identified in this subsection, a locality shall not impose any other tax on a sale taxable under subsection A. The tax imposed by a surrounding county under this subsection shall not apply within the limits of any town. Each locality shall, within 30 days, notify the Authority and any retail marijuana store in such locality of the ordinance enacted pursuant to this subsection. The ordinance shall take effect on the first day of the second month following its enactment.
2. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to (i) prohibit a locality from imposing any tax authorized by law on a person or property regulated under this subtitle or (ii) limit the authority of any locality to impose a license or privilege tax or fee on a business engaged in whole or in part in sales taxable under subsection A if such tax or fee is (a) based on an annual or per-event flat fee authorized by law or (b) an annual license or privilege tax authorized by law and such tax includes sales or receipts taxable under subsection A in its taxable measure.
C. Any tax imposed under the Virginia Retail Sales and Use Tax Act (§ 58.1-600 et seq.) on a sale taxable under subsection A shall be limited to a 1.125 percent tax, which shall be distributed as follows: (i) the revenue from the tax at the rate of one percent shall be distributed as provided in subsections B, C, and D of § 58.1-638 and (ii) the revenue from the tax at the rate of 0.125 percent shall be distributed as provided in subdivision F 2 of § 58.1-638. No other tax shall be levied pursuant to the Virginia Retail Sales and Use Tax Act (§ 58.1-600 et seq.) on a sale taxable under subsection A.
D. All revenues remitted to the Authority under this subsection shall be disposed of as provided in § 4.1-609.
§ 4.1-1004. Tax returns and payments; commissions; interest.
A. For any sale taxable under § 4.1-1003, the seller shall be liable for collecting any taxes due. All taxes collected by a seller shall be deemed to be held in trust for the Commonwealth. The buyer shall not be liable for collecting or remitting the taxes or filing a return.
B. On or before the tenth day of each month, any person liable for a tax due under § 4.1-1003 shall file a return under oath with the Authority and pay any taxes due. Upon written application by a person filing a return, the Authority may, if it determines good cause exists, grant an extension to the end of the calendar month in which the tax is due, or for a period not exceeding 30 days. Any extension shall toll the accrual of any interest or penalties under § 4.1-1007.
C. The Authority may accept payment by any commercially acceptable means, including cash, checks, credit cards, debit cards, and electronic funds transfers, for any taxes, interest, or penalties due under this subtitle. The Board may assess a service charge for the use of a credit or debit card.
D. Upon request, the Authority may collect and maintain a record of a person's credit card, debit card, or automated clearinghouse transfer information and use such information for future payments of taxes, interest, or penalties due under this subtitle. The Authority may assess a service charge for any payments made under this subsection. The Authority may procure the services of a third-party vendor for the secure storage of information collected pursuant to this subsection.
E. If any person liable for tax under § 4.1-1003 sells out his business or stock of goods or quits the business, such person shall make a final return and payment within 15 days after the date of selling or quitting the business. Such person's successors or assigns, if any, shall withhold sufficient of the purchase money to cover the amount of such taxes, interest, and penalties due and unpaid until such former owner produces a receipt from the Authority showing payment or a certificate stating that no taxes, penalties, or interest are due. If the buyer of a business or stock of goods fails to withhold the purchase money as provided in this subsection, such buyer shall be liable for the payment of the taxes, interest, and penalties due and unpaid on account of the operation of the business by any former owner.
F. When any person fails to timely pay the full amount of tax due under § 4.1-1003, interest at a rate determined in accordance with § 58.1-15 shall accrue on the tax until it is paid. Any taxes due under § 4.1-1003 shall, if applicable, be subject to penalties as provided in §§ 4.1-1205 and 4.1-1206.
§ 4.1-1005. Bonds.
The Authority may, when deemed necessary and advisable to do so in order to secure the collection of the taxes levied under § 4.1-1003, require any person subject to such tax to file a bond, with such surety as it determines is necessary to secure the payment of any tax, penalty, or interest due or that may become due from such person. In lieu of such bond, securities approved by the Authority may be deposited with the State Treasurer, which securities shall be kept in the custody of the State Treasurer, and shall be sold by the State Treasurer at the request of the Authority at public or private sale if it becomes necessary to do so in order to recover any tax, interest, or penalty due the Commonwealth. Upon any such sale, the surplus, if any, above the amounts due shall be returned to the person who deposited the securities.
§ 4.1-1006. Refunds.
A. Whenever it is proved to the satisfaction of the Authority that any taxes levied pursuant to § 4.1-1003 have been paid and that the taxable items were or are (i) damaged, destroyed, or otherwise deemed to be unsalable by reason of fire or any other providential cause before sale to the consumer; (ii) destroyed voluntarily, after notice to and approval by the Authority of such destruction, because the taxable items were defective; or (iii) destroyed in any manner while in the possession of a common, private, or contract carrier, the Authority shall certify such facts to the Comptroller for approval of a refund payment from the state treasury to such extent as may be proper.
B. Whenever it is proved to the satisfaction of the Authority that any person has purchased taxable items that have been sold by such person in such manner as to be exempt from the tax, the Authority shall certify such facts to the Comptroller for approval of a refund payment from the state treasury to such extent as may be proper.
C. In the event purchases are returned to the seller by the buyer after a tax imposed under § 4.1-1003 has been collected or charged to the account of the buyer, the seller shall be entitled to a refund of the amount of tax so collected or charged in the manner prescribed by the Authority. The amount of tax so refunded to the seller shall not, however, include the tax paid upon any amount retained by the seller after such return of merchandise. In case the tax has not been remitted by the seller, the seller may deduct the same in submitting his return.
§ 4.1-1007. Statute of limitations; civil remedies for collecting past-due taxes, interest, and penalties.
A. The taxes imposed under § 4.1-1003 shall be assessed within three years from the date on which such taxes became due and payable. In the case of a false or fraudulent return with intent to defraud the Commonwealth, or a failure to file a return, the taxes may be assessed, or a proceeding in court for the collection of such taxes may be begun without assessment, at any time within six years from such date. The Authority shall not examine any person's records beyond the three-year period of limitations unless it has reasonable evidence of fraud or reasonable cause to believe that such person was required by law to file a return and failed to do so.
B. If any person fails to file a return as required by this section, or files a return that is false or fraudulent, the Authority may make an estimate for the taxable period of the taxable sales of such person and assess the tax, plus any applicable interest and penalties. The Authority shall give such person 10 days' notice requiring such person to provide any records as it may require relating to the business of such person for the taxable period. The Authority may require such person or the agents and employees of such person to give testimony or to answer interrogatories under oath administered by the Authority respecting taxable sales, the filing of the return, and any other relevant information. If any person fails to file a required return, refuses to provide required records, or refuses to answer interrogatories from the Authority, the Authority may make an estimated assessment based upon the information available to it and issue a memorandum of lien under subsection C for the collection of any taxes, interest, or penalties. The estimated assessment shall be deemed prima facie correct.
C. 1. If the Authority assesses taxes, interest, or penalties on a person and such person does not pay within 30 days after the due date, taking into account any extensions granted by the Authority, the Authority may file a memorandum of lien in the circuit court clerk's office of the county or city in which the person's place of business is located or in which the person resides. If the person has no place of business or residence within the Commonwealth, the memorandum may be filed in the Circuit Court of the City of Richmond. A copy of the memorandum may also be filed in the clerk's office of all counties and cities in which the person owns real estate. Such memorandum shall be recorded in the judgment docket book and shall have the effect of a judgment in favor of the Commonwealth, to be enforced as provided in Article 19 (§ 8.01-196 et seq.) of Chapter 3 of Title 8.01, except that a writ of fieri facias may issue at any time after the memorandum is filed. The lien on real estate shall become effective at the time the memorandum is filed in the jurisdiction in which the real estate is located. No memorandum of lien shall be filed unless the person is first given 10 or more days' prior notice of intent to file a lien; however, in those instances where the Authority determines that the collection of any tax, penalties, or interest required to be paid pursuant to law will be jeopardized by the provision of such notice, notification may be provided to the person concurrent with the filing of the memorandum of lien. Such notice shall be given to the person at his last known address.
2. Recordation of a memorandum of lien under this subsection shall not affect a person's right to appeal under § 4.1-1008.
3. If after filing a memorandum of lien the Authority determines that it is in the best interest of the Commonwealth, it may place padlocks on the doors of any business enterprise that is delinquent in filing or paying any tax owed to the Commonwealth. The Authority shall also post notices of distraint on each of the doors so padlocked. If, after three business days, the tax deficiency has not been satisfied or satisfactory arrangements for payment have not been made, the Authority may cause a writ of fieri facias to be issued. It shall be a Class 1 misdemeanor for anyone to enter the padlocked premises without prior approval of the Authority. In the event that the person against whom the distraint has been applied subsequently appeals under § 4.1-1008, the person shall have the right to post bond equaling the amount of liability in lieu of payment until the appeal is resolved.
4. A person may petition the Authority after a memorandum of lien has been filed under this subsection if the person alleges an error in the filing of the lien. The Authority shall make a determination on such petition within 14 days. If the Authority determines that the filing was erroneous, it shall issue a certificate of release of the lien within seven days after such determination is made.
§ 4.1-1008. Appeals.
Any tax imposed under § 4.1-1003, any interest imposed under § 4.1-1007, any action of the Authority under § 4.1-1204, and any penalty imposed under § 4.1-1205 or 4.1-1206 shall be subject to review under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Such review shall extend to the entire evidential record of the proceedings provided by the Authority in accordance with the Administrative Process Act. An appeal shall lie to the Court of Appeals from any order of a circuit court. Notwithstanding § 8.01-676.1, the final judgment or order of a circuit court shall not be suspended, stayed, or modified by such circuit court pending appeal to the Court of Appeals. Neither mandamus nor injunction shall lie in any such case.
§ 4.1-1100. Possession, etc., of marijuana and marijuana products by persons 21 years of age or older lawful; penalties.
A. Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle and notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person 21 years of age or older may lawfully possess on his person or in any public place not more than one ounce two and one-half ounces of marijuana or an equivalent amount of marijuana product as determined by regulation promulgated by the Board.
B. Any person who possesses on his person or in any public place marijuana or marijuana products in excess of the amounts set forth in subsection A is subject to a civil penalty of no more than $25 except as otherwise provided in this section. The penalty for any violations of this section by an adult shall be prepayable according to the procedures in § 16.1-69.40:2.
C. With the exception of possession by a person in his residence or possession by a licensee in the course of his duties related to such licensee's marijuana establishment, any person who possesses on his person or in any public place (i) more than four ounces but not more than one pound of marijuana or an equivalent amount of marijuana product as determined by regulation promulgated by the Board is guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor and, for a second or subsequent offense, a Class 2 misdemeanor and (ii) more than one pound of marijuana or an equivalent amount of marijuana product as determined by regulation promulgated by the Board is guilty of a felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than one year nor more than 10 years and a fine of not more than $250,000, or both.
D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to members of federal, state, county, city, or town law-enforcement agencies, jail officers, or correctional officers, as defined in § 53.1-1, certified as handlers of dogs trained in the detection of controlled substances when possession of marijuana is necessary for the performance of their duties.
§ 4.1-1101. Home cultivation of marijuana for personal use; penalties.
A. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (c) of § 18.2-248.1, a A person 21 years of age or older may cultivate up to four marijuana plants for personal use at their place of residence; however, at no point shall a household contain more than four marijuana plants. For purposes of this section, a "household" means those individuals, whether related or not, who live in the same house or other place of residence.
A person may only cultivate marijuana plants pursuant to this section at such person's main place of residence.
A violation of this subsection shall be punishable as follows:
1. For possession of more than four marijuana plants but no more than 10 marijuana plants, (i) a civil penalty of $250 for a first offense, (ii) a Class 3 misdemeanor for a second offense, and (iii) a Class 2 misdemeanor for a third and any subsequent offense;
2. For possession of more than 10 but no more than 49 marijuana plants, a Class 1 misdemeanor;
3. For possession of more than 49 but no more than 100 marijuana plants, a Class 6 felony; and
4. For possession of more than 100 marijuana plants, a felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than one year nor more than 10 years or a fine of not more than $250,000, or both.
B. A person who cultivates marijuana for personal use pursuant to this section shall:
1. Ensure that no marijuana plant is visible from a public way without the use of aircraft, binoculars, or other optical aids;
2. Take precautions to prevent unauthorized access by persons younger than 21 years of age; and
3. Attach to each marijuana plant a legible tag that includes the person's name, driver's license or identification number, and a notation that the marijuana plant is being grown for personal use as authorized under this section.
Any person who violates this subsection is subject to a civil penalty of no more than $25. The penalty for any violations of this section by an adult shall be prepayable according to the procedures in § 16.1-69.40:2.
C. A person shall not manufacture marijuana concentrate from home-cultivated marijuana. The owner of a property or parcel or tract of land may not intentionally or knowingly allow another person to manufacture marijuana concentrate from home-cultivated marijuana within or on that property or land.
§ 4.1-1102. Illegal cultivation or processing of marijuana or marijuana products; conspiracy; penalties.
A. Except as otherwise provided in §§ 4.1-700 and 4.1-1101, no person shall cultivate or process marijuana or marijuana products in the Commonwealth without being licensed to cultivate or process such marijuana or marijuana products.
B. Any person convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a Class 6 felony.
C. If two or more persons conspire together to do any act that is in violation of subsection A, and one or more of such persons does any act to effect the object of the conspiracy, each of the parties to such conspiracy is guilty of a Class 6 felony.
§ 4.1-1103. Illegal sale of marijuana or marijuana products in general; penalties.
A. For the purposes of this section, "adult sharing" means transferring marijuana between persons who are 21 years of age or older without remuneration. "Adult sharing" does not include instances in which (i) marijuana is given away contemporaneously with another reciprocal transaction between the same parties; (ii) a gift of marijuana is offered or advertised in conjunction with an offer for the sale of goods or services; or (iii) a gift of marijuana is contingent upon a separate reciprocal transaction for goods or services.
B. If any person who is not licensed sells, gives, or distributes or possesses with intent to sell, give, or distribute any marijuana or marijuana products except as permitted by this chapter or provided in subsection C, he is guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor.
A second or subsequent conviction under this section shall constitute a Class 1 misdemeanor.
C. No civil or criminal penalty may be imposed for adult sharing of an amount of marijuana that does not exceed two and one-half ounces or of an equivalent amount of marijuana products.
§ 4.1-1104. Persons to whom marijuana or marijuana products may not be sold; proof of legal age; penalties.
A. No person shall, except as otherwise permitted under Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.), sell, give, or distribute any marijuana or marijuana products to any individual when at the time of such sale he knows or has reason to believe that the individual to whom the sale is made is (i) younger than 21 years of age or (ii) intoxicated. Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. Any person who sells, except as otherwise permitted under Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.), any marijuana or marijuana products to an individual who is younger than 21 years of age and at the time of the sale does not require the individual to present bona fide evidence of legal age indicating that the individual is 21 years of age or older is guilty of a violation of this subsection. Bona fide evidence of legal age is limited to any evidence that is or reasonably appears to be an unexpired driver's license issued by any state of the United States or the District of Columbia, military identification card, United States passport or foreign government visa, unexpired special identification card issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles, or any other valid government-issued identification card bearing the individual's photograph, signature, height, weight, and date of birth, or which bears a photograph that reasonably appears to match the appearance of the purchaser. A student identification card shall not constitute bona fide evidence of legal age for purposes of this subsection. Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection is guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.
C. No person shall be convicted of both subsections A and B for the same sale.
§ 4.1-1105. Purchasing of marijuana or marijuana products unlawful in certain cases; venue; exceptions; penalties; forfeiture; treatment and education programs and services.
A. No person to whom marijuana or marijuana products may not lawfully be sold under § 4.1-1104 shall consume, purchase, or possess, or attempt to consume, purchase, or possess, any marijuana or marijuana products, except (i) pursuant to § 4.1-700 or (ii) by any federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer or his agent when possession of marijuana or marijuana products is necessary in the performance of his duties. Such person may be prosecuted either in the county or city in which the marijuana or marijuana products were possessed or consumed or in the county or city in which the person exhibits evidence of physical indicia of consumption of marijuana or marijuana products.
B. Any person 18 years of age or older who violates subsection A is subject to a civil penalty of no more than $25 and shall be ordered to enter a substance abuse treatment or education program or both, if available, that in the opinion of the court best suits the needs of the accused.
C. Unless the juvenile is proceeded against informally pursuant to § 16.1-260, any juvenile who violates subsection A is subject to a civil penalty of no more than $25 and the court shall require the accused to enter a substance abuse treatment or education program or both, if available, that in the opinion of the court best suits the needs of the accused. For purposes of §§ 16.1-266, 16.1-273, 16.1-278.8, 16.1-278.8:01, and 16.1-278.9, the court shall treat the juvenile as delinquent.
D. Any such substance abuse treatment or education program to which a juvenile is ordered pursuant to this section shall be provided by (i) a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or (ii) a similar program available through a facility or program operated by or under contract with the Department of Juvenile Justice or a locally operated court services unit or a program funded through the Virginia Juvenile Community Crime Control Act (§ 16.1-309.2 et seq.). Any such substance abuse treatment or education program to which a person 18 years of age or older is ordered pursuant to this section shall be provided by (a) a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or (b) a program or services made available through a community-based probation services agency established pursuant to Article 9 (§ 9.1-173 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 9.1, if one has been established for the locality. When an offender is ordered to a local community-based probation services agency, the local community-based probation services agency shall be responsible for providing for services or referring the offender to education or treatment services as a condition of probation.
E. Any civil penalties collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the Drug Offender Assessment and Treatment Fund established pursuant to § 18.2-251.02. No person younger than 21 years of age shall use or attempt to use any (i) altered, fictitious, facsimile, or simulated license to operate a motor vehicle; (ii) altered, fictitious, facsimile, or simulated document, including a birth certificate or student identification card; or (iii) motor vehicle driver's license or other document issued under Chapter 3 (§ 46.2-300 et seq.) of Title 46.2 or the comparable law of another jurisdiction, birth certificate, or student identification card of another person in order to establish a false identification or false age for himself to consume, purchase, or attempt to consume or purchase marijuana or marijuana products. Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
F. Any marijuana or marijuana product purchased or possessed in violation of this section shall be deemed contraband and forfeited to the Commonwealth in accordance with § 4.1-1303.
G. Any retail marijuana store licensee who in good faith promptly notifies the Board or any state or local law-enforcement agency of a violation or suspected violation of this section shall be accorded immunity from an administrative penalty for a violation of § 4.1-1104.
§ 4.1-1106. Purchasing marijuana or marijuana products for one to whom they may not be sold; penalties; forfeiture.
A. Any person who purchases marijuana or marijuana products for another person and at the time of such purchase knows or has reason to believe that the person for whom the marijuana or marijuana products were purchased was intoxicated is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. Any person who purchases for, or otherwise gives, provides, or assists in the provision of marijuana or marijuana products to, another person when he knows or has reason to know that such person is younger than 21 years of age, except by any federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer when possession of marijuana or marijuana products is necessary in the performance of his duties, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
C. Any marijuana or marijuana products purchased in violation of this section shall be deemed contraband and forfeited to the Commonwealth in accordance with § 4.1-1303.
§ 4.1-1113. Maintaining common nuisances; penalties.
A. All houses, boathouses, buildings, club or fraternity or lodge rooms, boats, cars, and places of every description where marijuana or marijuana products are manufactured, processed, stored, sold, dispensed, given away, or used contrary to law, by any scheme or device whatsoever, shall be deemed common nuisances.
No person shall maintain, aid, abet, or knowingly associate with others in maintaining a common nuisance.
Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. In addition, after due notice and an opportunity to be heard on the part of any owner or lessor not involved in the original offense, by a proceeding analogous to that provided in § 4.1-1303 and upon proof of guilty knowledge, judgment may be given that such house, boathouse, building, boat, car, or other place, or any room or part thereof, be closed. The court may, upon the owner or lessor giving bond in the penalty of not less than $500 and with security to be approved by the court, conditioned that the premises shall not be used for unlawful purposes, or in violation of the provisions of this subtitle for a period of five years, turn the same over to its owner or lessor, or proceeding may be had in equity as provided in § 4.1-1300.
C. In a proceeding under this section, judgment shall not be entered against the owner, lessor, or lienholder of the property unless it is proved that he (i) knew of the unlawful use of the property and (ii) had the right, because of such unlawful use, to enter and repossess the property.
§ 4.1-1114. Maintaining a fortified drug house; penalty.
Any office, store, shop, restaurant, dance hall, theater, poolroom, clubhouse, storehouse, warehouse, dwelling house, apartment, or building or structure of any kind that is (i) substantially altered from its original status by means of reinforcement with the intent to impede, deter, or delay lawful entry by a law-enforcement officer into such structure; (ii) being used for the purpose of illegally manufacturing, processing, or distributing marijuana; and (iii) the object of a valid search warrant shall be considered a fortified drug house. Any person who maintains or operates a fortified drug house is guilty of a Class 5 felony.
§ 4.1-1115. Disobeying subpoena; hindering conduct of hearing; penalty.
No person shall (i) fail or refuse to obey any subpoena issued by the Board, any Board member, or any agent authorized by the Board to issue such subpoena or (ii) hinder the orderly conduct and decorum of any hearing held and conducted by the Board, any Board member, or any agent authorized by the Board to hold and conduct such hearing.
Any person convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 4.1-1117. Delivery of marijuana or marijuana products to prisoners; penalty.
No person shall deliver, or cause to be delivered, to any prisoner in any state, local, or regional correctional facility or any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice in any juvenile correctional center any marijuana or marijuana products.
Any person convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 4.1-1118. Separation of plant resin by butane extraction; penalty.
A. No person shall separate plant resin by butane extraction or another method that utilizes a substance with a flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit in any public place, motor vehicle, or within the curtilage of any residential structure.
B. Any person convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 4.1-1119. Attempts; aiding or abetting; penalty.
No person shall attempt to do any of the things prohibited by this subtitle or to aid or abet another in doing, or attempting to do, any of the things prohibited by this subtitle.
On an indictment, information, or warrant for the violation of this subtitle, the jury or the court may find the defendant guilty of an attempt, or being an accessory, and the punishment shall be the same as if the defendant were solely guilty of such violation.
§ 4.1-1121. Issuance of summonses for certain offenses; civil penalties.
Any violation under this subtitle that is subject to a civil penalty is a civil offense and, except in the case of a violation alleged to have been committed by a juvenile, in which case the juvenile shall be proceeded against pursuant to § 16.1-260, shall be charged by summons. A summons for a violation under this subtitle that is subject to a civil penalty may be executed by a law-enforcement officer when such violation is observed by such officer. The summons used by a law-enforcement officer pursuant to this section shall be in a form the same as the uniform summons for motor vehicle law violations as prescribed pursuant to § 46.2-388. Any civil penalties collected pursuant to this subtitle shall be deposited into the Drug Offender Assessment and Treatment Fund established pursuant to § 18.2-251.02.
CHAPTER 12.
PROHIBITED PRACTICES BY LICENSEES.
§ 4.1-1200. Illegal cultivation, etc., of marijuana or marijuana products by licensees; penalty.
A. No licensee or any agent or employee of such licensee shall:
1. Cultivate, process, transport, sell, or test any marijuana or marijuana products of a kind other than that which such license or this subtitle authorizes him to cultivate, process, transport, sell, or test;
2. Sell marijuana or marijuana products to any person other than a person to whom such license or this subtitle authorizes him to sell;
3. Cultivate, process, transport, sell, or test marijuana or marijuana products that such license or this subtitle authorizes him to sell, but in any place or in any manner other than such license or this subtitle authorizes him to cultivate, process, transport, sell, or test;
4. Cultivate, process, transport, sell, or test any marijuana or marijuana products when forbidden by this subtitle;
5. Keep or allow to be kept, other than in his residence and for his personal use, any marijuana or marijuana products other than that which he is authorized to cultivate, process, transport, sell, or test by such license or by this subtitle;
6. Keep any marijuana or marijuana product other than in the container in which it was purchased by him; or
7. Allow a person younger than 21 years of age to be employed by or volunteer for such licensee.
B. Any person convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 4.1-1201. Prohibited acts by employees of marijuana store licensees; civil penalty.
A. In addition to the provisions of § 4.1-1200, no retail marijuana store licensee or his agent or employee shall use or consume any marijuana or marijuana products (i) on the licensed premises, except for certain sampling for quality control purposes in accordance with Board regulations or (ii) while on duty and in a position that is involved in the selling of marijuana or marijuana products to consumers.
B. No retail marijuana store licensee or his agent or employee shall make any gift of any marijuana or marijuana products.
C. Any person convicted of a violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $500.
§ 4.1-1202. Sale of; purchase for resale; marijuana or marijuana products from a person without a license; penalty.
Except as otherwise provided in § 4.1-805, no retail marijuana store licensee shall purchase for resale or sell any marijuana, marijuana products, immature marijuana plants, or marijuana seeds purchased from anyone other than a marijuana cultivation facility or marijuana processing facility.
Any person convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 4.1-1203. Prohibiting transfer of marijuana or marijuana products by licensees; penalty.
A. No licensed marijuana establishment shall transfer any marijuana or marijuana products from one licensed place of business to another licensed place of business unless such transfer is completed by a marijuana transporter licensee.
B. Any person convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 4.1-1204. Illegal advertising materials; civil penalty.
No person subject to the jurisdiction of the Board shall induce, attempt to induce, or consent to any licensee selling, renting, lending, buying for, or giving to any person any advertising materials or decorations under circumstances prohibited by this title or Board regulations.
Any person found by the Board to have violated this section shall be subject to a civil penalty as authorized in § 4.1-903.
§ 4.1-1205. Failure of licensee to pay tax or to deliver, keep, and preserve records and accounts or to allow examination and inspection; penalty.
A. No licensee shall fail or refuse to (i) pay any tax provided for in § 4.1-1003; (ii) deliver, keep, and preserve such records, invoices, and accounts as are required by § 4.1-703 or Board regulation; or (iii) allow such records, invoices, and accounts or his place of business to be examined and inspected in accordance with § 4.1-703. Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. After reasonable notice to a licensee that failed to make a return or pay taxes due, the Authority may suspend or revoke any license of such licensee that was issued by the Authority.
§ 4.1-1206. Nonpayment of marijuana tax; penalties.
A. No person shall make a sale taxable under § 4.1-1003 without paying all applicable taxes due. No retail marijuana store licensee shall purchase, receive, transport, store, or sell any marijuana or marijuana products on which such retailer has reason to know such tax has not been paid and may not be paid. Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. Any person who fails to file a return required for a tax due under § 4.1-1003 is subject to a civil penalty to be added to the tax in the amount of five percent of the proper tax due if the failure is for not more than 30 days, with an additional five percent for each additional 30 days, or fraction thereof, during which the failure continues. Such civil penalty shall not exceed 25 percent in the aggregate.
C. In the case of a false or fraudulent return, where willful intent exists to defraud the Commonwealth of any tax due on marijuana or marijuana products, a civil penalty of 50 percent of the amount of the proper tax due shall be assessed. Such penalty shall be in addition to any penalty imposed under subsection B. It shall be prima facie evidence of willful intent to defraud the Commonwealth when any person reports its taxable sales to the Authority at 50 percent or less of the actual amount.
D. If any check tendered for any amount due under § 4.1-1003 or this section is not paid by the bank on which it is drawn, and the person that tendered the check fails to pay the Authority the amount due within five days after the Authority gives it notice that such check was returned unpaid, the person that tendered the check is guilty of a violation of § 18.2-182.1.
E. All penalties shall be payable to the Authority and if not so paid shall be collectible in the same manner as if they were a part of the tax imposed.
§ 4.1-1300. Enjoining nuisances.
A. In addition to the penalties imposed by § 4.1-1113, the Board, its special agents, the attorney for the Commonwealth, or any citizen of the county, city, or town where a common nuisance as defined in § 4.1-1113 exists may maintain a suit in equity in the name of the Commonwealth to enjoin the common nuisance.
B. The courts of equity shall have jurisdiction, and in every case where the bill charges, on the knowledge or belief of the complainant, and is sworn to by two reputable citizens, that marijuana or marijuana products are cultivated, processed, stored, sold, dispensed, given away, or used in such house, building, or other place described in § 4.1-1113 contrary to the laws of the Commonwealth, an injunction shall be granted as soon as the bill is presented to the court. The injunction shall enjoin and restrain the owners and tenants and their agents and employees, and any person connected with such house, building, or other place, and all persons whomsoever from cultivating, processing, storing, selling, dispensing, giving away, or using marijuana or marijuana products on such premises. The injunction shall also restrain all persons from removing any marijuana or marijuana products then on such premises until the further order of the court. If the court is satisfied that the material allegations of the bill are true, although the premises complained of may not then be unlawfully used, it shall continue the injunction against such place for a period of time as the court deems proper. The injunction may be dissolved if a proper case is shown for dissolution.
§ 4.1-1301. Contraband marijuana or marijuana products and other articles subject to forfeiture.
A. All apparatus and materials for the cultivation or processing of marijuana or marijuana products, all marijuana or marijuana products and materials used in their manufacture or processing, and all containers in which marijuana or marijuana products may be found that are kept, stored, possessed, or in any manner used in violation of the provisions of this subtitle, and any dangerous weapons as described in § 18.2-308 that may be used or that may be found upon the person, or in any vehicle that such person is using, to aid such person in the unlawful cultivation, manufacture, processing, transportation, or sale of marijuana or marijuana products, or found in the possession of such person, or any horse, mule, or other beast of burden or any wagon, automobile, truck, or vehicle of any nature whatsoever that is found in the immediate vicinity of any place where marijuana or marijuana products are being unlawfully manufactured or processed and where such animal or vehicle is being used to aid in the unlawful manufacture or processing, shall be deemed contraband and shall be forfeited to the Commonwealth.
B. Proceedings for the confiscation of the property in subsection A shall be in accordance with § 4.1-1303 for all such property except motor vehicles, which proceedings shall be in accordance with Chapter 22.1 (§ 19.2-386.1 et seq.) of Title 19.2.
§ 4.1-1303. Confiscation proceedings; disposition of forfeited articles.
A. All proceedings for the confiscation of articles, except motor vehicles, declared contraband and forfeited to the Commonwealth under this subtitle shall be as provided in this section.
B. Whenever any article declared contraband under the provisions of this subtitle and required to be forfeited to the Commonwealth has been seized, with or without a warrant, by any officer charged with the enforcement of this subtitle, he shall produce the contraband article and any person in whose possession it was found. In those cases where no person is found in possession of such articles, the return shall so state and a copy of the warrant shall be posted on the door of the buildings or room where the articles were found, or if there is no door, then in any conspicuous place upon the premises.
In case of seizure of any item for any offense involving its forfeiture where it is impracticable to remove such item to a place of safe storage from the place where seized, the seizing officer may destroy such item only as necessary to prevent use of all or any part thereof. The destruction shall be in the presence of at least one credible witness, and such witness shall join the officer in a sworn report of the seizure and destruction to be made to the Board. The report shall set forth the grounds of the claim of forfeiture, the reasons for seizure and destruction, an estimate of the fair cash value of the item destroyed, and the materials remaining after such destruction. The report shall include a statement that, from facts within their own knowledge, the seizing officer and witness have no doubt whatever that the item was set up for use, or had been used in the unlawful cultivation, processing, or manufacture of marijuana, and that it was impracticable to remove such apparatus to a place of safe storage.
In case of seizure of any quantity of marijuana or marijuana products for any offense involving forfeiture of the same, the seizing officer may destroy them to prevent the use of all or any part thereof for the purpose of unlawful cultivation, processing, or manufacture of marijuana or marijuana products or any other violation of this subtitle. The destruction shall be in the presence of at least one credible witness, and such witness shall join the officer in a sworn report of the seizure and destruction to be made to the Board. The report shall set forth the grounds of the claim of forfeiture, the reasons for seizure and destruction, and a statement that, from facts within their own knowledge, the seizing officer and witness have no doubt whatever that the marijuana or marijuana products were intended for use in the unlawful cultivation, processing, or manufacture of marijuana or marijuana products or were intended for use in violation of this subtitle.
C. Upon the return of the warrant as provided in this section, the court shall fix a time not less than 10 days, unless waived by the accused in writing, and not more than 30 days thereafter, for the hearing on such return to determine whether or not the articles seized, or any part thereof, were used or in any manner kept, stored, or possessed in violation of this subtitle.
At such hearing, if no claimant appears, the court shall declare the articles seized forfeited to the Commonwealth and, if such articles are not necessary as evidence in any pending prosecution, shall turn them over to the Board. Any person claiming an interest in any of the articles seized may appear at the hearing and file a written claim setting forth particularly the character and extent of his interest. The court shall certify the warrant and the articles seized along with any claim filed to the circuit court to hear and determine the validity of such claim.
If the evidence warrants, the court shall enter a judgment of forfeiture and order the articles seized to be turned over to the Board. Action under this section and the forfeiture of any articles hereunder shall not be a bar to any prosecution under any other provision of this subtitle.
D. Any articles forfeited to the Commonwealth and turned over to the Board in accordance with this section shall be destroyed or sold by the Board as it deems proper. The net proceeds from such sales shall be paid into the Literary Fund.
If the Board believes that any foodstuffs forfeited to the Commonwealth and turned over to the Board in accordance with this section are usable, should not be destroyed, and cannot be sold, or whose sale would be impractical, it may give such foodstuffs to any institution in the Commonwealth and shall prefer a gift to the local jail or other local correctional facility in the jurisdiction where seizure took place. A record shall be made showing the nature of the foodstuffs and amount given, to whom given, and the date when given and shall be kept in the offices of the Board.
§ 4.1-1304. Contraband marijuana or marijuana products.
Failure to maintain on a conveyance or vehicle a permit or other indicia of permission issued by the Board authorizing the transportation of marijuana or marijuana products within the Commonwealth when other Board regulations applicable to such transportation have been complied with shall not be cause for deeming such marijuana or marijuana products contraband.
§ 4.1-1305. Punishment for violations of title or regulations; bond.
A. Any person convicted of a misdemeanor under the provisions of this subtitle without specification as to the class of offense or penalty, or convicted of violating any other provision thereof, or convicted of violating any Board regulation is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. In addition to the penalties imposed by this subtitle for violations, any court before whom any person is convicted of a violation of any provision of this subtitle may require such defendant to execute bond based upon his ability to pay, with approved security, in the penalty of not more than $1,000, with the condition that the defendant will not violate any of the provisions of this subtitle for the term of one year. If any such bond is required and is not given, the defendant shall be committed to jail until it is given, or until he is discharged by the court, provided that he shall not be confined for a period longer than six months. If any such bond required by a court is not given during the term of the court by which conviction is had, it may be given before any judge or before the clerk of such court.
C. The provisions of this subtitle shall not prevent the Board from suspending, revoking, or refusing to continue the license of any person convicted of a violation of any provision of this subtitle.
D. No court shall hear such a case unless the respective attorney for the Commonwealth or his assistant has been notified that such a case is pending.
§ 4.1-1306. Witness not excused from testifying because of self-incrimination.
No person shall be excused from testifying or from producing books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, or other records for the Commonwealth as to any offense alleged to have been committed by another under this subtitle by reason of his testimony or other evidence tending to incriminate himself, but the testimony given and evidence so produced by such person on behalf of the Commonwealth when called for by the trial judge or court trying the case, or by the attorney for the Commonwealth, or when summoned by the Commonwealth and sworn as a witness by the court or the clerk and sent before the grand jury, shall be in no case used against him nor shall he be prosecuted as to the offense as to which he testifies.
§ 4.1-1307. Previous convictions.
In any indictment, information, or warrant charging any person with a violation of any provision of this subtitle, it may be alleged and evidence may be introduced at the trial of such person to prove that such person has been previously convicted of a violation of this subtitle.
§ 4.1-1308. Label on sealed container prima facie evidence of marijuana content.
In any prosecution for violations of this subtitle, where a sealed container is labeled as containing marijuana or marijuana products, such labeling shall be prima facie evidence of the marijuana content of the container. Nothing shall preclude the introduction of other relevant evidence to establish the marijuana content of a container, whether sealed or not.
§ 4.1-1309. No recovery for marijuana or marijuana products illegally sold.
No action to recover the price of any marijuana or marijuana products sold in contravention of this subtitle may be maintained.
§ 4.1-1403. Board to establish regulations for marijuana testing.
The Board shall establish a testing program for marijuana and marijuana products. Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle or otherwise provided by law, the program shall require a licensee, prior to selling or distributing marijuana or a marijuana product to a consumer or to another licensee, to submit a representative sample of the marijuana or marijuana product, not to exceed 10 percent of the total harvest or batch, to a licensed marijuana testing facility for testing to ensure that the marijuana or marijuana product does not exceed the maximum level of allowable contamination for any contaminant that is injurious to health and for which testing is required and to ensure correct labeling. The Board shall adopt regulations (i) establishing a testing program pursuant to this section; (ii) establishing acceptable testing and research practices, including regulations relating to testing practices, methods, and standards; quality control analysis; equipment certification and calibration; marijuana testing facility recordkeeping, documentation, and business practices; disposal of used, unused, and waste marijuana and marijuana products; and reporting of test results; (iii) identifying the types of contaminants that are injurious to health for which marijuana and marijuana products shall be tested under this subtitle; and (iv) establishing the maximum level of allowable contamination for each contaminant.
§ 4.1-1404. Mandatory testing; scope; recordkeeping; notification; additional testing not required; required destruction; random testing.
A. A licensee may not sell or distribute marijuana or a marijuana product to a consumer or to another licensee under this subtitle unless a representative sample of the marijuana or marijuana product has been tested pursuant to this subtitle and the regulations adopted pursuant to this subtitle and the mandatory testing has demonstrated that (i) the marijuana or marijuana product does not exceed the maximum level of allowable contamination for any contaminant that is injurious to health and for which testing is required and (ii) the labeling on the marijuana or marijuana product is correct.
B. Mandatory testing of marijuana and marijuana products under this section shall include testing for:
1. Residual solvents;
2. Heavy metals;
3. Microbiological contaminants;
4. Mycotoxins;
5. Pesticide chemical residue; and
6. Active ingredient analysis.
Testing shall be performed on the final form in which the marijuana or marijuana product will be consumed.
C. A licensee shall maintain a record of all mandatory testing that includes a description of the marijuana or marijuana product provided to the marijuana testing facility, the identity of the marijuana testing facility, and the results of the mandatory test.
D. If the results of a mandatory test conducted pursuant to this section indicate that the tested marijuana or marijuana product exceeds the maximum level of allowable tetrahydrocannabinol or contamination for any contaminant that is injurious to health and for which testing is required, the marijuana testing facility shall immediately quarantine, document, and properly destroy the marijuana or marijuana product and within seven days of completing the test shall notify the Board of the test results.
A marijuana testing facility is not required to notify the Board of the results of any test:
1. Conducted on marijuana or a marijuana product at the direction of a licensee pursuant to this section that demonstrates that the marijuana or marijuana product does not exceed the maximum level of allowable tetrahydrocannabinol or contamination for any contaminant that is injurious to health and for which testing is required;
2. Conducted on marijuana or a marijuana product at the direction of a licensee for research and development purposes only, so long as the licensee notifies the marijuana testing facility prior to the performance of the test that the testing is for research and development purposes only; or
3. Conducted on marijuana or a marijuana product at the direction of a person who is not a licensee.
E. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a licensee may sell or furnish to a consumer or to another licensee marijuana or a marijuana product that the licensee has not submitted for testing in accordance with this subtitle and regulations adopted pursuant to this subtitle if the following conditions are met:
1. The marijuana or marijuana product has previously undergone testing in accordance with this subtitle and regulations adopted pursuant to this subtitle at the direction of another licensee and the testing demonstrated that the marijuana or marijuana product does not exceed the maximum level of allowable tetrahydrocannabinol or contamination for any contaminant that is injurious to health and for which testing is required;
2. The mandatory testing process and the test results for the marijuana or marijuana product are documented in accordance with the requirements of this subtitle and all applicable regulations adopted pursuant to this subtitle;
3. Tracking from immature marijuana plant to the point of retail sale has been maintained for the marijuana or marijuana product and transfers of the marijuana or marijuana product to another licensee or to a consumer can be easily identified; and
4. The marijuana or marijuana product has not undergone any further processing, manufacturing, or alteration subsequent to the performance of the prior testing under subsection A.
F. Licensees shall be required to destroy harvested batches of marijuana or batches of marijuana products whose testing samples indicate noncompliance with the health and safety standards required by this subtitle and the regulations adopted by the Board pursuant to this subtitle, unless remedial measures can bring the marijuana or marijuana product into compliance with such required health and safety standards.
G. A licensee shall comply with all requests for samples of marijuana and marijuana products for the purpose of random testing by a state-owned laboratory or state-approved private laboratory.
§ 4.1-1405. Labeling and packaging requirements; prohibitions.
A. Marijuana and marijuana products to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer shall be labeled with the following information:
1. Identification of the type of marijuana or marijuana product;
2. The license numbers of the marijuana cultivation facility, the marijuana processing facility, and the retail marijuana store where the marijuana or marijuana product was cultivated, processed, and offered for sale, as applicable;
3. A statement of the net weight of the marijuana or marijuana product;
4. In English and in a font no less than 1/16 of an inch, information concerning (i) all ingredients, including pharmacologically active ingredients, tetrahydrocannabinol, cannabidiol, and other cannabinoid content; (ii) all possible allergens; (iii) the amount of servings in the package; (iv) if the product contains tetrahydrocannabinol, the total percentage and milligrams of all tetrahydrocannabinols included in the package and the total number of milligrams of all tetrahydrocannabinols contained in each serving; and (v) the potency of the tetrahydrocannabinol and other cannabinoid content;
5. Information on gases, solvents, and chemicals used in marijuana extraction, if applicable;
6. Instructions on usage, including information regarding the amount of marijuana or marijuana product that constitutes a single serving;
7. A recommended use by date or expiration date;
8. For marijuana and marijuana products, the following statement, prominently displayed in bold print and in a clear and legible fashion: "GOVERNMENT WARNING: THIS PACKAGE CONTAINS MARIJUANA AND TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL (THC). MARIJUANA MAY ONLY BE SOLD TO AND USED BY ADULTS 21 YEARS OF AGE OR OLDER. KEEP OUT OF REACH OF CHILDREN. CONSUMPTION OF MARIJUANA IMPAIRS COGNITION AND YOUR ABILITY TO DRIVE AND MAY BE HABIT-FORMING. MARIJUANA SHOULD NOT BE USED WHILE PREGNANT OR BREASTFEEDING. PLEASE USE CAUTION AND VISIT ________ (website maintained by the Board pursuant to § 4.1-604) FOR MORE INFORMATION.";
9. A universal symbol stamped or embossed on the packaging of any marijuana and marijuana products;
10. A certificate of analysis, produced by licensed marijuana testing facility, that states the total tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of the substance or the total tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of the batch from which the substance originates; and
11. Any other information required by Board regulations.
B. Marijuana and marijuana products to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer in accordance with the provisions of this subtitle shall be packaged in the following manner:
1. Marijuana and marijuana products shall be prepackaged in child-resistant, tamper-evident, and resealable packaging that is opaque or shall be placed at the final point of sale to a consumer in child-resistant, tamper-evident, and resealable packaging that is opaque;
2. Packaging for multiserving liquid marijuana products shall include an integral measurement component; and
3. Packaging shall comply with any other requirements imposed by Board regulations.
C. Marijuana and marijuana products to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer in accordance with the provisions of this subtitle shall not:
1. (i) Without authorization, bear, be packaged in a container or wrapper that bears, or otherwise be labeled to bear the trademark, trade name, famous mark as defined in 15 U.S.C. § 1125, or other identifying mark, imprint, or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor of a product intended for human consumption other than the manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor that did in fact so manufacture, process, pack, or distribute such substance or (ii) otherwise be packaged or labeled in violation of a federal trademark law or regulation;
2. Be labeled or packaged in a manner that appeals particularly to persons younger than 21 years of age;
3. Be labeled or packaged in a manner that obscures identifying information on the label;
4. Be labeled or packaged using a false or misleading label;
5. Depict, model the shape of, or use a label or package that depicts or models the shape of a human, animal, vehicle, or fruit; and
6. Be labeled or packaged in violation of any other labeling or packaging requirements imposed by Board regulations.
§ 4.1-1406. Other health and safety requirements for edible marijuana products and other marijuana products deemed applicable by the Authority; health and safety regulations.
A. In addition to all other applicable provisions of this subtitle, edible marijuana products and other marijuana products deemed applicable by the Authority to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer:
1. Shall be processed and manufactured by an approved source, as determined by § 3.2-5145.3;
2. Shall comply with the provisions of Chapter 51 (§ 3.2-5100 et seq.) of Title 3.2;
3. Shall be processed and manufactured in a manner that results in the cannabinoid content within the product being homogeneous throughout the product or throughout each element of the product that has a cannabinoid content;
4. Shall be processed and manufactured in a manner that results in the amount of marijuana concentrate within the product being homogeneous throughout the product or throughout each element of the product that contains marijuana concentrate;
5. Shall have a universal symbol stamped or embossed on the packaging of each product;
6. Shall not contain more than 10 milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol per serving of the product and shall not contain more than 100 milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol per package of the product;
7. Shall not contain additives that (i) are toxic or harmful to human beings, (ii) are specifically designed to make the product more addictive, (iii) contain alcohol or nicotine, (iv) are misleading to consumers, or (v) are specifically designed to make the product appeal particularly to persons younger than 21 years of age; and
8. Shall not involve the addition of marijuana to a trademarked food or drink product, except when the trademarked product is used as a component of or ingredient in the edible marijuana product and the edible marijuana product is not advertised or described for sale as containing the trademarked product.
B. The Board shall adopt any additional labeling, packaging, or other health and safety regulations that it deems necessary for marijuana and marijuana products to be sold or offered for sale by a licensee to a consumer in accordance with this subtitle. Regulations adopted pursuant to this subsection shall establish mandatory health and safety standards applicable to the cultivation of marijuana, the processing and manufacture of marijuana products, and the packaging and labeling of marijuana and marijuana products sold by a licensee to a consumer. Such regulations shall address:
1. Requirements for the storage, warehousing, and transportation of marijuana and marijuana products by licensees;
2. Sanitary standards for marijuana establishments, including sanitary standards for the processing and manufacture of marijuana and marijuana products; and
3. Limitations on the display of marijuana and marijuana products at retail marijuana stores.
§ 4.1-1500. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"CDFI" means a community development financial institution that provides credit and financial services for underserved communities.
"Fund" means the Virginia Cannabis Equity Business Loan Fund established in § 4.1-1501.
"Funding" means loans and grants made from the Fund.
"Program" means the Virginia Cannabis Equity Business Loan Program established in § 4.1-1502.
"Social equity qualifiedMicro business cannabis licensee" means a person or business who meets the criteria in § 4.1-606 to qualify as a social equity micro business applicant and who either holds or is in the final stages of acquiring, as determined by the Board, a license to operate a marijuana establishment.
§ 4.1-1501. Virginia Cannabis Equity Business Loan Fund.
There is hereby created in the state treasury a special nonreverting fund to be known as the Virginia Cannabis Equity Business Loan Fund, referred to in this section as "the Fund." The Fund shall be established on the books of the Comptroller. All funds appropriated for such purpose and any gifts, donations, grants, bequests, and other funds received on its behalf shall be paid into the state treasury and credited to the Fund. Interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall remain in the Fund and be credited to it. Any moneys remaining in the Fund, including interest thereon, at the end of each fiscal year shall not revert to the general fund but shall remain in the Fund. Moneys in the Fund shall be used solely for the purposes of providing grants, low-interest and loans, zero-interest loans, and other supports and services to social equity qualified cannabis micro business licensees in order to foster business ownership and economic growth within communities that have been the most disproportionately impacted by the former prohibition of cannabis. Expenditures and disbursements from the Fund shall be made by the State Treasurer on warrants issued by the Comptroller upon written request signed by the Chief Executive Officer of the Authority.
§ 4.1-1502. Program requirements; guidelines for management of the Fund; selection of CDFI.
A. The Authority shall establish a Program to provide loans, grants, and other supports and services to qualified social equity cannabis micro business licensees for the purpose of promoting business ownership and economic growth by communities that have been disproportionately impacted by the prohibition of cannabis. The For the purposes of issuing loans, the Authority shall may select and work in collaboration with a CDFI to assist in administering the Program and carrying out the purposes of the Fund. The If the Authority utilizes a CDFI for issuing loans, the CDFI selected by the Authority shall have (i) a statewide presence in Virginia, (ii) experience in business lending, (iii) a proven track record of working with disadvantaged communities, and (iv) the capability to dedicate sufficient staff to manage the Program. Working with the selected CDFI, the The Authority shall establish monitoring and accountability mechanisms for micro businesses receiving funding and shall report annually the number of businesses funded; the geographic distribution of the businesses; the costs of the Program; and the outcomes, including the number and types of jobs created.
B. The Program shall:
1. Identify social equity qualified cannabis micro business licensees who are in need of capital or other supports and services for the start-up of a cannabis business properly licensed pursuant to the provisions of this subtitle;
2. Provide loans, grants, and other supports and services for the purposes described in subsection A and § 4.1-1501;
3. Provide technical assistance; and
4. Bring together community partners to sustain the Program.
§ 4.1-1601. Certification for use of cannabis for treatment.
A. A practitioner in the course of his professional practice may issue a written certification for the use of cannabis products for treatment or to alleviate the symptoms of any diagnosed condition or disease determined by the practitioner to benefit from such use. The practitioner shall use his professional judgment to determine the manner and frequency of patient care and evaluation and may employ the use of telemedicine, provided that the use of telemedicine includes the delivery of patient care through real-time interactive audiovisual technology. No practitioner may issue a written certification while such practitioner is on the premises of a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility. A pharmaceutical processor shall not endorse or promote any practitioner who issues certifications to patients. If a practitioner determines it is consistent with the standard of care to dispense botanical cannabis to a minor, the written certification shall specifically authorize such dispensing. If not specifically included on the initial written certification, authorization for botanical cannabis may be communicated verbally or in writing to the pharmacist at the time of dispensing. A practitioner who issues written certifications shall not directly or indirectly accept, solicit, or receive anything of value from a pharmaceutical processor, cannabis dispensing facility, or any person associated with a pharmaceutical processor, cannabis dispensing facility, or provider of paraphernalia, excluding information on products or educational materials on the benefits and risks of cannabis products.
B. The written certification shall be on a form provided by the Authority. Such written certification shall contain the name, address, and telephone number of the practitioner, the name and address of the patient issued the written certification, the date on which the written certification was made, and the signature or authentic electronic signature of the practitioner. Such written certification issued pursuant to subsection A shall expire one year after its issuance unless the practitioner provides in such written certification an earlier expiration. A written certification shall not be issued to a patient by more than one practitioner during any given time period.
C. No practitioner shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) or § 18.2-248 or 18.2-248.1 for the issuance of a certification for the use of cannabis products for the treatment or to alleviate the symptoms of a patient's diagnosed condition or disease pursuant to a written certification issued pursuant to subsection A. Nothing in this section shall preclude a practitioner's professional licensing board from sanctioning the practitioner for failing to properly evaluate or treat a patient's medical condition or otherwise violating the applicable standard of care for evaluating or treating medical conditions.
D. A practitioner who issues a written certification to a patient pursuant to this section (i) shall hold sufficient education and training to exercise appropriate professional judgment in the certification of patients; (ii) shall not offer a discount or any other thing of value to a patient or a patient's parent, guardian, or registered agent that is contingent on or encourages the person's decision to use a particular pharmaceutical processor or cannabis product; (iii) shall not issue a certification to himself or his family members, employees, or coworkers; (iv) shall not provide product samples containing cannabis other than those approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration; and (v) shall not accept compensation from a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility. The Board shall not limit the number of patients to whom a practitioner may issue a written certification. The Board may report information to the applicable licensing board on unusual patterns of certifications issued by a practitioner.
E. No patient shall be required to physically present the written certification after the initial dispensing by any pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility under each written certification, provided that the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility maintains an electronic copy of the written certification. Pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities shall electronically transmit on a monthly basis all new written certifications received by the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility to the Authority.
F. A patient, or, if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, such patient's parent or legal guardian, may designate an individual to act as his registered agent for the purposes of receiving cannabis products pursuant to a valid written certification. Such designated individual shall register with the Board unless the individual's name listed on the patient's written certification. An individual may, on the basis of medical need and in the discretion of the patient's registered practitioner, be listed on the patient's written certification upon the patient's request. The Board may set a limit on the number of patients for whom any individual is authorized to act as a registered agent.
G. Upon delivery of a cannabis product by a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility to a designated caregiver facility, any employee or contractor of a designated caregiver facility who is licensed or registered by a health regulatory board and who is authorized to possess, distribute, or administer medications may accept delivery of the cannabis product on behalf of a patient or resident for subsequent delivery to the patient or resident and may assist in the administration of the cannabis product to the patient or resident as necessary.
H. Information obtained under the patient certification or agent registration process shall be confidential and shall not be subject to the disclosure provisions of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.). However, reasonable access to registry information shall be provided to (i) the Chairmen of the House and Senate Committees for Courts of Justice, (ii) state and federal agencies or local law enforcement for the purpose of investigating or prosecuting a specific individual for a specific violation of law, (iii) licensed practitioners or pharmacists, or their agents, for the purpose of providing patient care and drug therapy management and monitoring of drugs obtained by a patient, (iv) a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility involved in the treatment of a patient, or (v) a patient's registered agent, but only with respect to information related to such patient.
§ 4.1-1604. Criminal liability; exceptions.
No agent or employee of a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for possession or manufacture of marijuana or for possession, manufacture, or distribution of cannabis products, subject to any civil penalty, denied any right or privilege, or subject to any disciplinary action by a professional licensing board if such agent or employee (i) possessed or manufactured such marijuana for the purposes of producing cannabis products in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and Board regulations or (ii) possessed, manufactured, or distributed such cannabis products that are consistent with generally accepted cannabis industry standards in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and Board regulations.
§ 5.1-13. Operation of aircraft while under influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs; reckless operation.
Any person who shall operate operates any aircraft within the airspace over, above, or upon the lands or waters of this the Commonwealth, while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or of any narcotic or marijuana or any habit-forming drugs shall be is guilty of a felony and shall be confined in a state correctional facility not less than one nor more than five years, or, in the discretion of the court or jury trying the case, be confined in jail not exceeding twelve 12 months and fined not exceeding $500, or both such fine and imprisonment.
Any person who shall operate operates any aircraft within the airspace over, above, or upon the lands or waters of this the Commonwealth carelessly or heedlessly in willful or wanton disregard of the rights or safety of others, or without due caution and circumspection and in a manner so as to endanger any person or property, shall be is guilty of a misdemeanor.
§ 6.2-107.1. Financial services for licensed marijuana establishments.
A. As used in this section, "licensed" has the same meaning as provided in § 4.1-600 and "marijuana establishment" has the same meaning as provided in § 4.1-100.
B. A bank or credit union that provides a financial service to a licensed marijuana establishment, and the officers, directors, and employees of that bank or credit union, shall not be held liable pursuant to any state law or regulation solely for providing such a financial service or for further investing any income derived from such a financial service.
C. Nothing in this section shall require a bank or credit union to provide financial services to a licensed marijuana establishment.
§ 9.1-101. (Effective July 1, 2026) Definitions.
As used in this chapter or in Chapter 23 (§ 19.2-387 et seq.) of Title 19.2, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Administration of criminal justice" means performance of any activity directly involving the detection, apprehension, detention, pretrial release, post-trial release, prosecution, adjudication, correctional supervision, or rehabilitation of accused persons or criminal offenders or the collection, storage, and dissemination of criminal history record information.
"Board" means the Criminal Justice Services Board.
"Conviction data" means information in the custody of any criminal justice agency relating to a judgment of conviction, and the consequences arising therefrom, in any court.
"Correctional status information" means records and data concerning each condition of a convicted person's custodial status, including probation, confinement, work release, study release, escape, or termination of custody through expiration of sentence, parole, pardon, or court decision.
"Criminal history record information" means records and data collected by criminal justice agencies on adult individuals consisting of identifiable descriptions and notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, or other formal charges, and any disposition arising therefrom. The term shall not include juvenile record information which is controlled by Chapter 11 (§ 16.1-226 et seq.) of Title 16.1, criminal justice intelligence information, criminal justice investigative information, or correctional status information.
"Criminal justice agency" means (i) a court or any other governmental agency or subunit thereof which as its principal function performs the administration of criminal justice and any other agency or subunit thereof which performs criminal justice activities, but only to the extent that it does so; (ii) for the purposes of Chapter 23 (§ 19.2-387 et seq.) of Title 19.2, any private corporation or agency which, within the context of its criminal justice activities, employs special conservators of the peace appointed under Chapter 2 (§ 19.2-12 et seq.) of Title 19.2, provided that (a) such private corporation or agency requires its officers or special conservators to meet compulsory training standards established by the Criminal Justice Services Board and submits reports of compliance with the training standards and (b) the private corporation or agency complies with the provisions of Article 3 (§ 9.1-126 et seq.), but only to the extent that the private corporation or agency so designated as a criminal justice agency performs criminal justice activities; and (iii) the Office of the Attorney General, for all criminal justice activities otherwise permitted under clause (i) and for the purpose of performing duties required by the Civil Commitment of Sexually Violent Predators Act (§ 37.2-900 et seq.).
"Criminal justice agency" includes any program certified by the Commission on VASAP pursuant to § 18.2-271.2.
"Criminal justice agency" includes the Department of Criminal Justice Services.
"Criminal justice agency" includes the Virginia Criminal Sentencing Commission.
"Criminal justice agency" includes the Virginia State Crime Commission.
"Criminal justice information system" means a system including the equipment, facilities, procedures, agreements, and organizations thereof, for the collection, processing, preservation, or dissemination of criminal history record information. The operations of the system may be performed manually or by using electronic computers or other automated data processing equipment.
"Department" means the Department of Criminal Justice Services.
"Dissemination" means any transfer of information, whether orally, in writing, or by electronic means. The term shall not include access to the information by officers or employees of a criminal justice agency maintaining the information who have both a need and right to know the information.
"Law-enforcement officer" means any full-time or part-time employee of a police department or sheriff's office which is a part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof, or any full-time or part-time employee of a private police department, and who is responsible for the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the penal, traffic or highway laws of the Commonwealth, and shall include any (i) special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority; (ii) police agent appointed under the provisions of § 56-353; (iii) officer of the Virginia Marine Police; (iv) conservation police officer who is a full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Wildlife Resources; (v) investigator who is a sworn member of the security division of the Virginia Lottery; (vi) conservation officer of the Department of Conservation and Recreation commissioned pursuant to § 10.1-115; (vii) full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles appointed pursuant to § 46.2-217; (viii) animal protection police officer employed under § 15.2-632 or 15.2-836.1; (ix) campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1; (x) member of the investigations unit designated by the State Inspector General pursuant to § 2.2-311 to investigate allegations of criminal behavior affecting the operations of a state or nonstate agency; (xi) employee with internal investigations authority designated by the Department of Corrections pursuant to subdivision 11 of § 53.1-10 or by the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to subdivision A 7 of § 66-3; (xii) private police officer employed by a private police department; or (xiii) person designated as a sworn unit investigator by the Attorney General pursuant to subsection A of § 32.1-320.1. Part-time employees are those compensated officers who are not full-time employees as defined by the employing police department, sheriff's office, or private police department.
"Private police department" means any police department, other than a department that employs police agents under the provisions of § 56-353, that employs private police officers operated by an entity authorized by statute or an act of assembly to establish a private police department or such entity's successor in interest, provided it complies with the requirements set forth herein. No entity is authorized to operate a private police department or represent that it is a private police department unless such entity has been authorized by statute or an act of assembly or such entity is the successor in interest of an entity that has been authorized pursuant to this section, provided it complies with the requirements set forth herein. The authority of a private police department shall be limited to real property owned, leased, or controlled by the entity and, if approved by the local chief of police or sheriff, any contiguous property; such authority shall not supersede the authority, duties, or jurisdiction vested by law with the local police department or sheriff's office including as provided in §§ 15.2-1609 and 15.2-1704. The chief of police or sheriff who is the chief local law-enforcement officer shall enter into a memorandum of understanding with the private police department that addresses the duties and responsibilities of the private police department and the chief law-enforcement officer in the conduct of criminal investigations. Private police departments and private police officers shall be subject to and comply with the Constitution of the United States; the Constitution of Virginia; the laws governing municipal police departments, including the provisions of §§ 9.1-600, 15.2-1705 through 15.2-1708, 15.2-1719, 15.2-1721, 15.2-1721.1, and 15.2-1722; and any regulations adopted by the Board that the Department designates as applicable to private police departments. An authorized private police department may use the word "police" to describe its sworn officers and may join a regional criminal justice academy created pursuant to Article 5 (§ 15.2-1747 et seq.) of Chapter 17 of Title 15.2. Any private police department in existence on January 1, 2013, that was not otherwise established by statute or an act of assembly and whose status as a private police department was recognized by the Department at that time is hereby validated and may continue to operate as a private police department as may such entity's successor in interest, provided it complies with the requirements set forth herein.
"Private police officer" means a law-enforcement officer who is employed by a private police department that has entered into a memorandum of understanding with a police department or sheriff's office and who may exercise the power and duties conferred by law upon such police officers on real property owned, leased, or controlled by the employing entity and, if approved by the local chief of police or sheriff, any contiguous property. Any person employed as a private police officer pursuant to this section shall meet all requirements, including the minimum compulsory training requirements, for law-enforcement officers pursuant to this chapter. A private police officer is not entitled to benefits under the Virginia Retirement System, is not a "qualified law enforcement officer" or "qualified retired law enforcement officer" within the meaning of the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act, 18 U.S.C. § 926B et seq., and shall not be deemed an employee of the Commonwealth or any locality.
"School resource officer" means a certified law-enforcement officer hired by the local law-enforcement agency to provide law-enforcement and security services to Virginia public elementary and secondary schools.
"School security officer" means an individual who is employed by the local school board or a private or religious school for the singular purpose of maintaining order and discipline, preventing crime, investigating violations of the policies of the school board or the private or religious school, and detaining students violating the law or the policies of the school board or the private or religious school on school property, school buses, or at school-sponsored events and who is responsible solely for ensuring the safety, security, and welfare of all students, faculty, staff, and visitors in the assigned school.
"Sealing" means to prohibit public access to records relating to an arrest, charge, or conviction, including any ancillary matter ordered to be sealed, in the possession of (i) the Central Criminal Records Exchange; (ii) any court; (iii) any police department, sheriff's office, or campus police department; or (iv) the Department of Motor Vehicles unless dissemination is authorized for one or more of the purposes set forth in § 19.2-392.13 and pursuant to the rules and regulations adopted pursuant to § 9.1-128 and the procedures adopted pursuant to § 9.1-134.
"Unapplied criminal history record information" means information pertaining to criminal offenses submitted to the Central Criminal Records Exchange that cannot be applied to the criminal history record of an arrested or convicted person (i) because such information is not supported by fingerprints or other accepted means of positive identification or (ii) due to an inconsistency, error, or omission within the content of the submitted information.
§ 9.1-101. (Effective until July 1, 2026) Definitions.
As used in this chapter or in Chapter 23 (§ 19.2-387 et seq.) of Title 19.2, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Administration of criminal justice" means performance of any activity directly involving the detection, apprehension, detention, pretrial release, post-trial release, prosecution, adjudication, correctional supervision, or rehabilitation of accused persons or criminal offenders or the collection, storage, and dissemination of criminal history record information.
"Board" means the Criminal Justice Services Board.
"Conviction data" means information in the custody of any criminal justice agency relating to a judgment of conviction, and the consequences arising therefrom, in any court.
"Correctional status information" means records and data concerning each condition of a convicted person's custodial status, including probation, confinement, work release, study release, escape, or termination of custody through expiration of sentence, parole, pardon, or court decision.
"Criminal history record information" means records and data collected by criminal justice agencies on adult individuals consisting of identifiable descriptions and notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, or other formal charges, and any disposition arising therefrom. The term shall not include juvenile record information which is controlled by Chapter 11 (§ 16.1-226 et seq.) of Title 16.1, criminal justice intelligence information, criminal justice investigative information, or correctional status information.
"Criminal justice agency" means (i) a court or any other governmental agency or subunit thereof which as its principal function performs the administration of criminal justice and any other agency or subunit thereof which performs criminal justice activities, but only to the extent that it does so; (ii) for the purposes of Chapter 23 (§ 19.2-387 et seq.) of Title 19.2, any private corporation or agency which, within the context of its criminal justice activities, employs special conservators of the peace appointed under Chapter 2 (§ 19.2-12 et seq.) of Title 19.2, provided that (a) such private corporation or agency requires its officers or special conservators to meet compulsory training standards established by the Criminal Justice Services Board and submits reports of compliance with the training standards and (b) the private corporation or agency complies with the provisions of Article 3 (§ 9.1-126 et seq.), but only to the extent that the private corporation or agency so designated as a criminal justice agency performs criminal justice activities; and (iii) the Office of the Attorney General, for all criminal justice activities otherwise permitted under clause (i) and for the purpose of performing duties required by the Civil Commitment of Sexually Violent Predators Act (§ 37.2-900 et seq.).
"Criminal justice agency" includes any program certified by the Commission on VASAP pursuant to § 18.2-271.2.
"Criminal justice agency" includes the Department of Criminal Justice Services.
"Criminal justice agency" includes the Virginia Criminal Sentencing Commission.
"Criminal justice agency" includes the Virginia State Crime Commission.
"Criminal justice information system" means a system including the equipment, facilities, procedures, agreements, and organizations thereof, for the collection, processing, preservation, or dissemination of criminal history record information. The operations of the system may be performed manually or by using electronic computers or other automated data processing equipment.
"Department" means the Department of Criminal Justice Services.
"Dissemination" means any transfer of information, whether orally, in writing, or by electronic means. The term shall not include access to the information by officers or employees of a criminal justice agency maintaining the information who have both a need and right to know the information.
"Law-enforcement officer" means any full-time or part-time employee of a police department or sheriff's office which is a part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof, or any full-time or part-time employee of a private police department, and who is responsible for the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the penal, traffic or highway laws of the Commonwealth, and shall include any (i) special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority; (ii) police agent appointed under the provisions of § 56-353; (iii) officer of the Virginia Marine Police; (iv) conservation police officer who is a full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Wildlife Resources; (v) investigator who is a sworn member of the security division of the Virginia Lottery; (vi) conservation officer of the Department of Conservation and Recreation commissioned pursuant to § 10.1-115; (vii) full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles appointed pursuant to § 46.2-217; (viii) animal protection police officer employed under § 15.2-632 or 15.2-836.1; (ix) campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1; (x) member of the investigations unit designated by the State Inspector General pursuant to § 2.2-311 to investigate allegations of criminal behavior affecting the operations of a state or nonstate agency; (xi) employee with internal investigations authority designated by the Department of Corrections pursuant to subdivision 11 of § 53.1-10 or by the Department of Juvenile Justice pursuant to subdivision A 7 of § 66-3; (xii) private police officer employed by a private police department; or (xiii) person designated as a sworn unit investigator by the Attorney General pursuant to subsection A of § 32.1-320.1. Part-time employees are those compensated officers who are not full-time employees as defined by the employing police department, sheriff's office, or private police department.
"Private police department" means any police department, other than a department that employs police agents under the provisions of § 56-353, that employs private police officers operated by an entity authorized by statute or an act of assembly to establish a private police department or such entity's successor in interest, provided it complies with the requirements set forth herein. No entity is authorized to operate a private police department or represent that it is a private police department unless such entity has been authorized by statute or an act of assembly or such entity is the successor in interest of an entity that has been authorized pursuant to this section, provided it complies with the requirements set forth herein. The authority of a private police department shall be limited to real property owned, leased, or controlled by the entity and, if approved by the local chief of police or sheriff, any contiguous property; such authority shall not supersede the authority, duties, or jurisdiction vested by law with the local police department or sheriff's office including as provided in §§ 15.2-1609 and 15.2-1704. The chief of police or sheriff who is the chief local law-enforcement officer shall enter into a memorandum of understanding with the private police department that addresses the duties and responsibilities of the private police department and the chief law-enforcement officer in the conduct of criminal investigations. Private police departments and private police officers shall be subject to and comply with the Constitution of the United States; the Constitution of Virginia; the laws governing municipal police departments, including the provisions of §§ 9.1-600, 15.2-1705 through 15.2-1708, 15.2-1719, 15.2-1721, 15.2-1721.1, and 15.2-1722; and any regulations adopted by the Board that the Department designates as applicable to private police departments. An authorized private police department may use the word "police" to describe its sworn officers and may join a regional criminal justice academy created pursuant to Article 5 (§ 15.2-1747 et seq.) of Chapter 17 of Title 15.2. Any private police department in existence on January 1, 2013, that was not otherwise established by statute or an act of assembly and whose status as a private police department was recognized by the Department at that time is hereby validated and may continue to operate as a private police department as may such entity's successor in interest, provided it complies with the requirements set forth herein.
"Private police officer" means a law-enforcement officer who is employed by a private police department that has entered into a memorandum of understanding with a police department or sheriff's office and who may exercise the power and duties conferred by law upon such police officers on real property owned, leased, or controlled by the employing entity and, if approved by the local chief of police or sheriff, any contiguous property. Any person employed as a private police officer pursuant to this section shall meet all requirements, including the minimum compulsory training requirements, for law-enforcement officers pursuant to this chapter. A private police officer is not entitled to benefits under the Virginia Retirement System, is not a "qualified law enforcement officer" or "qualified retired law enforcement officer" within the meaning of the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act, 18 U.S.C. § 926B et seq., and shall not be deemed an employee of the Commonwealth or any locality.
"School resource officer" means a certified law-enforcement officer hired by the local law-enforcement agency to provide law-enforcement and security services to Virginia public elementary and secondary schools.
"School security officer" means an individual who is employed by the local school board or a private or religious school for the singular purpose of maintaining order and discipline, preventing crime, investigating violations of the policies of the school board or the private or religious school, and detaining students violating the law or the policies of the school board or the private or religious school on school property, school buses, or at school-sponsored events and who is responsible solely for ensuring the safety, security, and welfare of all students, faculty, staff, and visitors in the assigned school.
"Unapplied criminal history record information" means information pertaining to criminal offenses submitted to the Central Criminal Records Exchange that cannot be applied to the criminal history record of an arrested or convicted person (i) because such information is not supported by fingerprints or other accepted means of positive identification or (ii) due to an inconsistency, error, or omission within the content of the submitted information.
§ 9.1-102. Powers and duties of the Board and the Department.
The Department, under the direction of the Board, which shall be the policy-making body for carrying out the duties and powers hereunder, shall have the power and duty to:
1. Adopt regulations, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), for the administration of this chapter including the authority to require the submission of reports and information by law-enforcement officers within the Commonwealth. Any proposed regulations concerning the privacy, confidentiality, and security of criminal justice information shall be submitted for review and comment to any board, commission, or committee or other body which may be established by the General Assembly to regulate the privacy, confidentiality, and security of information collected and maintained by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof;
2. Establish compulsory minimum training standards subsequent to employment as a law-enforcement officer in (i) permanent positions and (ii) temporary or probationary status and establish the time required for completion of such training. Such compulsory minimum training standards shall include crisis intervention training in accordance with clause (i) of § 9.1-188;
3. Establish minimum training standards and qualifications for certification and recertification for law-enforcement officers serving as field training officers;
4. Establish compulsory minimum curriculum requirements for in-service and advanced courses and programs for schools, whether located in or outside the Commonwealth, which are operated for the specific purpose of training law-enforcement officers;
5. Establish (i) compulsory minimum training standards for law-enforcement officers who utilize radar or an electrical or microcomputer device to measure the speed of motor vehicles as provided in § 46.2-882 and establish the time required for completion of the training and (ii) compulsory minimum qualifications for certification and recertification of instructors who provide such training;
6. [Repealed];
7. Establish compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service and advanced training standards for those persons designated to provide courthouse and courtroom security pursuant to the provisions of § 53.1-120, and to establish the time required for completion of such training;
8. Establish compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service and advanced training standards for deputy sheriffs designated to serve process pursuant to the provisions of § 8.01-293, and establish the time required for the completion of such training;
9. Establish compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service, and advanced training standards, as well as the time required for completion of such training, for persons employed as deputy sheriffs and jail officers by local criminal justice agencies and correctional officers employed by the Department of Corrections under the provisions of Title 53.1. For deputy sheriffs and jail officers who are employees of local or regional correctional facilities and correctional officers employed by the Department of Corrections, such standards shall include training on the general care of pregnant women, the impact of restraints on pregnant inmates and fetuses, the impact of being placed in restrictive housing or solitary confinement on pregnant inmates, and the impact of body cavity searches on pregnant inmates;
10. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for all dispatchers employed by or in any local or state government agency, whose duties include the dispatching of law-enforcement personnel. Such training standards shall apply only to dispatchers hired on or after July 1, 1988. Such training shall include training in the identification of, communication with, and facilitation of the safe return of individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and dementia, which shall include (i) techniques for respectful and effective communication with individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and their caregivers; (ii) techniques for addressing the behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer's disease and dementia, including alternatives to physical restraint; (iii) protocols for identifying and reporting incidents of abuse, neglect, and exploitation of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia to adult protective services; (iv) protocols for contacting caregivers when an individual with Alzheimer's disease or dementia is found wandering or during an emergency or crisis situation; (v) a reference list of local resources available for individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia; and (vi) a reference list of local and national organizations that assist law-enforcement personnel with locating missing and wandering individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and returning them to their caregivers;
11. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for all auxiliary police officers employed by or in any local or state government agency. Such training shall be graduated and based on the type of duties to be performed by the auxiliary police officers. Such training standards shall not apply to auxiliary police officers exempt pursuant to § 15.2-1731;
12. Consult and cooperate with counties, municipalities, agencies of the Commonwealth, other state and federal governmental agencies, and institutions of higher education within or outside the Commonwealth, concerning the development of police training schools and programs or courses of instruction;
13. Approve institutions, curricula and facilities, whether located in or outside the Commonwealth, for school operation for the specific purpose of training law-enforcement officers; but this shall not prevent the holding of any such school whether approved or not;
14. Establish and maintain police training programs through such agencies and institutions as the Board deems appropriate;
15. Establish compulsory minimum qualifications of certification and recertification for instructors in criminal justice training academies approved by the Department;
16. Conduct and stimulate research by public and private agencies which shall be designed to improve police administration and law enforcement;
17. Make recommendations concerning any matter within its purview pursuant to this chapter;
18. Coordinate its activities with those of any interstate system for the exchange of criminal history record information, nominate one or more of its members to serve upon the council or committee of any such system, and participate when and as deemed appropriate in any such system's activities and programs;
19. Conduct inquiries and investigations it deems appropriate to carry out its functions under this chapter and, in conducting such inquiries and investigations, may require any criminal justice agency to submit information, reports, and statistical data with respect to its policy and operation of information systems or with respect to its collection, storage, dissemination, and usage of criminal history record information and correctional status information, and such criminal justice agencies shall submit such information, reports, and data as are reasonably required;
20. Conduct audits as required by § 9.1-131;
21. Conduct a continuing study and review of questions of individual privacy and confidentiality of criminal history record information and correctional status information;
22. Advise criminal justice agencies and initiate educational programs for such agencies with respect to matters of privacy, confidentiality, and security as they pertain to criminal history record information and correctional status information;
23. Maintain a liaison with any board, commission, committee, or other body which may be established by law, executive order, or resolution to regulate the privacy and security of information collected by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof;
24. Adopt regulations establishing guidelines and standards for the collection, storage, and dissemination of criminal history record information and correctional status information, and the privacy, confidentiality, and security thereof necessary to implement state and federal statutes, regulations, and court orders;
25. Operate a statewide criminal justice research center, which shall maintain an integrated criminal justice information system, produce reports, provide technical assistance to state and local criminal justice data system users, and provide analysis and interpretation of criminal justice statistical information;
26. Develop a comprehensive, statewide, long-range plan for strengthening and improving law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice throughout the Commonwealth, and periodically update that plan;
27. Cooperate with, and advise and assist, all agencies, departments, boards and institutions of the Commonwealth, and units of general local government, or combinations thereof, including planning district commissions, in planning, developing, and administering programs, projects, comprehensive plans, and other activities for improving law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice throughout the Commonwealth, including allocating and subgranting funds for these purposes;
28. Define, develop, organize, encourage, conduct, coordinate, and administer programs, projects and activities for the Commonwealth and units of general local government, or combinations thereof, in the Commonwealth, designed to strengthen and improve law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice at every level throughout the Commonwealth;
29. Review and evaluate programs, projects, and activities, and recommend, where necessary, revisions or alterations to such programs, projects, and activities for the purpose of improving law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice;
30. Coordinate the activities and projects of the state departments, agencies, and boards of the Commonwealth and of the units of general local government, or combination thereof, including planning district commissions, relating to the preparation, adoption, administration, and implementation of comprehensive plans to strengthen and improve law enforcement and the administration of criminal justice;
31. Do all things necessary on behalf of the Commonwealth and its units of general local government, to determine and secure benefits available under the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (P.L. 90-351, 82 Stat. 197), as amended, and under any other federal acts and programs for strengthening and improving law enforcement, the administration of criminal justice, and delinquency prevention and control;
32. Receive, administer, and expend all funds and other assistance available to the Board and the Department for carrying out the purposes of this chapter and the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968, as amended;
33. Apply for and accept grants from the United States government or any other source in carrying out the purposes of this chapter and accept any and all donations both real and personal, and grants of money from any governmental unit or public agency, or from any institution, person, firm or corporation, and may receive, utilize and dispose of the same. Any arrangements pursuant to this section shall be detailed in the annual report of the Board. Such report shall include the identity of the donor, the nature of the transaction, and the conditions, if any. Any moneys received pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the account of the Department. To these ends, the Board shall have the power to comply with conditions and execute such agreements as may be necessary;
34. Make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties and execution of its powers under this chapter, including but not limited to, contracts with the United States, units of general local government or combinations thereof, in Virginia or other states, and with agencies and departments of the Commonwealth;
35. Adopt and administer reasonable regulations for the planning and implementation of programs and activities and for the allocation, expenditure and subgranting of funds available to the Commonwealth and to units of general local government, and for carrying out the purposes of this chapter and the powers and duties set forth herein;
36. Certify and decertify law-enforcement officers in accordance with §§ 15.2-1706 and 15.2-1707 and provide for a decertification review process in accordance with § 15.2-1708;
37. Establish training standards and publish and periodically update model policies for law-enforcement personnel in the following subjects:
a. The handling of family abuse, domestic violence, sexual assault, and stalking cases, including standards for determining the predominant physical aggressor in accordance with § 19.2-81.3. The Department shall provide technical support and assistance to law-enforcement agencies in carrying out the requirements set forth in subsection A of § 9.1-1301;
b. The identification of, communication with, and facilitation of the safe return of individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and dementia, which shall include (i) techniques for respectful and effective communication with individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and their caregivers; (ii) techniques for addressing the behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer's disease and dementia, including alternatives to physical restraint; (iii) protocols for identifying and reporting incidents of abuse, neglect, and exploitation of individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia to adult protective services; (iv) protocols for contacting caregivers when an individual with Alzheimer's disease or dementia is found wandering or during an emergency or crisis situation; (v) a reference list of local resources available for individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia; and (vi) a reference list of local and national organizations that assist law-enforcement personnel with locating missing and wandering individuals with Alzheimer's disease and dementia and returning them to their caregivers;
c. Sensitivity to and awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and the potential for racially biased policing and bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1, which shall include recognizing implicit biases in interacting with persons who have a mental illness, substance use disorder, or developmental or cognitive disability;
d. Protocols for local and regional sexual assault and human trafficking response teams;
e. Communication of death notifications;
f. The questioning of individuals suspected of driving while intoxicated concerning the physical location of such individual's last consumption of an alcoholic beverage and the communication of such information to the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority;
g. Vehicle patrol duties that embody current best practices for pursuits and for responding to emergency calls;
h. Criminal investigations that embody current best practices for conducting photographic and live lineups;
i. Sensitivity to and awareness of human trafficking offenses and the identification of victims of human trafficking offenses for personnel involved in criminal investigations or assigned to vehicle or street patrol duties;
j. The recognition, prevention, and reporting of human trafficking;
k. Missing children, missing adults, and search and rescue protocol;
l. The handling and use of tear gas or other gases and kinetic impact munitions, as defined in § 19.2-83.3, that embody current best practices for using such items as a crowd control measure or during an arrest or detention of another person; and
m. The use of naloxone or other opioid antagonists to prevent opioid overdose deaths, in coordination with statewide naloxone training programs developed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and the Virginia Department of Health;
38. Establish compulsory training standards for basic training and the recertification of law-enforcement officers to ensure (i) sensitivity to and awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and the potential for racially biased policing and bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1, which shall include recognizing implicit biases in interacting with persons who have a mental illness, substance use disorder, or developmental or cognitive disability; (ii) training in de-escalation techniques; and (iii) training in the lawful use of force, including the use of deadly force, as defined in § 19.2-83.3, only when necessary to protect the law-enforcement officer or another person;
39. Review and evaluate community-policing programs in the Commonwealth, and recommend where necessary statewide operating procedures, guidelines, and standards that strengthen and improve such programs, including sensitivity to and awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and the potential for racially biased policing and bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1, which shall include recognizing implicit biases in interacting with persons who have a mental illness, substance use disorder, or developmental or cognitive disability;
40. Establish a Virginia Law-Enforcement Accreditation Center. The Center may, in cooperation with Virginia law-enforcement agencies, provide technical assistance and administrative support, including staffing, for the establishment of voluntary state law-enforcement accreditation standards. The Center may provide accreditation assistance and training, resource material, and research into methods and procedures that will assist the Virginia law-enforcement community efforts to obtain Virginia accreditation status;
41. Promote community policing philosophy and practice throughout the Commonwealth by providing community policing training and technical assistance statewide to all law-enforcement agencies, community groups, public and private organizations and citizens; developing and distributing innovative policing curricula and training tools on general community policing philosophy and practice and contemporary critical issues facing Virginia communities; serving as a consultant to Virginia organizations with specific community policing needs; facilitating continued development and implementation of community policing programs statewide through discussion forums for community policing leaders, development of law-enforcement instructors; promoting a statewide community policing initiative; and serving as a statewide information source on the subject of community policing including, but not limited to periodic newsletters, a website and an accessible lending library;
42. Establish, in consultation with the Department of Education and the Virginia State Crime Commission, compulsory minimum standards for employment and job-entry and in-service training curricula and certification requirements for school security officers, including school security officers described in clause (b) of § 22.1-280.2:1, which training and certification shall be administered by the Virginia Center for School and Campus Safety (VCSCS) pursuant to § 9.1-184. Such training standards shall be specific to the role and responsibility of school security officers and shall include (i) relevant state and federal laws; (ii) school and personal liability issues; (iii) security awareness in the school environment; (iv) mediation and conflict resolution, including de-escalation techniques such as a physical alternative to restraint; (v) disaster and emergency response; (vi) awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and implicit bias; (vii) working with students with disabilities, mental health needs, substance use disorders, and past traumatic experiences; and (viii) student behavioral dynamics, including child and adolescent development and brain research. The Department shall establish an advisory committee consisting of local school board representatives, principals, superintendents, and school security personnel to assist in the development of the standards and certification requirements in this subdivision. The Department shall require any school security officer who carries a firearm in the performance of his duties to provide proof that he has completed a training course provided by a federal, state, or local law-enforcement agency that includes training in active shooter emergency response, emergency evacuation procedure, and threat assessment;
43. License and regulate property bail bondsmen and surety bail bondsmen in accordance with Article 11 (§ 9.1-185 et seq.);
44. License and regulate bail enforcement agents in accordance with Article 12 (§ 9.1-186 et seq.);
45. In conjunction with the Virginia State Police and the State Compensation Board, advise criminal justice agencies regarding the investigation, registration, and dissemination of information requirements as they pertain to the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry Act (§ 9.1-900 et seq.);
46. Establish minimum standards for (i) employment, (ii) job-entry and in-service training curricula, and (iii) certification requirements for campus security officers. Such training standards shall include, but not be limited to, the role and responsibility of campus security officers, relevant state and federal laws, school and personal liability issues, security awareness in the campus environment, and disaster and emergency response. The Department shall provide technical support and assistance to campus police departments and campus security departments on the establishment and implementation of policies and procedures, including but not limited to: the management of such departments, investigatory procedures, judicial referrals, the establishment and management of databases for campus safety and security information sharing, and development of uniform record keeping for disciplinary records and statistics, such as campus crime logs, judicial referrals and Clery Act statistics. The Department shall establish an advisory committee consisting of college administrators, college police chiefs, college security department chiefs, and local law-enforcement officials to assist in the development of the standards and certification requirements and training pursuant to this subdivision;
47. Assess and report, in accordance with § 9.1-190, the crisis intervention team programs established pursuant to § 9.1-187;
48. In conjunction with the Office of the Attorney General, advise law-enforcement agencies and attorneys for the Commonwealth regarding the identification, investigation, and prosecution of human trafficking offenses using the common law and existing criminal statutes in the Code of Virginia;
49. Register tow truck drivers in accordance with § 46.2-116 and carry out the provisions of § 46.2-117;
50. Administer the activities of the Virginia Sexual and Domestic Violence Program Professional Standards Committee by providing technical assistance and administrative support, including staffing, for the Committee;
51. In accordance with § 9.1-102.1, design and approve the issuance of photo-identification cards to private security services registrants registered pursuant to Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.);
52. In consultation with the State Council of Higher Education for Virginia and the Virginia Association of Campus Law Enforcement Administrators, develop multidisciplinary curricula on trauma-informed sexual assault investigation;
53. In consultation with the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, develop a model addiction recovery program that may be administered by sheriffs, deputy sheriffs, jail officers, administrators, or superintendents in any local or regional jail. Such program shall be based on any existing addiction recovery programs that are being administered by any local or regional jails in the Commonwealth. Participation in the model addiction recovery program shall be voluntary, and such program may address aspects of the recovery process, including medical and clinical recovery, peer-to-peer support, availability of mental health resources, family dynamics, and aftercare aspects of the recovery process;
54. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for certification and recertification of law-enforcement officers serving as school resource officers. Such training shall be specific to the role and responsibility of a law-enforcement officer working with students in a school environment and shall include (i) relevant state and federal laws; (ii) school and personal liability issues; (iii) security awareness in the school environment; (iv) mediation and conflict resolution, including de-escalation techniques; (v) disaster and emergency response; (vi) awareness of systemic and individual racism, cultural diversity, and implicit bias; (vii) working with students with disabilities, mental health needs, substance use disorders, or past traumatic experiences; and (viii) student behavioral dynamics, including current child and adolescent development and brain research;
55. Establish a model policy for the operation of body-worn camera systems as defined in § 15.2-1723.1 that also addresses the storage and maintenance of body-worn camera system records;
56. Establish compulsory minimum training standards for detector canine handlers employed by the Department of Corrections, standards for the training and retention of detector canines used by the Department of Corrections, and a central database on the performance and effectiveness of such detector canines that requires the Department of Corrections to submit comprehensive information on each canine handler and detector canine, including the number and types of calls and searches, substances searched for and whether or not detected, and the number of false positives, false negatives, true positives, and true negatives;
57. Establish compulsory training standards for basic training of law-enforcement officers for recognizing and managing stress, self-care techniques, and resiliency;
58. Establish guidelines and standards for psychological examinations conducted pursuant to subsection C of § 15.2-1705;
59. Establish compulsory in-service training standards, to include frequency of retraining, for law-enforcement officers in the following subjects: (i) relevant state and federal laws; (ii) awareness of cultural diversity and the potential for bias-based profiling as defined in § 52-30.1; (iii) de-escalation techniques; (iv) working with individuals with disabilities, mental health needs, or substance use disorders; and (v) the lawful use of force, including the use of deadly force, as defined in § 19.2-83.3, only when necessary to protect the law-enforcement officer or another person;
60. Develop a model curriculum and lesson plans for the compulsory minimum entry-level, in-service, and advanced training standards to be employed by criminal justice training academies approved by the Department when conducting training;
61. Adopt statewide professional standards of conduct applicable to all certified law-enforcement officers and certified jail officers and appropriate due process procedures for decertification based on serious misconduct in violation of those standards and provide for a decertification review process in accordance with § 15.2-1708;
62. Establish and administer a waiver process, in accordance with §§ 2.2-5515 and 15.2-1721.1, for law-enforcement agencies to use certain military property. Any waivers granted by the Criminal Justice Services Board shall be published by the Department on the Department's website;
63. Establish compulsory training standards for basic training and the recertification of law-enforcement officers to include crisis intervention training in accordance with clause (ii) of § 9.1-188;
64. Advise and assist the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, and support local law-enforcement cooperation, with the development and implementation of the Marcus alert system, as defined in § 37.2-311.1, including the establishment of local protocols for law-enforcement participation in the Marcus alert system pursuant to § 9.1-193 and for reporting requirements pursuant to §§ 9.1-193 and 37.2-311.1;
65. Develop an online course to train hotel proprietors and their employees to recognize and report instances of suspected human trafficking;
66. Develop an online course to train unarmed security officers, armed security officers, couriers, security canine handlers, and alarm respondents to recognize and report instances of suspected human trafficking to meet the compulsory minimum, entry-level, and in-service training standards as required by § 9.1-141;
67. Establish standards and procedures for when the Board may grant a petition for reinstatement of certification of a decertified officer pursuant to subsection E of § 15.2-1708;
68. Establish compulsory minimum and in-service training standards for law-enforcement officers on communicating with individuals with an intellectual disability or a developmental disability as defined in § 37.2-100, such as autism spectrum disorder as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association, which shall include (i) an overview and behavioral recognition of autism spectrum disorder, (ii) best practices for crisis prevention and de-escalation techniques, (iii) an objective review of any relevant tools and technology available to assist in communication, and (iv) education on law-enforcement agency and community resources for the autism community on future crisis prevention. Such training standards shall be established in consultation with at least one individual with autism spectrum disorder, one family member of an individual with autism spectrum disorder, one specialist who works with individuals with autism spectrum disorder, one representative from the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, and one representative from a state or local law-enforcement agency;
69. Develop an online course for the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority to offer to retail licensees and their employees to train such licensees and employees to recognize and report instances of suspected human trafficking;
70. Establish a model policy for best practices for law-enforcement officers responding to or investigating an overdose, when prescriber information has been obtained during the course of such response or investigation, to notify the prescriber of any controlled substance found to be in the possession of or believed to have been ingested by the victim that such prescription of a controlled substance was involved in an overdose. Such model policy shall include that a notification to a prescriber of a controlled substance shall not be required if such notification would jeopardize an active law-enforcement investigation;
71. Establish a training curriculum for law-enforcement agencies, law-enforcement officers, and special conservators of the peace on the discretion such officers can exercise regarding arrests as provided in Chapter 7 (§ 19.2-71 et seq.) of Title 19.2. Such training shall include (i) instruction on the scope and nature of law-enforcement officer discretion in arrest decisions, with particular emphasis on encounters with individuals experiencing a mental health crisis, including individuals currently subject to an emergency custody order pursuant to § 37.2-808, a temporary detention order pursuant to § 37.2-809, or an involuntary admission order pursuant to § 37.2-817, and (ii) instruction on the immediate and long-term effects of arrests on individuals in need of mental health services due to a mental health crisis, including impacts on treatment outcomes as identified in substantially accepted peer-reviewed research literature;
72. Establish a model policy for the provision of security at nonprofit institutions that serve individuals and communities at risk of hate crimes as defined in § 52-8.5 within the Commonwealth, incorporating relevant information about various traditions, services, or activities that any law-enforcement officer, unarmed security officer, or armed security officer providing such security may encounter; and
73. Perform such other acts as may be necessary or convenient for the effective performance of its duties.
§ 9.1-400. Title of chapter; definitions.
A. This chapter shall be known and designated as the Line of Duty Act.
B. As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Beneficiary" means the spouse of a deceased person and such persons as are entitled to take under the will of a deceased person if testate, or as his heirs at law if intestate.
"Contributing nonprofit private institution of higher education" means a nonprofit private institution of higher education, as defined in § 23.1-100, that has (i) established a campus police department pursuant to § 23.1-810 and (ii) made an irrevocable election to provide the benefits under this chapter and to fund the cost by participating in the Fund.
"Contributing private police department" means a private police department that has made an irrevocable election to provide the benefits under this chapter and to fund the cost by participating in the Fund.
"Deceased person" means any individual whose death occurs on or after April 8, 1972, in the line of duty as the direct or proximate result of the performance of his duty, including the presumptions under §§ 27-40.1, 27-40.2, 51.1-813, 65.2-402, and 65.2-402.1 if his position is covered by the applicable statute, as (i) a law-enforcement officer of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions, except employees designated pursuant to § 53.1-10 to investigate allegations of criminal behavior affecting the operations of the Department of Corrections, employees designated pursuant to § 66-3 to investigate allegations of criminal behavior affecting the operations of the Department of Juvenile Justice, and members of the investigations unit of the State Inspector General designated pursuant to § 2.2-311 to investigate allegations of criminal behavior affecting the operations of a state or nonstate agency; (ii) a correctional officer as defined in § 53.1-1; (iii) a jail officer; (iv) a regional jail or jail farm superintendent; (v) a sheriff, deputy sheriff, or city sergeant or deputy city sergeant of the City of Richmond; (vi) a police chaplain; (vii) a member of any fire company or department or emergency medical services agency that has been recognized by an ordinance or a resolution of the governing body of any county, city, or town of the Commonwealth as an integral part of the official safety program of such county, city, or town, including a person with a recognized membership status with such fire company or department who is enrolled in a Fire Service Training course offered by the Virginia Department of Fire Programs or any fire company or department training required in pursuit of qualification to become a certified firefighter; (viii) a member of any fire company providing fire protection services for facilities of the Virginia National Guard or the Virginia Air National Guard; (ix) a member of the Virginia National Guard or the Virginia Defense Force while such member is serving in the Virginia National Guard or the Virginia Defense Force on official state duty or federal duty under Title 32 of the United States Code; (x) a special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority; (xi) a regular or special conservation police officer who receives compensation from a county, city, or town or from the Commonwealth appointed pursuant to the provisions of § 29.1-200; (xii) a commissioned forest warden appointed under the provisions of § 10.1-1135; (xiii) a member or employee of the Virginia Marine Resources Commission granted the power of arrest pursuant to § 28.2-900; (xiv) a Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officer, and any other employee of the Department of Emergency Management who is performing official duties of the agency, when those duties are related to a major disaster or emergency, as defined in § 44-146.16, that has been or is later declared to exist under the authority of the Governor in accordance with § 44-146.28; (xv) an employee of any county, city, or town performing official emergency management or emergency services duties in cooperation with the Department of Emergency Management, when those duties are related to a major disaster or emergency, as defined in § 44-146.16, that has been or is later declared to exist under the authority of the Governor in accordance with § 44-146.28 or a local emergency, as defined in § 44-146.16, declared by a local governing body; (xvi) a nonfirefighter regional hazardous materials emergency response team member; (xvii) a conservation officer of the Department of Conservation and Recreation commissioned pursuant to § 10.1-115; (xviii) a full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles appointed pursuant to § 46.2-217; (xix) a campus police officer employed by a contributing nonprofit private institution of higher education; or (xx) a private police officer employed by a contributing private police department.
"Disabled person" means any individual who has been determined to be mentally or physically incapacitated so as to prevent the further performance of his duties at the time of his disability where such incapacity is likely to be permanent, and whose incapacity occurs in the line of duty as the direct or proximate result of the performance of his duty, including the presumptions under §§ 27-40.1, 27-40.2, 51.1-813, 65.2-402, and 65.2-402.1 if his position is covered by the applicable statute, in any position listed in the definition of deceased person in this section. "Disabled person" does not include any individual who has been determined to be no longer disabled pursuant to subdivision A 2 of § 9.1-404. "Disabled person" includes any state employee included in the definition of a deceased person who was disabled on or after January 1, 1966.
"Eligible dependent" for purposes of continued health insurance pursuant to § 9.1-401 means the natural or adopted child or children of a deceased person or disabled person or of a deceased or disabled person's eligible spouse, provided that any such natural child is born as the result of a pregnancy that occurred prior to, or no later than six months after, the time of the employee's death or disability and that any such adopted child is (i) adopted prior to, or no later than six months after, the time of the employee's death or disability or (ii) adopted more than six months after the employee's death or disability if the adoption is pursuant to a preadoptive agreement entered into prior to, or no later than six months after, the death or disability. Notwithstanding the foregoing, "eligible dependent" shall also include the natural or adopted child or children of a deceased person or disabled person born as the result of a pregnancy or adoption that occurred after the time of the employee's death or disability, but prior to July 1, 2017. Eligibility will continue until the end of the year in which the eligible dependent reaches age 26 or when the eligible dependent ceases to be eligible based on the Virginia Administrative Code or administrative guidance as determined by the Department of Human Resource Management.
"Eligible spouse" for purposes of continued health insurance pursuant to § 9.1-401 means the spouse of a deceased person or a disabled person at the time of the death or disability. Eligibility will continue until the eligible spouse dies, ceases to be married to a disabled person, or in the case of the spouse of a deceased person, dies, remarries on or after July 1, 2017, or otherwise ceases to be eligible based on the Virginia Administrative Code or administrative guidance as determined by the Department of Human Resource Management.
"Employee" means any person who would be covered or whose spouse, dependents, or beneficiaries would be covered under the benefits of this chapter if the person became a disabled person or a deceased person.
"Employer" means (i) the employer of a person who is a covered employee or (ii) in the case of a volunteer who is a member of any fire company or department or rescue squad described in the definition of "deceased person," the county, city, or town that by ordinance or resolution recognized such fire company or department or rescue squad as an integral part of the official safety program of such locality.
"Fund" means the Line of Duty Death and Health Benefits Trust Fund established pursuant to § 9.1-400.1.
"Line of duty" means any action the deceased or disabled person was obligated or authorized to perform by rule, regulation, condition of employment or service, or law.
"LODA Health Benefit Plans" means the separate health benefits plans established pursuant to § 9.1-401.
"Nonparticipating employer" means any employer that is a political subdivision of the Commonwealth that elected to directly fund the cost of benefits provided under this chapter and not participate in the Fund.
"Participating employer" means any employer that is a state agency or is a political subdivision of the Commonwealth that did not make an election to become a nonparticipating employer.
"Private police officer" means the same as that term is defined in § 9.1-101.
"Private police department" means the same as that term is defined in § 9.1-101.
"VRS" means the Virginia Retirement System.
C. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as applying to any nonprofit private institution of higher education, as defined in § 23.1-100, that is not a contributing nonprofit private institution of higher education or any private police department that is not a contributing private police department.
§ 9.1-500. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Agency" means the Department of State Police, the Division of Capitol Police, the Virginia Marine Resources Commission, the Virginia Port Authority, the Department of Wildlife Resources, the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Department of Conservation and Recreation, or the Department of Motor Vehicles; or the political subdivision or the campus police department of any public institution of higher education of the Commonwealth employing the law-enforcement officer.
"Law-enforcement officer" means any person, other than a Chief of Police or the Superintendent of the Department of State Police, who, in his official capacity, is (i) authorized by law to make arrests and (ii) a nonprobationary officer of one of the following agencies:
a. The Department of State Police, the Division of Capitol Police, the Virginia Marine Resources Commission, the Virginia Port Authority, the Department of Wildlife Resources, the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Department of Motor Vehicles, or the Department of Conservation and Recreation;
b. The police department, bureau or force of any political subdivision or the campus police department of any public institution of higher education of the Commonwealth where such department, bureau or force has three or more law-enforcement officers; or
c. Any conservation police officer as defined in § 9.1-101.
For the purposes of this chapter, "law-enforcement officer" shall not include the sheriff's department of any city or county.
§ 9.1-801. Public safety officer defined.
As used in this chapter, the term "public safety officer" includes a law-enforcement officer of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions; a correctional officer as defined in § 53.1-1; a correctional officer employed at a juvenile correctional facility as the term is defined in § 66-25.3; a jail officer; a regional jail or jail farm superintendent; a member of any fire company or department or nonprofit or volunteer emergency medical services agency that has been recognized by an ordinance or resolution of the governing body of any county, city, or town of the Commonwealth as an integral part of the official safety program of such county, city, or town; an arson investigator; a member of the Virginia National Guard or the Virginia Defense Force while such a member is serving in the Virginia National Guard or the Virginia Defense Force on official state duty or federal duty under Title 32 of the United States Code; any special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority; any police agent appointed under the provisions of § 56-353; any regular or special conservation police officer who receives compensation from a county, city, or town or from the Commonwealth appointed pursuant to § 29.1-200; any commissioned forest warden appointed pursuant to § 10.1-1135; any member or employee of the Virginia Marine Resources Commission granted the power to arrest pursuant to § 28.2-900; any Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officer; any nonfirefighter regional hazardous materials emergency response team member; any investigator who is a full-time sworn member of the security division of the Virginia Lottery; any full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles meeting the Department of Criminal Justice Services qualifications, when fulfilling duties pursuant to § 46.2-217; any campus police officer appointed under the provisions of Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1; and any conservation officer of the Department of Conservation and Recreation commissioned pursuant to § 10.1-115.
§ 9.1-1101. Powers and duties of the Department.
A. It shall be the responsibility of the Department to provide forensic laboratory services upon request of the Superintendent of State Police; the Chief Medical Examiner, the Assistant Chief Medical Examiners, and local medical examiners; any attorney for the Commonwealth; any chief of police, sheriff, or sergeant responsible for law enforcement in the jurisdiction served by him; any local fire department; the head of any private police department that has been designated as a criminal justice agency by the Department of Criminal Justice Services as defined by § 9.1-101; or any state agency in any criminal matter. The Department shall provide such services to any federal investigatory agency within available resources.
B. The Department shall:
1. Provide forensic laboratory services to all law-enforcement agencies throughout the Commonwealth and provide laboratory services, research, and scientific investigations for agencies of the Commonwealth as needed;
2. Establish and maintain a DNA testing program in accordance with Article 1.1 (§ 19.2-310.2 et seq.) of Chapter 18 of Title 19.2 to determine identification characteristics specific to an individual; and
3. Test the accuracy of equipment used to test the blood alcohol content of breath at least once every six months. Only equipment found to be accurate shall be used to test the blood alcohol content of breath; and
4. Determine the proper methods for detecting the concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) in substances for the purposes of Subtitle II of Title 4.1 and §§ 54.1-3401 and 54.1-3446. The testing methodology shall use post-decarboxylation testing or other equivalent method and shall consider the potential conversion of tetrahydrocannabinol acid (THC-A) into THC. The test result shall include the total available THC derived from the sum of the THC and THC-A content.
C. The Department shall have the power and duty to:
1. Receive, administer, and expend all funds and other assistance available for carrying out the purposes of this chapter;
2. Make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties and execution of its powers under this chapter including, but not limited to, contracts with the United States, units of general local government or combinations thereof in Virginia or other states, and with agencies and departments of the Commonwealth; and
3. Perform such other acts as may be necessary or convenient for the effective performance of its duties.
D. The Director may appoint and employ a deputy director and such other personnel as are needed to carry out the duties and responsibilities conferred by this chapter.
§ 15.2-2288.3. Licensed farm wineries; local regulation of certain activities.
A. It is the policy of the Commonwealth to preserve the economic vitality of the Virginia wine industry while maintaining appropriate land use authority to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the citizens of the Commonwealth and to permit the reasonable expectation of uses in specific zoning categories. Local restriction upon such activities and events of farm wineries licensed in accordance with Title 4.1 to market and sell their products shall be reasonable and shall take into account the economic impact on the farm winery of such restriction, the agricultural nature of such activities and events, and whether such activities and events are usual and customary for farm wineries throughout the Commonwealth. Usual and customary activities and events at farm wineries shall be permitted without local regulation unless there is a substantial impact on the health, safety, or welfare of the public. No local ordinance regulating noise, other than outdoor amplified music, arising from activities and events at farm wineries shall be more restrictive than that in the general noise ordinance. In authorizing outdoor amplified music at a farm winery, the locality shall consider the effect on adjacent property owners and nearby residents.
B, C. [Expired.]
D. No locality may treat private personal gatherings held by the owner of a licensed farm winery who resides at the farm winery or on property adjacent thereto that is owned or controlled by such owner at which gatherings wine is not sold or marketed and for which no consideration is received by the farm winery or its agents differently from private personal gatherings by other citizens.
E. No locality shall regulate any of the following activities of a farm winery licensed in accordance with subdivision 6 of § 4.1-206.1:
1. The production and harvesting of fruit and other agricultural products and the manufacturing of wine;
2. The on-premises sale, tasting, or consumption of wine during regular business hours within the normal course of business of the licensed farm winery;
3. The direct sale and shipment of wine by common carrier to consumers in accordance with Title 4.1 and regulations of the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority;
4. The sale and shipment of wine to the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, licensed wholesalers, and out-of-state purchasers in accordance with Title 4.1, regulations of the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, and federal law;
5. The storage, warehousing, and wholesaling of wine in accordance with Title 4.1, regulations of the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, and federal law; or
6. The sale of wine-related items that are incidental to the sale of wine.
§ 15.2-2288.3:1. Limited brewery license; local regulation of certain activities.
A. It is the policy of the Commonwealth to preserve the economic vitality of the Virginia beer industry while maintaining appropriate land use authority to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the citizens of the Commonwealth and to permit the reasonable expectation of uses in specific zoning categories. Local restriction upon such activities and public events of breweries licensed pursuant to subdivision 4 of § 4.1-206.1 to market and sell their products shall be reasonable and shall take into account the economic impact on such licensed brewery of such restriction, the agricultural nature of such activities and events, and whether such activities and events are usual and customary for such licensed breweries. Usual and customary activities and events at such licensed breweries shall be permitted unless there is a substantial impact on the health, safety, or welfare of the public. No local ordinance regulating noise, other than outdoor amplified music, arising from activities and events at such licensed breweries shall be more restrictive than that in the general noise ordinance. In authorizing outdoor amplified music at such licensed brewery, the locality shall consider the effect on adjacent property owners and nearby residents.
B. No locality shall regulate any of the following activities of a brewery licensed under subdivision 4 of § 4.1-206.1:
1. The production and harvesting of barley, other grains, hops, fruit, or other agricultural products and the manufacturing of beer;
2. The on-premises sale, tasting, or consumption of beer during regular business hours within the normal course of business of such licensed brewery;
3. The direct sale and shipment of beer in accordance with Title 4.1 and regulations of the Board of Directors of the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority;
4. The sale and shipment of beer to licensed wholesalers and out-of-state purchasers in accordance with Title 4.1, regulations of the Board of Directors of the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, and federal law;
5. The storage and warehousing of beer in accordance with Title 4.1, regulations of the Board of Directors of the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, and federal law; or
6. The sale of beer-related items that are incidental to the sale of beer.
C. Any locality may exempt any brewery licensed in accordance with subdivision 4 of § 4.1-206.1 on land zoned agricultural from any local regulation of minimum parking, road access, or road upgrade requirements.
§ 15.2-2288.3:2. Limited distiller's license; local regulation of certain activities.
A. Local restriction upon activities of distilleries licensed pursuant to subdivision 2 of § 4.1-206.1 to market and sell their products shall be reasonable and shall take into account the economic impact on such licensed distillery of such restriction, the agricultural nature of such activities and events, and whether such activities and events are usual and customary for such licensed distilleries. Usual and customary activities and events at such licensed distilleries shall be permitted unless there is a substantial impact on the health, safety, or welfare of the public.
B. No locality shall regulate any of the following activities of a distillery licensed under subdivision 2 of § 4.1-206.1:
1. The production and harvesting of agricultural products and the manufacturing of alcoholic beverages other than wine or beer;
2. The on-premises sale, tasting, or consumption of alcoholic beverages other than wine or beer during regular business hours in accordance with a contract between a distillery and the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Board pursuant to the provisions of subsection D of § 4.1-119;
3. The sale and shipment of alcoholic beverages other than wine or beer to licensed wholesalers and out-of-state purchasers in accordance with Title 4.1, regulations of the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Board, and federal law;
4. The storage and warehousing of alcoholic beverages other than wine or beer in accordance with Title 4.1, regulations of the Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Board, and federal law; or
5. The sale of items related to alcoholic beverages other than wine or beer that are incidental to the sale of such alcoholic beverages.
C. Any locality may exempt any distillery licensed in accordance with subdivision 2 of § 4.1-206.1 on land zoned agricultural from any local regulation of minimum parking, road access, or road upgrade requirements.
§ 15.2-2820. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Bar or lounge area" means any establishment or portion of an establishment devoted to the sale and service of alcoholic beverages for consumption on the premises and where the sale or service of food or meals is incidental to the consumption of the alcoholic beverages.
"Educational facility" means any building used for instruction of enrolled students, including but not limited to any day-care center, nursery school, public or private school, institution of higher education, medical school, law school, or career and technical education school.
"Health care facility" means any institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed under Virginia law, including but not limited to any hospital, nursing facility or nursing home, boarding home, assisted living facility, supervised living facility, or ambulatory medical and surgical center.
"Private club" means an organization, whether incorporated or not, that (i) is the owner, lessee, or occupant of a building or portion thereof used exclusively for club purposes, including club or member sponsored events; (ii) is operated solely for recreational, fraternal, social, patriotic, political, benevolent, or athletic purposes, and only sells alcoholic beverages incidental to its operation; (iii) has established bylaws, a constitution, or both that govern its activities; and (iv) the affairs and management of which are conducted by a board of directors, executive committee, or similar body chosen by the members at an annual meeting.
"Private function" means any gathering of persons for the purpose of deliberation, education, instruction, entertainment, amusement, or dining that is not intended to be open to the public and for which membership or specific invitation is a prerequisite to entry.
"Private work place" means any office or work area that is not open to the public in the normal course of business except by individual invitation.
"Proprietor" means the owner or lessee of the public place, who ultimately controls the activities within the public place. The term "proprietor" includes corporations, associations, or partnerships as well as individuals.
"Public conveyance" or "public vehicle" means any air, land, or water vehicle used for the mass transportation of persons in intrastate travel for compensation, including but not limited to any airplane, train, bus, or boat that is not subject to federal smoking regulations.
"Public place" means any enclosed, indoor area used by the general public, including but not limited to any building owned or leased by the Commonwealth or any agency thereof or any locality, public conveyance or public vehicle, educational facility, hospital, nursing facility or nursing home, other health care facility, library, retail store of 15,000 square feet or more, auditorium, arena, theater, museum, concert hall, or other area used for a performance or an exhibit of the arts or sciences, or any meeting room.
"Recreational facility" means any enclosed, indoor area used by the general public and used as a stadium, arena, skating rink, video game facility, or senior citizen recreational facility.
"Restaurant" means any place where food is prepared for service to the public on or off the premises, or any place where food is served. Examples of such places include but are not limited to lunchrooms, short order places, cafeterias, coffee shops, cafes, taverns, delicatessens, dining accommodations of public or private clubs, kitchen facilities of hospitals and nursing homes, dining accommodations of public and private schools and colleges, and kitchen areas of local correctional facilities subject to standards adopted under § 53.1-68. "Restaurant" shall not include (i) places where packaged or canned foods are manufactured and then distributed to grocery stores or other similar food retailers for sale to the public, (ii) mobile points of service to the general public that are outdoors, or (iii) mobile points of service where such service and consumption occur in a private residence or in any location that is not a public place. "Restaurant" shall include any bar or lounge area that is part of such restaurant.
"Smoke" or "smoking" means the carrying or holding of any lighted pipe, cigar, or cigarette of any kind, including marijuana, or any other lighted smoking equipment, or the lighting, inhaling, or exhaling of smoke from a pipe, cigar, or cigarette of any kind, including marijuana.
"Theater" means any indoor facility or auditorium, open to the public, which is primarily used or designed for the purpose of exhibiting any motion picture, stage production, musical recital, dance, lecture, or other similar performance.
§ 16.1-69.40:1. Traffic infractions within authority of traffic violations clerk; schedule of fines; prepayment of local ordinances.
A. The Supreme Court shall by rule, which may from time to time be amended, supplemented or repealed, but which shall be uniform in its application throughout the Commonwealth, designate the traffic infractions for which a pretrial waiver of appearance, plea of guilty and fine payment may be accepted. Such designated infractions shall include violations of §§ 46.2-830.1, 46.2-878.2 and 46.2-1242 or any parallel local ordinances. Notwithstanding any rule of the Supreme Court, a person charged with a traffic offense that is listed as prepayable in the Uniform Fine Schedule may prepay his fines and costs without court appearance whether or not he was involved in an accident. The prepayable fine amount for a violation of § 46.2-878.2 shall be $200 plus an amount per mile-per-hour in excess of posted speed limits, as authorized in § 46.2-878.3.
Such infractions shall not include:
1. Indictable offenses;
2. [Repealed.]
3. Operation of a motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor, marijuana, or a narcotic or habit-producing drug, or permitting another person, who is under the influence of intoxicating liquor, marijuana, or a narcotic or habit-producing drug, to operate a motor vehicle owned by the defendant or in his custody or control;
4. Reckless driving;
5. Leaving the scene of an accident;
6. Driving while under suspension or revocation of driving privileges;
7. Driving without being licensed to drive.
8. [Repealed.]
B. An appearance may be made in person or in writing by mail to a clerk of court or in person before a magistrate, prior to any date fixed for trial in court. Any person so appearing may enter a waiver of trial and a plea of guilty and pay the fine and any civil penalties established for the offense charged, with costs. He shall, prior to the plea, waiver, and payment, be informed of his right to stand trial, that his signature to a plea of guilty will have the same force and effect as a judgment of court, and that the record of conviction will be sent to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles.
C. The Supreme Court, upon the recommendation of the Committee on District Courts, shall establish a schedule, within the limits prescribed by law, of the amounts of fines and any civil penalties to be imposed, designating each infraction specifically. The schedule, which may from time to time be amended, supplemented or repealed, shall be uniform in its application throughout the Commonwealth. Such schedule shall not be construed or interpreted so as to limit the discretion of any trial judge trying individual cases at the time fixed for trial. The rule of the Supreme Court establishing the schedule shall be prominently posted in the place where the fines are paid. Fines and costs shall be paid in accordance with the provisions of this Code or any rules or regulations promulgated thereunder.
D. Fines imposed under local traffic infraction ordinances that do not parallel provisions of state law and fulfill the criteria set out in subsection A may be prepayable in the manner set forth in subsection B if such ordinances appear in a schedule entered by order of the local circuit courts. The chief judge of each circuit may establish a schedule of the fines, within the limits prescribed by local ordinances, to be imposed for prepayment of local ordinances designating each offense specifically. Upon the entry of such order it shall be forwarded within 10 days to the Supreme Court of Virginia by the clerk of the local circuit court. The schedule, which from time to time may be amended, supplemented or repealed, shall be uniform in its application throughout the circuit. Such schedule shall not be construed or interpreted so as to limit the discretion of any trial judge trying individual cases at the time fixed for trial. This schedule shall be prominently posted in the place where fines are paid. Fines and costs shall be paid in accordance with the provisions of this Code or any rules or regulations promulgated thereunder.
§ 16.1-260. Intake; petition; investigation.
A. All matters alleged to be within the jurisdiction of the court shall be commenced by the filing of a petition, except as provided in subsection H and in § 16.1-259. The form and content of the petition shall be as provided in § 16.1-262. No individual shall be required to obtain support services from the Department of Social Services prior to filing a petition seeking support for a child. Complaints, requests, and the processing of petitions to initiate a case shall be the responsibility of the intake officer. However, (i) the attorney for the Commonwealth of the city or county may file a petition on his own motion with the clerk; (ii) designated nonattorney employees of the Department of Social Services may complete, sign, and file petitions and motions relating to the establishment, modification, or enforcement of support on forms approved by the Supreme Court of Virginia with the clerk; (iii) designated nonattorney employees of a local department of social services may complete, sign, and file with the clerk, on forms approved by the Supreme Court of Virginia, petitions for foster care review, petitions for permanency planning hearings, petitions to establish paternity, motions to establish or modify support, motions to amend or review an order, and motions for a rule to show cause; and (iv) any attorney may file petitions on behalf of his client with the clerk except petitions alleging that the subject of the petition is a child alleged to be in need of services, in need of supervision, or delinquent. Complaints alleging abuse or neglect of a child shall be referred initially to the local department of social services in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 15 (§ 63.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 63.2. Motions and other subsequent pleadings in a case shall be filed directly with the clerk. The intake officer or clerk with whom the petition or motion is filed shall inquire whether the petitioner is receiving child support services or public assistance. No individual who is receiving support services or public assistance shall be denied the right to file a petition or motion to establish, modify, or enforce an order for support of a child. If the petitioner is seeking or receiving child support services or public assistance, the clerk, upon issuance of process, shall forward a copy of the petition or motion, together with notice of the court date, to the Division of Child Support Enforcement. If a petitioner is seeking to establish child support, the intake officer shall provide the petitioner information on the possible availability of medical assistance through the Family Access to Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) plan or other government-sponsored coverage through the Department of Medical Assistance Services.
B. The appearance of a child before an intake officer may be by (i) personal appearance before the intake officer or (ii) use of two-way electronic video and audio communication. If two-way electronic video and audio communication is used, an intake officer may exercise all powers conferred by law. All communications and proceedings shall be conducted in the same manner as if the appearance were in person, and any documents filed may be transmitted by facsimile process. The facsimile may be served or executed by the officer or person to whom sent, and returned in the same manner, and with the same force, effect, authority, and liability as an original document. All signatures thereon shall be treated as original signatures. Any two-way electronic video and audio communication system used for an appearance shall meet the standards as set forth in subsection B of § 19.2-3.1.
When the court service unit of any court receives a complaint alleging facts which may be sufficient to invoke the jurisdiction of the court pursuant to § 16.1-241, the unit, through an intake officer, may proceed informally to make such adjustment as is practicable without the filing of a petition or may authorize a petition to be filed by any complainant having sufficient knowledge of the matter to establish probable cause for the issuance of the petition.
An intake officer may proceed informally on a complaint alleging a child is in need of services, in need of supervision, or delinquent only if the juvenile (a) is not alleged to have committed a violent juvenile felony or (b) has not previously been proceeded against informally or adjudicated delinquent for an offense that would be a felony if committed by an adult. A petition alleging that a juvenile committed a violent juvenile felony shall be filed with the court. A petition alleging that a juvenile is delinquent for an offense that would be a felony if committed by an adult shall be filed with the court if the juvenile had previously been proceeded against informally by intake or had been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that would be a felony if committed by an adult.
If a juvenile is alleged to be a truant pursuant to a complaint filed in accordance with § 22.1-258 and the attendance officer has provided documentation to the intake officer that the relevant school division has complied with the provisions of § 22.1-258, then the intake officer shall file a petition with the court. The intake officer may defer filing the petition and proceed informally by developing a truancy plan, provided that (1) the juvenile has not previously been proceeded against informally or adjudicated in need of supervision on more than two occasions for failure to comply with compulsory school attendance as provided in § 22.1-254 and (2) the immediately previous informal action or adjudication occurred at least three calendar years prior to the current complaint. The juvenile and his parent or parents, guardian, or other person standing in loco parentis must agree, in writing, for the development of a truancy plan. The truancy plan may include requirements that the juvenile and his parent or parents, guardian, or other person standing in loco parentis participate in such programs, cooperate in such treatment, or be subject to such conditions and limitations as necessary to ensure the juvenile's compliance with compulsory school attendance as provided in § 22.1-254. The intake officer may refer the juvenile to the appropriate public agency for the purpose of developing a truancy plan using an interagency interdisciplinary team approach. The team may include qualified personnel who are reasonably available from the appropriate department of social services, community services board, local school division, court service unit, and other appropriate and available public and private agencies and may be the family assessment and planning team established pursuant to § 2.2-5207. If at the end of the deferral period the juvenile has not successfully completed the truancy plan or the truancy program, then the intake officer shall file the petition.
Whenever informal action is taken as provided in this subsection on a complaint alleging that a child is in need of services, in need of supervision, or delinquent, the intake officer shall (A) develop a plan for the juvenile, which may include restitution, the performance of community service, or on a complaint alleging that a child has committed a delinquent act other than an act that would be a felony or a Class 1 misdemeanor if committed by an adult and with the consent of the juvenile's parent or legal guardian, referral to a youth justice diversion program established pursuant to § 16.1-309.11, based upon community resources and the circumstances which resulted in the complaint, (B) create an official record of the action taken by the intake officer and file such record in the juvenile's case file, and (C) advise the juvenile and the juvenile's parent, guardian, or other person standing in loco parentis and the complainant that any subsequent complaint alleging that the child is in need of supervision or delinquent based upon facts which may be sufficient to invoke the jurisdiction of the court pursuant to § 16.1-241, or in the case of a referral to a youth justice diversion program established pursuant to § 16.1-309.11, that any subsequent report from the youth justice diversion program alleging that the juvenile failed to comply with the youth justice diversion program's sentence within 180 days of the sentencing date, may result in the filing of a petition with the court.
C. The intake officer shall accept and file a petition in which it is alleged that (i) the custody, visitation, or support of a child is the subject of controversy or requires determination, (ii) a person has deserted, abandoned, or failed to provide support for any person in violation of law, (iii) a child or such child's parent, guardian, legal custodian, or other person standing in loco parentis is entitled to treatment, rehabilitation, or other services which are required by law, (iv) family abuse has occurred and a protective order is being sought pursuant to § 16.1-253.1, 16.1-253.4, or 16.1-279.1, or (v) an act of violence, force, or threat has occurred, a protective order is being sought pursuant to § 19.2-152.8, 19.2-152.9, or 19.2-152.10, and either the alleged victim or the respondent is a juvenile. If any such complainant does not file a petition, the intake officer may file it. In cases in which a child is alleged to be abused, neglected, in need of services, in need of supervision, or delinquent, if the intake officer believes that probable cause does not exist, or that the authorization of a petition will not be in the best interest of the family or juvenile or that the matter may be effectively dealt with by some agency other than the court, he may refuse to authorize the filing of a petition. The intake officer shall provide to a person seeking a protective order pursuant to § 16.1-253.1, 16.1-253.4, or 16.1-279.1 a written explanation of the conditions, procedures and time limits applicable to the issuance of protective orders pursuant to § 16.1-253.1, 16.1-253.4, or 16.1-279.1. If the person is seeking a protective order pursuant to § 19.2-152.8, 19.2-152.9, or 19.2-152.10, the intake officer shall provide a written explanation of the conditions, procedures, and time limits applicable to the issuance of protective orders pursuant to § 19.2-152.8, 19.2-152.9, or 19.2-152.10.
D. Prior to the filing of any petition alleging that a child is in need of supervision, the matter shall be reviewed by an intake officer who shall determine whether the petitioner and the child alleged to be in need of supervision have utilized or attempted to utilize treatment and services available in the community and have exhausted all appropriate nonjudicial remedies which are available to them. When the intake officer determines that the parties have not attempted to utilize available treatment or services or have not exhausted all appropriate nonjudicial remedies which are available, he shall refer the petitioner and the child alleged to be in need of supervision to the appropriate agency, treatment facility, or individual to receive treatment or services, and a petition shall not be filed. Only after the intake officer determines that the parties have made a reasonable effort to utilize available community treatment or services may he permit the petition to be filed.
E. If the intake officer refuses to authorize a petition relating to an offense that if committed by an adult would be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor or as a felony, when such refusal is based solely upon a finding that no probable cause exists, the complainant shall be notified in writing at that time of the complainant's right to apply to a magistrate for a warrant. The application for a warrant to the magistrate shall be filed within 10 days of the issuance of the written notification. The written notification shall indicate that the intake officer made a finding that no probable cause exists and shall provide notice that the complainant has 10 days to apply for a warrant to the magistrate. The complainant shall provide the magistrate with a copy of the written notification upon application to the magistrate. If a magistrate determines that probable cause exists, he shall issue a warrant returnable to the juvenile and domestic relations district court. The warrant shall be delivered forthwith to the juvenile court, and the intake officer shall accept and file a petition founded upon the warrant. If the court is closed and the magistrate finds that the criteria for detention or shelter care set forth in § 16.1-248.1 have been satisfied, the juvenile may be detained pursuant to the warrant issued in accordance with this subsection. If the intake officer refuses to authorize a petition relating to a child in need of services or in need of supervision, a status offense, or a misdemeanor other than Class 1, his decision is final. If the intake officer refuses to authorize a petition relating to an offense that if committed by an adult would be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor or as a felony when such refusal is based upon a finding that (i) probable cause exists, but that (ii) the matter is appropriate for diversion, his decision is final and the complainant shall not have a right to apply to a magistrate for a warrant.
Upon delivery to the juvenile court of a warrant issued pursuant to subdivision 2 of § 16.1-256, the intake officer shall accept and file a petition founded upon the warrant.
F. The intake officer shall notify the attorney for the Commonwealth of the filing of any petition which alleges facts of an offense which would be a felony if committed by an adult.
G. Notwithstanding the provisions of Article 12 (§ 16.1-299 et seq.), the intake officer shall file a report with the division superintendent of the school division in which any student who is the subject of a petition alleging that such student who is a juvenile has committed an act, wherever committed, which would be a crime if committed by an adult, or that such student who is an adult has committed a crime and is alleged to be within the jurisdiction of the court. The report shall notify the division superintendent of the filing of the petition and the nature of the offense, if the violation involves:
1. A firearm offense pursuant to Article 4 (§ 18.2-279 et seq.), 5 (§ 18.2-288 et seq.), 6 (§ 18.2-299 et seq.), 6.1 (§ 18.2-307.1 et seq.), or 7 (§ 18.2-308.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2;
2. Homicide, pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-30 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2;
3. Felonious assault and bodily wounding, pursuant to Article 4 (§ 18.2-51 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2;
4. Criminal sexual assault, pursuant to Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2;
5. Manufacture, sale, gift, distribution or possession of Schedule I or II controlled substances, pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2;
6. Manufacture, sale or distribution of marijuana pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 Subtitle II of Title 4.1;
7. Arson and related crimes, pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-77 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 18.2;
8. Burglary and related offenses, pursuant to §§ 18.2-89 through 18.2-93;
9. Robbery pursuant to § 18.2-58;
10. Prohibited criminal street gang activity pursuant to § 18.2-46.2;
11. Recruitment of other juveniles for a criminal street gang activity pursuant to § 18.2-46.3;
12. An act of violence by a mob pursuant to § 18.2-42.1;
13. Abduction of any person pursuant to § 18.2-47 or 18.2-48; or
14. A threat pursuant to § 18.2-60.
The failure to provide information regarding the school in which the student who is the subject of the petition may be enrolled shall not be grounds for refusing to file a petition.
The information provided to a division superintendent pursuant to this section may be disclosed only as provided in § 16.1-305.2.
H. The filing of a petition shall not be necessary:
1. In the case of violations of the traffic laws, including offenses involving bicycles, hitchhiking and other pedestrian offenses, game and fish laws, or a violation of the ordinance of any city regulating surfing or any ordinance establishing curfew violations, animal control violations, or littering violations. In such cases the court may proceed on a summons issued by the officer investigating the violation in the same manner as provided by law for adults. Additionally, an officer investigating a motor vehicle accident may, at the scene of the accident or at any other location where a juvenile who is involved in such an accident may be located, proceed on a summons in lieu of filing a petition.
2. In the case of seeking consent to apply for the issuance of a work permit pursuant to subsection H of § 16.1-241.
3. In the case of a misdemeanor violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, or 29.1-738 or the commission of any other alcohol-related offense, provided that the juvenile is released to the custody of a parent or legal guardian pending the initial court date. The officer releasing a juvenile to the custody of a parent or legal guardian shall issue a summons to the juvenile and shall also issue a summons requiring the parent or legal guardian to appear before the court with the juvenile. Disposition of the charge shall be in the manner provided in § 16.1-278.8, 16.1-278.8:01, or 16.1-278.9. If the juvenile so charged with a violation of § 18.2-51.4, 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, 18.2-272, or 29.1-738 refuses to provide a sample of blood or breath or samples of both blood and breath for chemical analysis pursuant to §§ 18.2-268.1 through 18.2-268.12 or 29.1-738.2, the provisions of these sections shall be followed except that the magistrate shall authorize execution of the warrant as a summons. The summons shall be served on a parent or legal guardian and the juvenile, and a copy of the summons shall be forwarded to the court in which the violation is to be tried. When a violation of § 4.1-305 or 4.1-1105 is charged by summons, the juvenile shall be entitled to have the charge referred to intake for consideration of informal proceedings pursuant to subsection B, provided that such right is exercised by written notification to the clerk not later than 10 days prior to trial. At the time such summons alleging a violation of § 4.1-305 or 4.1-1105 is served, the officer shall also serve upon the juvenile written notice of the right to have the charge referred to intake on a form approved by the Supreme Court and make return of such service to the court. If the officer fails to make such service or return, the court shall dismiss the summons without prejudice.
4. In the case of offenses, other than marijuana-related offenses, which, if committed by an adult, would be punishable as a Class 3 or Class 4 misdemeanor. In such cases the court may direct that an intake officer proceed as provided in § 16.1-237 on a summons issued by the officer investigating the violation in the same manner as provided by law for adults provided that notice of the summons to appear is mailed by the investigating officer within five days of the issuance of the summons to a parent or legal guardian of the juvenile.
I. Failure to comply with the procedures set forth in this section shall not divest the juvenile court of the jurisdiction granted it in § 16.1-241.
§ 16.1-273. Court may require investigation of social history and preparation of victim impact statement.
A. When a juvenile and domestic relations district court or circuit court has adjudicated any case involving a child subject to the jurisdiction of the court hereunder, except for a traffic violation, a violation of the game and fish law, or a violation of any city ordinance regulating surfing or establishing curfew violations, the court before final disposition thereof may require an investigation, which (i) shall include a drug screening and (ii) may, and for the purposes of subdivision A 14 or 17 of § 16.1-278.8 shall, include a social history of the physical, mental, and social conditions, including an assessment of any affiliation with a criminal street gang as defined in § 18.2-46.1, and personality of the child and the facts and circumstances surrounding the violation of law. However, in the case of a juvenile adjudicated delinquent on the basis of an act committed on or after January 1, 2000, which would be (a) a felony if committed by an adult, or (b) a violation under Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) or Article 1.1 (§ 18.2-265.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 and such offense would be punishable as a Class 1 or Class 2 misdemeanor if committed by an adult, or (c) a violation of § 4.1-1105, the court shall order the juvenile to undergo a drug screening. If the drug screening indicates that the juvenile has a substance abuse or dependence problem, an assessment shall be completed by a certified substance abuse counselor as defined in § 54.1-3500 employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice or by a locally operated court services unit or by an individual employed by or currently under contract to such agencies and who is specifically trained to conduct such assessments under the supervision of such counselor.
B. The court also shall, on motion of the attorney for the Commonwealth with the consent of the victim, or may in its discretion, require the preparation of a victim impact statement in accordance with the provisions of § 19.2-299.1 if the court determines that the victim may have suffered significant physical, psychological, or economic injury as a result of the violation of law.
§ 16.1-278.9. Delinquent children; loss of driving privileges for alcohol, firearm, and drug offenses; truancy.
A. If a court has found facts which would justify a finding that a child at least 13 years of age at the time of the offense is delinquent and such finding involves (i) a violation of § 18.2-266 or of a similar ordinance of any county, city, or town; (ii) a refusal to take a breath test in violation of § 18.2-268.2; (iii) a felony violation of Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250; (iv) a misdemeanor violation of Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 or a violation of § 4.1-1105; (v) the unlawful purchase, possession, or consumption of alcohol in violation of § 4.1-305 or the unlawful drinking or possession of alcoholic beverages in or on public school grounds in violation of § 4.1-309; (vi) public intoxication in violation of § 18.2-388 or a similar ordinance of a county, city, or town; (vii) the unlawful use or possession of a handgun or possession of a "streetsweeper" as defined below; or (viii) a violation of § 18.2-83, the court shall order, in addition to any other penalty that it may impose as provided by law for the offense, that the child be denied a driver's license. In addition to any other penalty authorized by this section, if the offense involves a violation designated under clause (i) and the child was transporting a person 17 years of age or younger, the court shall impose the additional fine and order community service as provided in § 18.2-270. If the offense involves a violation designated under clause (i), (ii), (iii), or (viii), the denial of a driver's license shall be for a period of one year or until the juvenile reaches the age of 17, whichever is longer, for a first such offense or for a period of one year or until the juvenile reaches the age of 18, whichever is longer, for a second or subsequent such offense. If the offense involves a violation designated under clause (iv), (v), or (vi) the denial of driving privileges shall be for a period of six months unless the offense is committed by a child under the age of 16 years and three months, in which case the child's ability to apply for a driver's license shall be delayed for a period of six months following the date he reaches the age of 16 and three months. If the offense involves a first violation designated under clause (v) or (vi), the court shall impose the license sanction and may enter a judgment of guilt or, without entering a judgment of guilt, may defer disposition of the delinquency charge until such time as the court disposes of the case pursuant to subsection F. If the offense involves a violation designated under clause (iii) or (iv), the court shall impose the license sanction and shall dispose of the delinquency charge pursuant to the provisions of this chapter or § 18.2-251. If the offense involves a violation designated under clause (vii), the denial of driving privileges shall be for a period of not less than 30 days, except when the offense involves possession of a concealed handgun or a striker 12, commonly called a "streetsweeper," or any semi-automatic folding stock shotgun of like kind with a spring tension drum magazine capable of holding 12 shotgun shells, in which case the denial of driving privileges shall be for a period of two years unless the offense is committed by a child under the age of 16 years and three months, in which event the child's ability to apply for a driver's license shall be delayed for a period of two years following the date he reaches the age of 16 and three months.
A1. If a court finds that a child at least 13 years of age has failed to comply with school attendance and meeting requirements as provided in § 22.1-258, the court shall order the denial of the child's driving privileges for a period of not less than 30 days. If such failure to comply involves a child under the age of 16 years and three months, the child's ability to apply for a driver's license shall be delayed for a period of not less than 30 days following the date he reaches the age of 16 and three months.
If the court finds a second or subsequent such offense, it may order the denial of a driver's license for a period of one year or until the juvenile reaches the age of 18, whichever is longer, or delay the child's ability to apply for a driver's license for a period of one year following the date he reaches the age of 16 and three months, as may be appropriate.
A2. If a court finds that a child at least 13 years of age has refused to take a blood test in violation of § 18.2-268.2, the court shall order that the child be denied a driver's license for a period of one year or until the juvenile reaches the age of 17, whichever is longer, for a first such offense or for a period of one year or until the juvenile reaches the age of 18, whichever is longer, for a second or subsequent such offense.
B. Any child who has a driver's license at the time of the offense or at the time of the court's finding as provided in subsection A1 or A2 shall be ordered to surrender his driver's license, which shall be held in the physical custody of the court during any period of license denial.
C. The court shall report any order issued under this section to the Department of Motor Vehicles, which shall preserve a record thereof. The report and the record shall include a statement as to whether the child was represented by or waived counsel or whether the order was issued pursuant to subsection A1 or A2. Notwithstanding the provisions of Article 12 (§ 16.1-299 et seq.) or the provisions of Title 46.2, this record shall be available only to all law-enforcement officers, attorneys for the Commonwealth and courts. No other record of the proceeding shall be forwarded to the Department of Motor Vehicles unless the proceeding results in an adjudication of guilt pursuant to subsection F.
The Department of Motor Vehicles shall refuse to issue a driver's license to any child denied a driver's license until such time as is stipulated in the court order or until notification by the court of withdrawal of the order of denial under subsection E.
D. If the finding as to the child involves a violation designated under clause (i), (ii), (iii) or (vi) of subsection A or a violation designated under subsection A2, the child may be referred to a certified alcohol safety action program in accordance with § 18.2-271.1 upon such terms and conditions as the court may set forth. If the finding as to such child involves a violation designated under clause (iii), (iv), (v), (vii) or (viii) of subsection A, such child may be referred to appropriate rehabilitative or educational services upon such terms and conditions as the court may set forth.
The court, in its discretion and upon a demonstration of hardship, may authorize the use of a restricted permit to operate a motor vehicle by any child who has a driver's license at the time of the offense or at the time of the court's finding as provided in subsection A1 or A2 for any of the purposes set forth in subsection E of § 18.2-271.1 or for travel to and from school, except that no restricted license shall be issued for travel to and from home and school when school-provided transportation is available and no restricted license shall be issued if the finding as to such child involves a violation designated under clause (iii) or (iv) of subsection A, or if it involves a second or subsequent violation of any offense designated in subsection A, a second finding by the court of failure to comply with school attendance and meeting requirements as provided in subsection A1, or a second or subsequent finding by the court of a refusal to take a blood test as provided in subsection A2. The issuance of the restricted permit shall be set forth within the court order, a copy of which shall be provided to the child, and shall specifically enumerate the restrictions imposed and contain such information regarding the child as is reasonably necessary to identify him. The child may operate a motor vehicle under the court order in accordance with its terms. Any child who operates a motor vehicle in violation of any restrictions imposed pursuant to this section is guilty of a violation of § 46.2-301.
E. Upon petition made at least 90 days after issuance of the order, the court may review and withdraw any order of denial of a driver's license if for a first such offense or finding as provided in subsection A1 or A2. For a second or subsequent such offense or finding, the order may not be reviewed and withdrawn until one year after its issuance.
F. If the finding as to such child involves a first violation designated under clause (vii) of subsection A, upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions prescribed by the court and after the child's driver's license has been restored, the court shall or, in the event the violation resulted in the injury or death of any person or if the finding involves a violation designated under clause (i), (ii), (v), or (vi) of subsection A, may discharge the child and dismiss the proceedings against him. Discharge and dismissal under these provisions shall be without an adjudication of guilt but a record of the proceeding shall be retained for the purpose of applying this section in subsequent proceedings. Failure of the child to fulfill such terms and conditions shall result in an adjudication of guilt. If the finding as to such child involves a violation designated under clause (iii) or (iv) of subsection A, the charge shall not be dismissed pursuant to this subsection but shall be disposed of pursuant to the provisions of this chapter or § 18.2-251. If the finding as to such child involves a second violation under clause (v), (vi) or (vii) of subsection A, the charge shall not be dismissed pursuant to this subsection but shall be disposed of under § 16.1-278.8.
§ 17.1-276. Fee allowed for providing secure remote access to land records.
A. A clerk of the circuit court who provides secure remote access to land records pursuant to § 17.1-294 may charge a fee as provided in this section. The fee shall be paid to the clerk's office and deposited by the clerk into the clerk's nonreverting local fund to be used to cover operational expenses as defined in § 17.1-295. The clerk may charge a flat clerk's fee to be assessed for each subscriber, as defined in § 17.1-295, in an amount not to exceed $50 per month and a separate fee per image downloaded in an amount not to exceed the fee provided in subdivision A 8 of § 17.1-275. The clerk's fees shall be used to cover operational expenses as defined in § 17.1-295.
The Office of the Attorney General, the Division of Debt Collection, the Department of Transportation, the Virginia Outdoors Foundation, the Department of Historic Resources, the Department of General Services, the Department of Conservation and Recreation, the Department of Forestry, the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Department of Rail and Public Transportation, and the State Corporation Commission shall be exempt from paying any fee for remote access to land records. If any clerk contracts with an outside vendor to provide remote access to land records to subscribers, such contract shall contain a provision exempting the Office of the Attorney General, the Division of Debt Collection, the Department of Transportation, the Virginia Outdoors Foundation, the Department of Historic Resources, the Department of General Services, the Department of Conservation and Recreation, the Department of Forestry, the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Department of Rail and Public Transportation, and the State Corporation Commission from paying any access or subscription fee.
B. The circuit court clerk shall enter into an agreement with each person whom the clerk authorizes to have remote access, in accordance with the security standards established by the Virginia Information Technologies Agency. Any such agreement between a state agency or employee thereof acting in the employee's official capacity and the clerk or an outside vendor contracted by the clerk to provide remote access to land records to subscribers, or such an agreement between a state agency or employee thereof acting in the employee's official capacity and both the clerk and the outside vendor, shall not contain any provision requiring the state agency or employee thereof acting in the employee's official capacity to indemnify the clerk or the vendor. Any such agreement between a state agency and the clerk or an outside vendor shall provide that the state agency is required to monitor its employees' activity under such agreement to ensure compliance with its terms.
C. The clerk may establish a program under which the clerk assesses a reasonable convenience fee that shall not exceed $2 per transaction for remote access to land records and a separate fee per image downloaded in an amount not to exceed the fee provided in subdivision A 8 of § 17.1-275.
D. Nothing herein shall be construed to require the use by the general public of the secure remote access to land records made available by the clerk, and such records may continue to be accessed in person in the clerk's office.
§ 18.2-46.1. Definitions.
As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Act of violence" means those felony offenses described in subsection C of § 17.1-805 or subsection A of § 19.2-297.1.
"Criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of three or more persons, whether formal or informal, (i) which has as one of its primary objectives or activities the commission of one or more criminal activities; (ii) which has an identifiable name or identifying sign or symbol; and (iii) whose members individually or collectively have engaged in the commission of, attempt to commit, conspiracy to commit, or solicitation of two or more predicate criminal acts, at least one of which is an act of violence, provided such acts were not part of a common act or transaction.
"Predicate criminal act" means (i) an act of violence; (ii) any violation of § 18.2-42, 18.2-46.3, 18.2-56.1, 18.2-57, 18.2-57.2, 18.2-59, 18.2-83, 18.2-95, 18.2-103.1, 18.2-108.1, 18.2-121, 18.2-127, 18.2-128, 18.2-137, 18.2-138, 18.2-146, 18.2-147, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.03, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.2, 18.2-287.4, 18.2-300, 18.2-308.1, 18.2-308.2, 18.2-308.2:01, 18.2-308.4, or 18.2-357.1; (iii) a felony violation of § 18.2-60.3, 18.2-346.01, 18.2-348, or 18.2-349; (iv) a felony violation of § 4.1-1101, or 18.2-248, or 18.2-248.1 or a conspiracy to commit a felony violation of § 4.1-1101, or 18.2-248, or 18.2-248.1; (v) any violation of a local ordinance adopted pursuant to § 15.2-1812.2; or (vi) any substantially similar offense under the laws of another state or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the United States.
§ 18.2-57. Assault and battery; penalty.
A. Any person who commits a simple assault or assault and battery is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor, and if the person intentionally selects the person against whom a simple assault is committed because of his race, religious conviction, gender, disability, gender identity, sexual orientation, color, or ethnic or national origin, the penalty upon conviction shall include a term of confinement of at least six months.
B. However, if a person intentionally selects the person against whom an assault and battery resulting in bodily injury is committed because of his race, religious conviction, gender, disability, gender identity, sexual orientation, color, or ethnic or national origin, the person is guilty of a Class 6 felony, and the penalty upon conviction shall include a term of confinement of at least six months.
C. In addition, if any person commits an assault or an assault and battery against another knowing or having reason to know that such other person is a judge, a magistrate, a law-enforcement officer as defined in subsection H, a correctional officer as defined in § 53.1-1, a person directly involved in the care, treatment, or supervision of inmates in the custody of the Department of Corrections or an employee of a local or regional correctional facility directly involved in the care, treatment, or supervision of inmates in the custody of the facility, a person directly involved in the care, treatment, or supervision of persons in the custody of or under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice, an employee or other individual who provides control, care, or treatment of sexually violent predators committed to the custody of the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, a firefighter as defined in § 65.2-102, or a volunteer firefighter or any emergency medical services personnel member who is employed by or is a volunteer of an emergency medical services agency or as a member of a bona fide volunteer fire department or volunteer emergency medical services agency, regardless of whether a resolution has been adopted by the governing body of a political subdivision recognizing such firefighters or emergency medical services personnel as employees, engaged in the performance of his public duties anywhere in the Commonwealth, such person is guilty of a Class 6 felony, and, upon conviction, the sentence of such person shall include a mandatory minimum term of confinement of six months.
Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to affect the right of any person charged with a violation of this section from asserting and presenting evidence in support of any defenses to the charge that may be available under common law.
D. In addition, if any person commits a battery against another knowing or having reason to know that such other person is a full-time or part-time employee of any public or private elementary or secondary school and is engaged in the performance of his duties as such, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and the sentence of such person upon conviction shall include a sentence of 15 days in jail, two days of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of confinement. However, if the offense is committed by use of a firearm or other weapon prohibited on school property pursuant to § 18.2-308.1, the person shall serve a mandatory minimum sentence of confinement of six months.
E. In addition, any person who commits a battery against another knowing or having reason to know that such individual is a health care provider as defined in § 8.01-581.1 who is engaged in the performance of his duties in a hospital or in an emergency room on the premises of any clinic or other facility rendering emergency medical care is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. The sentence of such person, upon conviction, shall include a term of confinement of 15 days in jail, two days of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of confinement.
F. In addition, any person who commits an assault or an assault and battery against another knowing or having reason to know that such individual is an operator of a vehicle operated by a public transportation service as defined in § 18.2-160.2 who is engaged in the performance of his duties is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. The sentence of such person, upon conviction, shall also prohibit such person from entering or riding in any vehicle operated by the public transportation service that employed such operator for a period of not less than six months as a term and condition of such sentence.
G. In addition, any person who commits a battery against another knowing or having reason to know that such individual is a sports official for an entity sponsoring an interscholastic or intercollegiate sports event or any person performing services as a sports official for a public entity or a private, nonprofit organization that sponsors an amateur sports event who (i) is engaged in the performance of his duties or (ii) is on the premises of such event prior to engaging in his duties or upon conclusion of his duties is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. The sentence of such person, upon conviction, may also prohibit such person from attending any such sports event operated by the entity or organization that employed such sports official for a period of not less than six months as a term and condition of such sentence.
H. As used in this section:
"Disability" means a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of a person's major life activities.
"Hospital" means a public or private institution licensed pursuant to Chapter 5 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Title 32.1 or Article 2 (§ 37.2-403 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2.
"Judge" means any justice or judge of a court of record of the Commonwealth including a judge designated under § 17.1-105, a judge under temporary recall under § 17.1-106, or a judge pro tempore under § 17.1-109, any member of the State Corporation Commission, or of the Virginia Workers' Compensation Commission, and any judge of a district court of the Commonwealth or any substitute judge of such district court.
"Law-enforcement officer" means any full-time or part-time employee of a police department or sheriff's office that is part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof who is responsible for the prevention or detection of crime and the enforcement of the penal, traffic or highway laws of the Commonwealth, any conservation officer of the Department of Conservation and Recreation commissioned pursuant to § 10.1-115, any special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, conservation police officers appointed pursuant to § 29.1-200, full-time sworn members of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles appointed pursuant to § 46.2-217, and any employee with internal investigations authority designated by the Department of Corrections pursuant to subdivision 11 of § 53.1-10, and such officer also includes jail officers in local and regional correctional facilities, all deputy sheriffs, whether assigned to law-enforcement duties, court services or local jail responsibilities, auxiliary police officers appointed or provided for pursuant to §§ 15.2-1731 and 15.2-1733, auxiliary deputy sheriffs appointed pursuant to § 15.2-1603, police officers of the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority pursuant to § 5.1-158, and fire marshals appointed pursuant to § 27-30 when such fire marshals have police powers as set out in §§ 27-34.2 and 27-34.2:1.
"School security officer" means the same as that term is defined in § 9.1-101.
"Sports official" includes an umpire, referee, judge, scorekeeper, timekeeper, or other person who is a neutral participant in a sports event.
I. "Simple assault" or "assault and battery" shall not be construed to include the use of, by any school security officer or full-time or part-time employee of any public or private elementary or secondary school while acting in the course and scope of his official capacity, any of the following: (i) incidental, minor or reasonable physical contact or other actions designed to maintain order and control; (ii) reasonable and necessary force to quell a disturbance or remove a student from the scene of a disturbance that threatens physical injury to persons or damage to property; (iii) reasonable and necessary force to prevent a student from inflicting physical harm on himself; (iv) reasonable and necessary force for self-defense or the defense of others; or (v) reasonable and necessary force to obtain possession of weapons or other dangerous objects or controlled substances or associated paraphernalia that are upon the person of the student or within his control.
In determining whether a person was acting within the exceptions provided in this subsection, due deference shall be given to reasonable judgments that were made by a school security officer or full-time or part-time employee of any public or private elementary or secondary school at the time of the event.
§ 18.2-246.6. Definitions.
For purposes of this article:
"Adult" means a person who is at least the legal minimum purchasing age.
"Board" means the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority.
"Consumer" means an individual who is not permitted as a wholesaler pursuant to § 58.1-1011 or who is not a retailer.
"Cigarette" means the same as that term is defined in § 3.2-4200.
"Delivery sale" means any sale of cigarettes to a consumer in the Commonwealth regardless of whether the seller is located in the Commonwealth where either (i) the purchaser submits the order for such sale by means of a telephonic or other method of voice transmission, the mails or any other delivery service, or the Internet or other online service or (ii) the cigarettes are delivered by use of the mails or a delivery service. A sale of cigarettes not for personal consumption to a person who is a wholesale dealer or retail dealer, as such terms are defined in § 58.1-1000, shall not be a delivery sale.
"Delivery service" means any person who is engaged in the commercial delivery of letters, packages, or other containers.
"Legal minimum purchasing age" is the minimum age at which an individual may legally purchase cigarettes in the Commonwealth.
"Mails" or "mailing" means the shipment of cigarettes through the United States Postal Service.
"Shipping container" means a container in which cigarettes are shipped in connection with a delivery sale.
"Shipping documents" means bills of lading, airbills, or any other documents used to evidence the undertaking by a delivery service to deliver letters, packages, or other containers.
§ 18.2-247. Use of terms "controlled substances," "Schedules I, II, III, IV, V, and VI," "imitation controlled substance," and "counterfeit controlled substance" in Title 18.2.
A. Wherever the terms "controlled substances" and "Schedules I, II, III, IV, V, and VI" are used in Title 18.2, such terms refer to those terms as they are used or defined in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).
B. The term "imitation controlled substance" when used in this article means (i) a counterfeit controlled substance or (ii) a pill, capsule, tablet, or substance in any form whatsoever which that is not a controlled substance subject to abuse, and:
1. Which by overall dosage unit appearance, including color, shape, size, marking, and packaging or by representations made, would cause the likelihood that such a pill, capsule, tablet, or substance in any other form whatsoever will be mistaken for a controlled substance unless such substance was introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of the controlled substance which it is alleged to imitate; or
2. Which by express or implied representations purports to act like a controlled substance as a stimulant or depressant of the central nervous system and which is not commonly used or recognized for use in that particular formulation for any purpose other than for such stimulant or depressant effect, unless marketed, promoted, or sold as permitted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
C. In determining whether a pill, capsule, tablet, or substance in any other form whatsoever, is an "imitation controlled substance," there shall be considered, in addition to all other relevant factors, comparisons with accepted methods of marketing for legitimate nonprescription drugs for medicinal purposes rather than for drug abuse or any similar nonmedicinal use, including consideration of the packaging of the drug and its appearance in overall finished dosage form, promotional materials or representations, oral or written, concerning the drug, and the methods of distribution of the drug and where and how it is sold to the public.
D. The term "marijuana" when used in this article means any part of a plant of the genus Cannabis, whether growing or not, its seeds or resin; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, its resin, or any extract containing one or more cannabinoids. "Marijuana" does not include (i) the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalk, oil or cake made from the seed of such plant, unless such stalks, fiber, oil or cake is combined with other parts of plants of the genus Cannabis; (ii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person registered pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 or his agent; (iii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person who holds a hemp producer license issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture pursuant to 7 C.F.R. Part 990; (iv) a hemp product, as defined in § 3.2-4112; (v) an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1; or (vi) any substance containing a tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether that has been placed by the Board of Pharmacy into one of the schedules set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) pursuant to § 54.1-3443.
E. The term "counterfeit controlled substance" means a controlled substance that, without authorization, bears, is packaged in a container or wrapper that bears, or is otherwise labeled to bear, the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint or device or any likeness thereof, of a drug manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor other than the manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor who did in fact so manufacture, process, pack or distribute such drug.
F. E. The term "tetrahydrocannabinol" means any naturally occurring or synthetic tetrahydrocannabinol, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation and any preparation, mixture, or substance containing, or mixed or infused with, any detectable amount of tetrahydrocannabinol. For the purposes of this definition, "isomer" means the optical, position, and geometric isomers.
G. F. The term "total tetrahydrocannabinol" means the sum, after the application of any necessary conversion factor, of the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinol and the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinolic acid.
H. G. The Department of Forensic Science shall determine the proper methods for detecting the concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol in substances for the purposes of this title, Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, and § 54.1-3401. The testing methodology shall use post-decarboxylation testing or other equivalent method and shall consider the potential conversion of tetrahydrocannabinolic acid into tetrahydrocannabinol.
§ 18.2-248. Manufacturing, selling, giving, distributing, or possessing with intent to manufacture, sell, give, or distribute a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance prohibited; penalties.
A. Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), it shall be is unlawful for any person to manufacture, sell, give, distribute, or possess with intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance.
B. In determining whether any person intends to manufacture, sell, give or distribute an imitation controlled substance, the court may consider, in addition to all other relevant evidence, whether any distribution or attempted distribution of such pill, capsule, tablet or substance in any other form whatsoever included an exchange of or a demand for money or other property as consideration, and, if so, whether the amount of such consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable value of such pill, capsule, tablet or substance in any other form whatsoever, considering the actual chemical composition of such pill, capsule, tablet or substance in any other form whatsoever and, where applicable, the price at which over-the-counter substances of like chemical composition sell.
C. Except as provided in subsection C1, any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II shall upon conviction be imprisoned for not less than five nor more than 40 years and fined not more than $500,000. Upon a second conviction of such a violation, and it is alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information that the person has been before convicted of such an offense or of a substantially similar offense in any other jurisdiction, which offense would be a felony if committed in the Commonwealth, and such prior conviction occurred before the date of the offense alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information, any such person may, in the discretion of the court or jury imposing the sentence, be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for any period not less than five years, three years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence, and he shall be fined not more than $500,000.
When a person is convicted of a third or subsequent offense under this subsection and it is alleged in the warrant, indictment or information that he has been before convicted of two or more such offenses or of substantially similar offenses in any other jurisdiction which offenses would be felonies if committed in the Commonwealth and such prior convictions occurred before the date of the offense alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information, he shall be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for a period of not less than 10 years, 10 years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence, and he shall be fined not more than $500,000.
Any person who manufactures, sells, gives, distributes or possesses with the intent to manufacture, sell, give, or distribute the following is guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for five years to life, five years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence:
1. 100 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;
2. 500 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:
a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;
b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;
c. Cocaine base;
d. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or
e. Any compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions 2a through 2d; or
3. 10 grams or more of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or 20 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers.
The mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be imposed for a violation of this subsection shall not be applicable if the court finds that:
a. The person does not have a prior conviction for an offense listed in subsection C of § 17.1-805;
b. The person did not use violence or credible threats of violence or possess a firearm or other dangerous weapon in connection with the offense or induce another participant in the offense to do so;
c. The offense did not result in death or serious bodily injury to any person;
d. The person was not an organizer, leader, manager, or supervisor of others in the offense, and was not engaged in a continuing criminal enterprise as defined in subsection I; and
e. Not later than the time of the sentencing hearing, the person has truthfully provided to the Commonwealth all information and evidence the person has concerning the offense or offenses that were part of the same course of conduct or of a common scheme or plan, but the fact that the person has no relevant or useful other information to provide or that the Commonwealth already is aware of the information shall not preclude a determination by the court that the defendant has complied with this requirement.
C1. Any person who violates this section with respect to the manufacturing of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or less than 200 grams of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers shall, upon conviction, be imprisoned for not less than 10 nor more than 40 years and fined not more than $500,000. Upon a second conviction of such a violation, any such person may, in the discretion of the court or jury imposing the sentence, be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for any period not less than 10 years, and be fined not more than $500,000. When a person is convicted of a third or subsequent offense under this subsection and it is alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information that he has been previously convicted of two or more such offenses or of substantially similar offenses in any other jurisdiction, which offenses would be felonies if committed in the Commonwealth and such prior convictions occurred before the date of the offense alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information, he shall be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for a period not less than 10 years, three years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence and he shall be fined not more than $500,000.
Upon conviction, in addition to any other punishment, a person found guilty of this offense shall be ordered by the court to make restitution, as the court deems appropriate, to any innocent property owner whose property is damaged, destroyed, or otherwise rendered unusable as a result of such methamphetamine production. This restitution shall include the person's or his estate's estimated or actual expenses associated with cleanup, removal, or repair of the affected property. If the property that is damaged, destroyed, or otherwise rendered unusable as a result of such methamphetamine production is property owned in whole or in part by the person convicted, the court shall order the person to pay to the Methamphetamine Cleanup Fund authorized in § 18.2-248.04 the reasonable estimated or actual expenses associated with cleanup, removal, or repair of the affected property or, if actual or estimated expenses cannot be determined, the sum of $10,000. The convicted person shall also pay the cost of certifying that any building that is cleaned up or repaired pursuant to this section is safe for human occupancy according to the guidelines established pursuant to § 32.1-11.7.
D. If such person proves that he gave, distributed or possessed with intent to give or distribute a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II only as an accommodation to another individual who is not an inmate in a community correctional facility, local correctional facility or state correctional facility as defined in § 53.1-1 or in the custody of an employee thereof, and not with intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the controlled substance to use or become addicted to or dependent upon such controlled substance, he shall be is guilty of a Class 5 felony.
E. If the violation of the provisions of this article consists of the filling by a pharmacist of the prescription of a person authorized under this article to issue the same, which prescription has not been received in writing by the pharmacist prior to the filling thereof, and such written prescription is in fact received by the pharmacist within one week of the time of filling the same, or if such violation consists of a request by such authorized person for the filling by a pharmacist of a prescription which has not been received in writing by the pharmacist and such prescription is, in fact, written at the time of such request and delivered to the pharmacist within one week thereof, either such offense shall constitute a Class 4 misdemeanor.
E1. Any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule III except for an anabolic steroid classified in Schedule III, constituting a violation of § 18.2-248.5, shall be is guilty of a Class 5 felony.
E2. Any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule IV shall be is guilty of a Class 6 felony.
E3. Any person who proves that he gave, distributed or possessed with the intent to give or distribute a controlled substance classified in Schedule III or IV, except for an anabolic steroid classified in Schedule III, constituting a violation of § 18.2-248.5, only as an accommodation to another individual who is not an inmate in a community correctional facility, local correctional facility or state correctional facility as defined in § 53.1-1 or in the custody of an employee thereof, and not with the intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the controlled substance to use or become addicted to or dependent upon such controlled substance, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
F. Any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule V or Schedule VI or an imitation controlled substance which that imitates a controlled substance classified in Schedule V or Schedule VI, shall be is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
G. Any person who violates this section with respect to an imitation controlled substance which that imitates a controlled substance classified in Schedule I, II, III, or IV shall be is guilty of a Class 6 felony. In any prosecution brought under this subsection, it is not a defense to a violation of this subsection that the defendant believed the imitation controlled substance to actually be a controlled substance.
H. Any person who manufactures, sells, gives, distributes or possesses with the intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute the following:
1. 1.0 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;
2. 5.0 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:
a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;
b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;
c. Cocaine base;
d. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or
e. Any compound, mixture, or preparation which that contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions a through d; or
3. 100 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marijuana; or
4. 100 grams or more of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or 200 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers shall be is guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for 20 years to life, 20 years of which shall be a mandatory minimum sentence. Such mandatory minimum sentence shall not be applicable if the court finds that (i) the person does not have a prior conviction for an offense listed in subsection C of § 17.1-805; (ii) the person did not use violence or credible threats of violence or possess a firearm or other dangerous weapon in connection with the offense or induce another participant in the offense to do so; (iii) the offense did not result in death or serious bodily injury to any person; (iv) the person was not an organizer, leader, manager, or supervisor of others in the offense, and was not engaged in a continuing criminal enterprise as defined in subsection I of this section; and (v) not later than the time of the sentencing hearing, the person has truthfully provided to the Commonwealth all information and evidence the person has concerning the offense or offenses that were part of the same course of conduct or of a common scheme or plan, but the fact that the person has no relevant or useful other information to provide or that the Commonwealth already is aware of the information shall not preclude a determination by the court that the defendant has complied with this requirement.
H1. Any person who was the principal or one of several principal administrators, organizers or leaders of a continuing criminal enterprise shall be is guilty of a felony if (i) the enterprise received at least $100,000 but less than $250,000 in gross receipts during any 12-month period of its existence from the manufacture, importation, or distribution of heroin or cocaine or ecgonine or methamphetamine or the derivatives, salts, isomers, or salts of isomers thereof or marijuana or (ii) the person engaged in the enterprise to manufacture, sell, give, distribute or possess with the intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute the following during any 12-month period of its existence:
1. At least 1.0 kilograms but less than 5.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;
2. At least 5.0 kilograms but less than 10 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:
a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;
b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;
c. Cocaine base;
d. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or
e. Any compound, mixture, or preparation which that contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions a through d; or
3. At least 100 kilograms but less than 250 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marijuana; or
4. At least 100 grams but less than 250 grams of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or at least 200 grams but less than 1.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers.
A conviction under this section shall be punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for 20 years to life, 20 years of which shall be a mandatory minimum sentence.
H2. Any person who was the principal or one of several principal administrators, organizers or leaders of a continuing criminal enterprise if (i) the enterprise received $250,000 or more in gross receipts during any 12-month period of its existence from the manufacture, importation, or distribution of heroin or cocaine or ecgonine or methamphetamine or the derivatives, salts, isomers, or salts of isomers thereof or marijuana or (ii) the person engaged in the enterprise to manufacture, sell, give, distribute or possess with the intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute the following during any 12-month period of its existence:
1. At least 5.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;
2. At least 10 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:
a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;
b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;
c. Cocaine base;
d. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or
e. Any compound, mixture, or preparation which that contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions a through d; or
3. At least 250 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marijuana; or
4. At least 250 grams of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or at least 1.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers shall be is guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for life, which shall be served with no suspension in whole or in part. Such punishment shall be made to run consecutively with any other sentence. However, the court may impose a mandatory minimum sentence of 40 years if the court finds that the defendant substantially cooperated with law-enforcement authorities.
I. For purposes of this section, a person is engaged in a continuing criminal enterprise if (i) he violates any provision of this section, the punishment for which is a felony and either (ii) such violation is a part of a continuing series of violations of this section which are undertaken by such person in concert with five or more other persons with respect to whom such person occupies a position of organizer, a supervisory position, or any other position of management, and from which such person obtains substantial income or resources or (iii) such violation is committed, with respect to methamphetamine or other controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II, for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang as defined in § 18.2-46.1.
J. Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), any person who possesses any two or more different substances listed below with the intent to manufacture methamphetamine, methcathinone, or amphetamine is guilty of a Class 6 felony: liquefied ammonia gas, ammonium nitrate, ether, hypophosphorus acid solutions, hypophosphite salts, hydrochloric acid, iodine crystals or tincture of iodine, phenylacetone, phenylacetic acid, red phosphorus, methylamine, methyl formamide, lithium, sodium metal, sulfuric acid, sodium hydroxide, potassium dichromate, sodium dichromate, potassium permanganate, chromium trioxide, methylbenzene, methamphetamine precursor drugs, trichloroethane, or 2-propanone.
K. The term "methamphetamine precursor drug," when used in this article, means a drug or product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine or any of their salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers.
§ 18.2-248.01. Transporting controlled substances into the Commonwealth; penalty.
Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) it is unlawful for any person to transport into the Commonwealth by any means with intent to sell or distribute one ounce or more of cocaine, coca leaves or any salt, compound, derivative or preparation thereof as described in Schedule II of the Drug Control Act or one ounce or more of any other Schedule I or II controlled substance or five or more pounds of marijuana. A violation of this section shall constitute a separate and distinct felony. Upon conviction, the person shall be sentenced to not less than five years nor more than 40 years imprisonment, three years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment, and a fine not to exceed $1,000,000 $1 million. A second or subsequent conviction hereunder shall be punishable by a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of 10 years, which shall be served consecutively with any other sentence.
§ 18.2-251. Persons charged with first offense may be placed on probation; conditions; substance abuse screening, assessment treatment and education programs or services; drug tests; costs and fees; violations; discharge.
Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any criminal offense under this article or under any statute of the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, marijuana, or stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic drugs, with the exception of any misdemeanor conviction for possession of marijuana, or has not previously had a proceeding against him for violation of such an offense dismissed as provided in this section, except a dismissal of a misdemeanor offense for possession of marijuana, pleads guilty to or enters a plea of not guilty to possession of a controlled substance under § 18.2-250, the court, upon such plea if the facts found by the court would justify a finding of guilt, without entering a judgment of guilt and with the consent of the accused, may defer further proceedings and place him on probation upon terms and conditions. If the court defers further proceedings, at that time the court shall determine whether the clerk of court has been provided with the fingerprint identification information or fingerprints of the person, taken by a law-enforcement officer pursuant to § 19.2-390, and, if not, shall order that the fingerprints and photograph of the person be taken by a law-enforcement officer.
As a term or condition, the court shall require the accused to undergo a substance abuse assessment pursuant to § 18.2-251.01 or 19.2-299.2, as appropriate, and enter treatment and/or education program or services, if available, such as, in the opinion of the court, may be best suited to the needs of the accused based upon consideration of the substance abuse assessment. The program or services may be located in the judicial district in which the charge is brought or in any other judicial district as the court may provide. The services shall be provided by (i) a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, by a similar program which is made available through the Department of Corrections, (ii) a local community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174, or (iii) an ASAP program certified by the Commission on VASAP.
The court shall require the person entering such program under the provisions of this section to pay all or part of the costs of the program, including the costs of the screening, assessment, testing, and treatment, based upon the accused's ability to pay unless the person is determined by the court to be indigent.
As a condition of probation, the court shall require the accused (a) to successfully complete treatment or education program or services, (b) to remain drug and alcohol free during the period of probation and submit to such tests during that period as may be necessary and appropriate to determine if the accused is drug and alcohol free, (c) to make reasonable efforts to secure and maintain employment, and (d) to comply with a plan of at least 100 hours of community service for a felony and up to 24 hours of community service for a misdemeanor. Such testing shall be conducted by personnel of the supervising probation agency or personnel of any program or agency approved by the supervising probation agency.
Upon violation of a term or condition, the court may enter an adjudication of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided. Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions, and upon determining that the clerk of court has been provided with the fingerprint identification information or fingerprints of such person, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against him. Discharge and dismissal under this section shall be without adjudication of guilt and is a conviction only for the purposes of applying this section in subsequent proceedings.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, whenever a court places an individual on probation upon terms and conditions pursuant to this section, such action shall be treated as a conviction for purposes of § 22.1-315. The provisions of this paragraph shall not be applicable to any offense for which a juvenile has had his license suspended or denied pursuant to § 16.1-278.9 for the same offense.
§ 18.2-251.03. Arrest and prosecution when experiencing or reporting an overdose or act of sexual violence.
A. For purposes of this section:
"Act of sexual violence" means an alleged violation of § 18.2-361, 18.2-370, or 18.2-370.1 or the laws pertaining to criminal sexual assault pursuant to Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4.
"Overdose" means a life-threatening condition resulting from the consumption or use of a controlled substance, alcohol, or any combination of such substances.
B. No individual shall be subject to arrest or prosecution for the unlawful purchase, possession, or consumption of alcohol pursuant to § 4.1-305, unlawful purchase, possession, or consumption of marijuana pursuant to § 4.1-1105.1 4.1-1105, involuntary manslaughter pursuant to § 18.2-36.3, possession of a controlled substance pursuant to § 18.2-250, intoxication in public pursuant to § 18.2-388, or possession of controlled paraphernalia pursuant to § 54.1-3466 if:
1. Such individual (i) in good faith, seeks or obtains emergency medical attention (a) for himself, if he is experiencing an overdose, or (b) for another individual, if such other individual is experiencing an overdose; (ii) is experiencing an overdose and another individual, in good faith, seeks or obtains emergency medical attention for such individual, by contemporaneously reporting such overdose to a firefighter, as defined in § 65.2-102, emergency medical services personnel, as defined in § 32.1-111.1, a law-enforcement officer, as defined in § 9.1-101, or an emergency 911 system; or (iii) in good faith, renders emergency care or assistance, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or the administration of naloxone or other opioid antagonist for overdose reversal, to an individual experiencing an overdose while another individual seeks or obtains emergency medical attention in accordance with this subdivision;
2. Such individual remains at the scene of the overdose or at any alternative location to which he or the person requiring emergency medical attention has been transported until a law-enforcement officer responds to the report of an overdose. If no law-enforcement officer is present at the scene of the overdose or at the alternative location, then such individual shall cooperate with law enforcement as otherwise set forth herein;
3. Such individual identifies himself to the law-enforcement officer who responds to the report of the overdose; and
4. The evidence for the prosecution of an offense enumerated in this subsection was obtained as a result of the individual seeking or obtaining emergency medical attention or rendering emergency care or assistance.
C. No individual shall be subject to arrest or prosecution for the unlawful purchase, possession, or consumption of alcohol pursuant to § 4.1-305, unlawful purchase, possession, or consumption of marijuana pursuant to § 4.1-1105.1 4.1-1105, possession of a controlled substance pursuant to § 18.2-250, intoxication in public pursuant to § 18.2-388, or possession of controlled paraphernalia pursuant to § 54.1-3466 if:
1. Such individual, in good faith, seeks or obtains assistance for himself or another individual from emergency medical services personnel, as defined in § 32.1-111.1, a health care provider, as defined in § 8.01-581.1, or a law-enforcement officer, as defined in § 9.1-101, and seeks to report an act of sexual violence committed against himself or another individual;
2. Such individual identifies himself to the law-enforcement officer who responds to the report of the act of sexual violence; and
3. The evidence for the prosecution of an offense enumerated in this subsection was obtained as a result of the individual seeking or obtaining medical attention, rendering care or assistance, or reporting to law enforcement.
This subsection shall not apply to an individual who is alleged to have committed the act of sexual violence.
D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to any person who seeks or obtains emergency medical attention for himself or another individual, to a person experiencing an overdose or who has experienced an act of sexual violence when another individual seeks or obtains emergency medical attention for him, or to a person who renders emergency care or assistance to an individual experiencing an overdose or who has experienced an act of sexual violence while another person seeks or obtains emergency medical attention during the execution of a search warrant or during the conduct of a lawful search or a lawful arrest.
E. This section does not establish protection from arrest or prosecution for any individual or offense other than those listed in subsection B or C. However, any individual immune to arrest or prosecution under this section shall not have his bail, probation, furlough, supervised release, suspended sentence, or parole revoked for the behavior immune from arrest or prosecution under the provisions of this section.
F. No law-enforcement officer acting in good faith shall be found liable for false arrest if it is later determined that the person arrested was immune from prosecution under this section.
§ 18.2-251.1:1. Possession or distribution of cannabis oil; public schools.
No school nurse employed by a local school board, person employed by a local health department who is assigned to the public school pursuant to an agreement between the local health department and the school board, or other person employed by or contracted with a local school board to deliver health-related services shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-250, or 18.2-255 for the possession or distribution of cannabis oil for storing, dispensing, or administering cannabis oil, in accordance with a policy adopted by the local school board, to a student who has been issued a valid written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601.
§ 18.2-251.1:2. Possession or distribution of cannabis oil; nursing homes and certified nursing facilities; hospice and hospice facilities; assisted living facilities.
No person employed by a nursing home, hospice, hospice facility, or assisted living facility and authorized to possess, distribute, or administer medications to patients or residents shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for the possession or distribution of cannabis oil for the purposes of storing, dispensing, or administering cannabis oil to a patient or resident who has been issued a valid written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601.
§ 18.2-251.1:3. Possession or distribution of cannabis oil, or industrial hemp; laboratories; Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, Department of Law employees.
A. No person employed by an analytical laboratory to retrieve, deliver, or possess cannabis oil or industrial hemp samples from a permitted pharmaceutical processor, a registered industrial hemp grower, a federally licensed hemp producer, or a registered industrial hemp processor for the purpose of performing required testing shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-250, or 18.2-255 for the possession or distribution of cannabis oil or industrial hemp or for storing cannabis oil or industrial hemp for testing purposes in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority and the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
B. No employee of the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services or of the Department of Law shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-247, 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for the possession or distribution of industrial hemp or any substance containing tetrahydrocannabinol when possession of industrial hemp or any substance containing tetrahydrocannabinol is necessary in the performance of his duties.
§ 18.2-252. Suspended sentence conditioned upon substance abuse screening, assessment, testing, and treatment or education.
The trial judge or court trying the case of any person found guilty of a criminal violation of any law concerning the use, in any manner, of drugs, controlled substances, narcotics, marijuana, noxious chemical substances and like substances shall condition any suspended sentence by first requiring such person to agree to undergo a substance abuse screening pursuant to § 18.2-251.01 and to submit to such periodic substance abuse testing, to include alcohol testing, as may be directed by the court. Such testing shall be conducted by the supervising probation agency or by personnel of any program or agency approved by the supervising probation agency. The cost of such testing ordered by the court shall be paid by the Commonwealth and taxed as a part of the costs of such proceedings. The judge or court shall order the person, as a condition of any suspended sentence, to undergo such treatment or education for substance abuse, if available, as the judge or court deems appropriate based upon consideration of the substance abuse assessment. The treatment or education shall be provided by a program or agency licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, by a similar program or services available through the Department of Corrections if the court imposes a sentence of one year or more or, if the court imposes a sentence of 12 months or less, by a similar program or services available through a local or regional jail, a local community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174, or an ASAP program certified by the Commission on VASAP.
§ 18.2-254. Commitment of convicted person for treatment for substance abuse.
A. Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any criminal offense under this article or under any statute of the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, marijuana, or stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic drugs or has not previously had a proceeding against him for violation of such an offense dismissed as provided in § 18.2-251 is found guilty of violating any law concerning the use, in any manner, of drugs, controlled substances, narcotics, marijuana, noxious chemical substances, and like substances, the judge or court shall require such person to undergo a substance abuse screening pursuant to § 18.2-251.01 and to submit to such periodic substance abuse testing, to include alcohol testing, as may be directed by the court. The cost of such testing ordered by the court shall be paid by the Commonwealth and taxed as a part of the costs of the criminal proceedings. The judge or court shall also order the person to undergo such treatment or education for substance abuse, if available, as the judge or court deems appropriate based upon consideration of the substance abuse assessment. The treatment or education shall be provided by a program or agency licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or by a similar program or services available through the Department of Corrections if the court imposes a sentence of one year or more or, if the court imposes a sentence of 12 months or less, by a similar program or services available through a local or regional jail, a local community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174, or an ASAP program certified by the Commission on VASAP.
B. The court trying the case of any person alleged to have committed any criminal offense designated by this article or by the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or in any other criminal case in which the commission of the offense was motivated by or closely related to the use of drugs and determined by the court, pursuant to a substance abuse screening and assessment, to be in need of treatment for the use of drugs may commit, based upon a consideration of the substance abuse assessment, such person, upon his conviction, to any facility for the treatment of persons with substance abuse, licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, if space is available in such facility, for a period of time not in excess of the maximum term of imprisonment specified as the penalty for conviction of such offense or, if sentence was determined by a jury, not in excess of the term of imprisonment as set by such jury. Confinement under such commitment shall be, in all regards, treated as confinement in a penal institution and the person so committed may be convicted of escape if he leaves the place of commitment without authority. A charge of escape may be prosecuted in either the jurisdiction where the treatment facility is located or the jurisdiction where the person was sentenced to commitment. The court may revoke such commitment at any time and transfer the person to an appropriate state or local correctional facility. Upon presentation of a certified statement from the director of the treatment facility to the effect that the confined person has successfully responded to treatment, the court may release such confined person prior to the termination of the period of time for which such person was confined and may suspend the remainder of the term upon such conditions as the court may prescribe.
C. The court trying a case in which commission of the criminal offense was related to the defendant's habitual abuse of alcohol and in which the court determines, pursuant to a substance abuse screening and assessment, that such defendant is in need of treatment, may commit, based upon a consideration of the substance abuse assessment, such person, upon his conviction, to any facility for the treatment of persons with substance abuse licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, if space is available in such facility, for a period of time not in excess of the maximum term of imprisonment specified as the penalty for conviction. Confinement under such commitment shall be, in all regards, treated as confinement in a penal institution and the person so committed may be convicted of escape if he leaves the place of commitment without authority. The court may revoke such commitment at any time and transfer the person to an appropriate state or local correctional facility. Upon presentation of a certified statement from the director of the treatment facility to the effect that the confined person has successfully responded to treatment, the court may release such confined person prior to the termination of the period of time for which such person was confined and may suspend the remainder of the term upon such conditions as the court may prescribe.
§ 18.2-255. Distribution of certain drugs to persons under 18 prohibited; penalty.
A. Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1, it shall be is unlawful for any person who is at least 18 years of age to knowingly or intentionally (i) distribute any drug classified in Schedule I, II, III, or IV or marijuana to any person under 18 years of age who is at least three years his junior or (ii) cause any person under 18 years of age to assist in such distribution of any drug classified in Schedule I, II, III, or IV or marijuana. Any person violating this provision shall upon conviction be imprisoned in a state correctional facility for a period not less than 10 nor more than 50 years, and fined not more than $100,000. Five years of the sentence imposed for a conviction under this section involving a Schedule I or II controlled substance or one ounce or more of marijuana shall be a mandatory minimum sentence. Two years of the sentence imposed for a conviction under this section involving less than one ounce of marijuana shall be a mandatory minimum sentence.
B. It shall be is unlawful for any person who is at least 18 years of age to knowingly or intentionally (i) distribute any imitation controlled substance to a person under 18 years of age who is at least three years his junior or (ii) cause any person under 18 years of age to assist in such distribution of any imitation controlled substance. Any person violating this provision shall be is guilty of a Class 6 felony.
§ 18.2-255.1. Distribution, sale or display of printed material advertising instruments for use in administering controlled substances to minors; penalty.
It shall be is a Class 1 misdemeanor for any person knowingly to sell, distribute, or display for sale to a minor any book, pamphlet, periodical, or other printed matter which that he knows advertises for sale any instrument, device, article, or contrivance for advertised use in unlawfully ingesting, smoking, administering, preparing, or growing marijuana or a controlled substance.
§ 18.2-255.2. Prohibiting the sale or manufacture of drugs on or near certain properties; penalty.
A. It shall be is unlawful for any person to manufacture, sell, or distribute or possess with intent to sell, give, or distribute any controlled substance, or imitation controlled substance, or marijuana while:
1. Upon the property, including buildings and grounds, of any public or private elementary or secondary school, any institution of higher education, or any clearly marked licensed child day center as defined in § 22.1-289.02;
2. Upon public property or any property open to public use within 1,000 feet of the property described in subdivision 1;
3. On any school bus as defined in § 46.2-100;
4. Upon a designated school bus stop, or upon either public property or any property open to public use which is within 1,000 feet of such school bus stop, during the time when school children are waiting to be picked up and transported to or are being dropped off from school or a school-sponsored activity;
5. Upon the property, including buildings and grounds, of any publicly owned or publicly operated recreation or community center facility or any public library; or
6. Upon the property of any state facility as defined in § 37.2-100 or upon public property or property open to public use within 1,000 feet of such an institution facility. It is a violation of the provisions of this section if the person possessed the controlled substance, or imitation controlled substance, or marijuana on the property described in subdivisions 1 through 6, regardless of where the person intended to sell, give, or distribute the controlled substance, or imitation controlled substance, or marijuana. Nothing in this section shall prohibit the authorized distribution of controlled substances.
B. Violation of this section shall constitute a separate and distinct felony. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall, upon conviction, be imprisoned for a term of not less than one year nor more than five years and fined not more than $100,000. A second or subsequent conviction hereunder for an offense involving a controlled substance classified in Schedule I, II, or III of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or more than one-half ounce of marijuana shall be punished by a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of one year to be served consecutively with any other sentence. However, if such person proves that he sold such controlled substance or marijuana only as an accommodation to another individual and not with intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the controlled substance or marijuana to use or become addicted to or dependent upon such controlled substance or marijuana, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
C. If a person commits an act violating the provisions of this section, and the same act also violates another provision of law that provides for penalties greater than those provided for by this section, then nothing in this section shall prohibit or bar any prosecution or proceeding under that other provision of law or the imposition of any penalties provided for thereby.
§ 18.2-258. Certain premises deemed common nuisance; penalty.
Any office, store, shop, restaurant, dance hall, theater, poolroom, clubhouse, storehouse, warehouse, dwelling house, apartment, building of any kind, vehicle, vessel, boat, or aircraft, which with the knowledge of the owner, lessor, agent of any such lessor, manager, chief executive officer, operator, or tenant thereof, is frequented by persons under the influence of illegally obtained controlled substances or marijuana, as defined in § 54.1-3401, or for the purpose of illegally obtaining possession of, manufacturing, or distributing controlled substances or marijuana, or is used for the illegal possession, manufacture, or distribution of controlled substances or marijuana shall be deemed a common nuisance. Any such owner, lessor, agent of any such lessor, manager, chief executive officer, operator, or tenant who knowingly permits, establishes, keeps or maintains such a common nuisance is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and, for a second or subsequent offense, a Class 6 felony.
§ 18.2-258.02. Maintaining a fortified drug house; penalty.
Any office, store, shop, restaurant, dance hall, theater, poolroom, clubhouse, storehouse, warehouse, dwelling house, apartment or building or structure of any kind which that is (i) substantially altered from its original status by means of reinforcement with the intent to impede, deter or delay lawful entry by a law-enforcement officer into such structure, (ii) being used for the purpose of manufacturing or distributing controlled substances or marijuana, and (iii) the object of a valid search warrant, shall be considered a fortified drug house. Any person who maintains or operates a fortified drug house is guilty of a Class 5 felony.
§ 18.2-258.1. Obtaining drugs, procuring administration of controlled substances, etc., by fraud, deceit or forgery.
A. It shall be is unlawful for any person to obtain or attempt to obtain any drug or procure or attempt to procure the administration of any controlled substance or marijuana: (i) by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, embezzlement, or subterfuge; (ii) by the forgery or alteration of a prescription or of any written order; (iii) by the concealment of a material fact; or (iv) by the use of a false name or the giving of a false address.
B. It shall be is unlawful for any person to furnish false or fraudulent information in or omit any information from, or willfully make a false statement in, any prescription, order, report, record, or other document required by Chapter 34 the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1.
C. It shall be is unlawful for any person to use in the course of the manufacture or distribution of a controlled substance or marijuana a license number which that is fictitious, revoked, suspended, or issued to another person.
D. It shall be is unlawful for any person, for the purpose of obtaining any controlled substance or marijuana, to falsely assume the title of, or represent himself to be, a manufacturer, wholesaler, pharmacist, physician, dentist, veterinarian, or other authorized person.
E. It shall be is unlawful for any person to make or utter any false or forged prescription or false or forged written order.
F. It shall be is unlawful for any person to affix any false or forged label to a package or receptacle containing any controlled substance.
G. This section shall not apply to officers and employees of the United States, of this Commonwealth or of a political subdivision of this Commonwealth acting in the course of their employment, who obtain such drugs for investigative, research or analytical purposes, or to the agents or duly authorized representatives of any pharmaceutical manufacturer who obtain such drugs for investigative, research or analytical purposes and who are acting in the course of their employment; provided that such manufacturer is licensed under the provisions of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act; and provided further, that such pharmaceutical manufacturer, its agents and duly authorized representatives file with the Board such information as the Board may deem appropriate.
H. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, any person who shall violate any provision herein shall be is guilty of a Class 6 felony.
Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any offense under this article or under any statute of the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, marijuana, or stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic drugs, or has not previously had a proceeding against him for violation of such an offense dismissed, or reduced as provided in this section, pleads guilty to or enters a plea of not guilty to the court for violating this section, upon such plea if the facts found by the court would justify a finding of guilt, the court may place him on probation upon terms and conditions.
As a term or condition, the court shall require the accused to be evaluated and enter a treatment and/or education program, if available, such as, in the opinion of the court, may be best suited to the needs of the accused. This program may be located in the judicial circuit in which the charge is brought or in any other judicial circuit as the court may provide. The services shall be provided by a program certified or licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. The court shall require the person entering such program under the provisions of this section to pay all or part of the costs of the program, including the costs of the screening, evaluation, testing and education, based upon the person's ability to pay unless the person is determined by the court to be indigent.
As a condition of supervised probation, the court shall require the accused to remain drug free during the period of probation and submit to such tests during that period as may be necessary and appropriate to determine if the accused is drug free. Such testing may be conducted by the personnel of any screening, evaluation, and education program to which the person is referred or by the supervising agency.
Unless the accused was fingerprinted at the time of arrest, the court shall order the accused to report to the original arresting law-enforcement agency to submit to fingerprinting.
Upon violation of a term or condition, the court may enter an adjudication of guilt upon the felony and proceed as otherwise provided. Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall find the defendant guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 18.2-265.1. Definition.
As used in this article, "drug paraphernalia" means all equipment, products, and materials of any kind which are either designed for use or which are intended by the person charged with violating § 18.2-265.3 for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, strength testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body marijuana or a controlled substance. "Drug paraphernalia" includes:
1. Kits intended for use or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, or harvesting marijuana or any species of plant which is a controlled substance or from which a controlled substance can be derived;
2. Kits intended for use or designed for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, or preparing marijuana or controlled substances;
3. Isomerization devices intended for use or designed for use in increasing the potency of marijuana or any species of plant which that is a controlled substance;
4. Testing equipment intended for use or designed for use in identifying or in analyzing the strength or effectiveness of marijuana or controlled substances, other than drug checking products used to determine the presence or concentration of a contaminant that can cause physical harm or death;
5. Scales and balances intended for use or designed for use in weighing or measuring marijuana or controlled substances;
6. Diluents and adulterants, such as quinine hydrochloride, mannitol, or mannite, intended for use or designed for use in cutting controlled substances;
7. Separation gins and sifters intended for use or designed for use in removing twigs and seeds from, or in otherwise cleaning or refining, marijuana;
8. Blenders, bowls, containers, spoons, and mixing devices intended for use or designed for use in compounding controlled substances;
9. 8. Capsules, balloons, envelopes, and other containers intended for use or designed for use in packaging small quantities of marijuana or controlled substances;
10. 9. Containers and other objects intended for use or designed for use in storing or concealing marijuana or controlled substances;
11. 10. Hypodermic syringes, needles, and other objects intended for use or designed for use in parenterally injecting controlled substances into the human body;
12. 11. Objects intended for use or designed for use in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing marijuana, cocaine, hashish, or hashish oil into the human body, such as:
a. Metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipes with or without screens, permanent screens, hashish heads, or punctured metal bowls;
b. Water pipes;
c. Carburetion tubes and devices;
d. Smoking and carburetion masks;
e. Roach clips, meaning objects used to hold burning material, such as a marijuana cigarette, that has become too small or too short to be held in the hand;
f. Miniature cocaine spoons, and cocaine vials;
g. Chamber pipes;
h. Carburetor pipes;
i. Electric pipes;
j. Air-driven pipes;
k. Chillums;
l. Bongs;
m. Ice pipes or chillers.
§ 18.2-265.2. Evidence to be considered in cases under this article.
In determining whether an object is drug paraphernalia, the court may consider, in addition to all other relevant evidence, the following:
1. Constitutionally admissible statements by the accused concerning the use of the object;
2. The proximity of the object to marijuana or controlled substances, which proximity is actually known to the accused;
3. Instructions, oral or written, provided with the object concerning its use;
4. Descriptive materials accompanying the object which that explain or depict its use;
5. National and local advertising within the actual knowledge of the accused concerning its use;
6. The manner in which the object is displayed for sale;
7. Whether the accused is a legitimate supplier of like or related items to the community, such as a licensed distributor or dealer of tobacco products;
8. Evidence of the ratio of sales of the objects defined in § 18.2-265.1 to the total sales of the business enterprise;
9. The existence and scope of legitimate uses for the object in the community;
10. Expert testimony concerning its use or the purpose for which it was designed; and
11. Relevant evidence of the intent of the accused to deliver it to persons who he knows, or should reasonably know, intend to use the object with an illegal drug. The innocence of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, as to a direct violation of this article shall not prevent a finding that the object is intended for use or designed for use as drug paraphernalia.
§ 18.2-265.3. Penalties for sale, etc., of drug paraphernalia.
A. Any person who sells or possesses with intent to sell drug paraphernalia, knowing, or under circumstances where one reasonably should know, that it is either designed for use or intended by such person for use to illegally plant, propagate, cultivate, grow, harvest, manufacture, compound, convert, produce, process, prepare, test, analyze, pack, repack, store, contain, conceal, inject, ingest, inhale, or otherwise introduce into the human body marijuana or a controlled substance, shall be is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. Any person eighteen 18 years of age or older who violates subsection A hereof by selling drug paraphernalia to a minor who is at least three years junior to the accused in age shall be is guilty of a Class 6 felony.
C. Any person eighteen 18 years of age or older who distributes drug paraphernalia to a minor shall be is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
§ 18.2-287.2. Wearing of body armor while committing a crime; penalty.
Any person who, while committing a crime of violence as defined in § 18.2-288 (2) or a felony violation of § 18.2-248 or subdivision (a) 2 or 3 of § 18.2-248.1, has in his possession a firearm or knife and is wearing body armor designed to diminish the effect of the impact of a bullet or projectile shall be is guilty of a Class 4 felony.
§ 18.2-308.03. Fees for concealed handgun permits.
A. The clerk shall charge a fee of $10 for the processing of an application or issuing of a permit, including his costs associated with the consultation with law-enforcement agencies. The local law-enforcement agency conducting the background investigation may charge a fee not to exceed $35 to cover the cost of conducting an investigation pursuant to this article. The $35 fee shall include any amount assessed by the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation for providing criminal history record information, and the local law-enforcement agency shall forward the amount assessed by the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation to the State Police with the fingerprints taken from any nonresident applicant. The State Police may charge a fee not to exceed $5 to cover its costs associated with processing the application. The total amount assessed for processing an application for a permit shall not exceed $50, with such fees to be paid in one sum to the person who receives the application. Payment may be made by any method accepted by that court for payment of other fees or penalties. No payment shall be required until the application is received by the court as a complete application.
B. No fee shall be charged for the issuance of such permit to a person who has retired from service (i) as a magistrate in the Commonwealth; (ii) as a special agent with the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority or as a law-enforcement officer with the Department of State Police, the Department of Wildlife Resources, or a sheriff or police department, bureau, or force of any political subdivision of the Commonwealth, after completing 15 years of service or after reaching age 55; (iii) as a law-enforcement officer with the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, Secret Service Agency, Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of State Diplomatic Security Service, U.S. Marshals Service, or Naval Criminal Investigative Service, after completing 15 years of service or after reaching age 55; (iv) as a law-enforcement officer with any police or sheriff's department within the United States, the District of Columbia, or any of the territories of the United States, after completing 15 years of service; (v) as a law-enforcement officer with any combination of the agencies listed in clauses (ii) through (iv), after completing 15 years of service; (vi) as a designated boarding team member or boarding officer of the United States Coast Guard, after completing 15 years of service or after reaching age 55; (vii) as a correctional officer as defined in § 53.1-1, after completing 15 years of service; or (viii) as a probation and parole officer authorized pursuant to § 53.1-143, after completing 15 years of service.
§ 18.2-308.012. Prohibited conduct.
A. Any person permitted to carry a concealed handgun who is under the influence of alcohol, marijuana, or illegal drugs while carrying such handgun in a public place is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. Conviction of any of the following offenses shall be prima facie evidence, subject to rebuttal, that the person is "under the influence" for purposes of this section: manslaughter in violation of § 18.2-36.1, maiming in violation of § 18.2-51.4, driving while intoxicated in violation of § 18.2-266, public intoxication in violation of § 18.2-388, or driving while intoxicated in violation of § 46.2-341.24. Upon such conviction that court shall revoke the person's permit for a concealed handgun and promptly notify the issuing circuit court. A person convicted of a violation of this subsection shall be ineligible to apply for a concealed handgun permit for a period of five years.
B. No person who carries a concealed handgun onto the premises of any restaurant or club as defined in § 4.1-100 for which a license to sell and serve alcoholic beverages for on-premises consumption has been granted by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority under Title 4.1 may consume an alcoholic beverage while on the premises. A person who carries a concealed handgun onto the premises of such a restaurant or club and consumes alcoholic beverages is guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor. However, nothing in this subsection shall apply to a federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer.
§ 18.2-308.016. Retired law-enforcement officers; carrying a concealed handgun.
A. Except as provided in subsection A of § 18.2-308.012, § 18.2-308 shall not apply to:
1. Any State Police officer retired from the Department of State Police, any officer retired from the Division of Capitol Police, any local law-enforcement officer, auxiliary police officer or animal control officer retired from a police department or sheriff's office within the Commonwealth, any special agent retired from the State Corporation Commission or the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, any employee with internal investigations authority designated by the Department of Corrections pursuant to subdivision 11 of § 53.1-10 retired from the Department of Corrections, any conservation police officer retired from the Department of Wildlife Resources, any conservation officer retired from the Department of Conservation and Recreation, any Virginia Marine Police officer retired from the Law Enforcement Division of the Virginia Marine Resources Commission, any campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1 retired from a campus police department, any retired member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles appointed pursuant to § 46.2-217, and any retired investigator of the security division of the Virginia Lottery, other than an officer or agent terminated for cause, (i) with a service-related disability; (ii) following at least 10 years of service with any such law-enforcement agency, commission, board, or any combination thereof; (iii) who has reached 55 years of age; or (iv) who is on long-term leave from such law-enforcement agency or board due to a service-related injury, provided such officer carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the chief law-enforcement officer of the last such agency from which the officer retired or the agency that employs the officer or, in the case of special agents, issued by the State Corporation Commission or the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority. A copy of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be forwarded by the chief, Commission, or Board to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. The chief law-enforcement officer shall not without cause withhold such written proof if the retired law-enforcement officer otherwise meets the requirements of this section. An officer set forth in clause (iv) who receives written proof of consultation to carry a concealed handgun shall surrender such proof of consultation upon return to work as a law-enforcement officer or upon termination of employment with the law-enforcement agency. Notice of the surrender shall be forwarded to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. However, if such officer retires on disability because of the service-related injury, and would be eligible under clause (i) for written proof of consultation to carry a concealed handgun, he may retain the previously issued written proof of consultation.
2. Any person who is eligible for retirement with at least 20 years of service with a law-enforcement agency, commission, or board mentioned in subdivision 1 who has resigned in good standing from such law-enforcement agency, commission, or board to accept a position covered by a retirement system that is authorized under Title 51.1, provided such person carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the chief law-enforcement officer of the agency from which he resigned or, in the case of special agents, issued by the State Corporation Commission or the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority. A copy of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be forwarded by the chief, Commission, or Board to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. The chief law-enforcement officer shall not without cause withhold such written proof if the law-enforcement officer otherwise meets the requirements of this section.
3. Any State Police officer who is a member of the organized reserve forces of any of the Armed Services of the United States or National Guard, while such officer is called to active military duty, provided such officer carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the Superintendent of State Police. The proof of consultation and favorable review shall be valid as long as the officer is on active military duty and shall expire when the officer returns to active law-enforcement duty. The issuance of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be entered into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. The Superintendent of State Police shall not without cause withhold such written proof if the officer is in good standing and is qualified to carry a weapon while on active law-enforcement duty.
4. Any retired or resigned attorney for the Commonwealth or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth who (i) was not terminated for cause and served at least 10 years prior to his retirement or resignation; (ii) during the most recent 12-month period, has met, at his own expense, the standards for qualification in firearms training for active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth; (iii) carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the attorney for the Commonwealth from whose office he retired or resigned; and (iv) meets the requirements of a "qualified retired law enforcement officer" pursuant to the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. § 926C). A copy of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be forwarded by the attorney for the Commonwealth to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network.
B. For purposes of complying with the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004, a retired or resigned law-enforcement officer, including a retired or resigned attorney for the Commonwealth or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth, who receives proof of consultation and review pursuant to this section shall have the opportunity to annually participate, at the retired or resigned law-enforcement officer's expense, in the same training and testing to carry firearms as is required of active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth. If such retired or resigned law-enforcement officer meets the training and qualification standards, the chief law-enforcement officer shall issue the retired or resigned officer certification, valid one year from the date of issuance, indicating that the retired or resigned officer has met the standards of the agency to carry a firearm.
C. A retired or resigned law-enforcement officer, including a retired or resigned attorney for the Commonwealth or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth, who receives proof of consultation and review pursuant to this section may annually participate and meet the training and qualification standards to carry firearms as is required of active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth. If such retired or resigned law-enforcement officer meets the training and qualification standards, the chief law-enforcement officer shall issue the retired or resigned officer certification, valid one year from the date of issuance, indicating that the retired or resigned officer has met the standards of the Commonwealth to carry a firearm. A copy of the certification indicating that the retired or resigned officer has met the standards of the Commonwealth to carry a firearm shall be forwarded by the chief, Commission, Board, or attorney for the Commonwealth to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network.
D. For all purposes, including for the purpose of applying the reciprocity provisions of § 18.2-308.014, any person granted the privilege to carry a concealed handgun pursuant to this section, while carrying the proof of consultation and favorable review required, shall be deemed to have been issued a concealed handgun permit.
§ 18.2-308.4. Possession of firearms while in possession of certain substances.
A. It shall be is unlawful for any person unlawfully in possession of a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 to simultaneously with knowledge and intent possess any firearm. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony and constitutes a separate and distinct felony.
B. It shall be is unlawful for any person unlawfully in possession of a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) to simultaneously with knowledge and intent possess any firearm on or about his person. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony and constitutes a separate and distinct felony and any person convicted hereunder shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of two years. Such punishment shall be separate and apart from, and shall be made to run consecutively with, any punishment received for the commission of the primary felony.
C. It shall be is unlawful for any person to possess, use, or attempt to use any pistol, shotgun, rifle, or other firearm or display such weapon in a threatening manner while committing or attempting to commit the illegal manufacture, sale, distribution, or the possession with the intent to manufacture, sell, or distribute a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or Schedule II of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or more than one pound of marijuana. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony, and constitutes a separate and distinct felony and any person convicted hereunder shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of five years. Such punishment shall be separate and apart from, and shall be made to run consecutively with, any punishment received for the commission of the primary felony.
§ 18.2-371.2. Prohibiting purchase or possession of retail tobacco products and hemp products intended for smoking by a person under 21 years of age or sale of retail tobacco products and hemp products intended for smoking to persons under 21 years of age; civil penalties.
A. No person shall sell to, distribute to, purchase for, or knowingly permit the purchase by any person younger than 21 years of age, knowing or having reason to believe that such person is younger than 21 years of age, any retail tobacco product or hemp product intended for smoking.
No person shall sell retail tobacco products or hemp products intended for smoking from a vending machine.
B. No person shall sell a retail tobacco product or hemp product intended for smoking to any individual who does not demonstrate, by producing a driver's license or similar photo identification issued by a government agency, that the individual is at least 21 years of age.
Before a retail dealer may sell retail tobacco products, other than cigar and pipe tobacco products as defined in § 58.1-1021.01, to any consumer, the person selling, offering for sale, giving, or furnishing the retail tobacco products shall verify that the consumer is of legal age by examining from any person who appears to be under 30 years of age a government-issued photographic identification that establishes that the person is of legal age or, if required pursuant to subdivision C 4 b of § 58.1-1021.04:1 or subdivision B 2 b of § 59.1-293.12, verifying the identification presented using identification fraud detection software, technology, or a scanner that confirms the authenticity of such identification.
This subsection shall not apply to mail order or Internet sales, provided that the person offering the retail tobacco product or hemp product intended for smoking for sale through mail order or the Internet (i) prior to the sale of the retail tobacco product or hemp product intended for smoking verifies that the purchaser is at least 21 years of age through a commercially available database that is regularly used by businesses or governmental entities for the purpose of age and identity verification and (ii) uses a method of mailing, shipping, or delivery that requires the signature of a person at least 21 years of age before the retail tobacco product or hemp product intended for smoking will be released to the purchaser.
C. A violation of subsection A or B by an individual or by a separate retail establishment is punishable by a civil penalty in the amount of $500 for a first violation and a civil penalty in the amount of $2,500 for a second or subsequent violation within a three-year period. If applicable, upon a second or subsequent violation within a three-year period, the Department of Taxation may suspend or revoke any approved license, permit, or registration issued pursuant to subsection C of § 58.1-1021.04:1.
For any violation of this section by an employee of a retail establishment, (i) such penalty shall be assessed against the establishment and (ii) an additional penalty of $100 shall be assessed against the employee.
Any attorney for the Commonwealth of the county or city in which an alleged violation occurred may bring an action to recover the civil penalty, which shall be paid into the state treasury. Any law-enforcement officer may issue a summons for a violation of subsection A or B.
D. 1. Cigarettes and hemp products intended for smoking shall be sold only in sealed packages provided by the manufacturer, with the required health warning. The proprietor of every retail establishment that offers for sale any retail tobacco product or hemp product intended for smoking shall post in a conspicuous manner and place a sign or signs indicating that the sale of retail tobacco products or hemp products intended for smoking to any person under 21 years of age is prohibited by law. Any attorney for the county, city, or town in which an alleged violation of this subsection occurred may enforce this subsection by civil action to recover a civil penalty not to exceed $500. The civil penalty shall be paid into the local treasury. No filing fee or other fee or cost shall be charged to the county, city, or town which instituted the action.
2. For the purpose of compliance with regulations of the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration published at 61 Federal Register 1492, the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services may promulgate regulations which allow the Department to undertake the activities necessary to comply with such regulations.
3. Any attorney for the county, city, or town in which an alleged violation of this subsection occurred may enforce this subsection by civil action to recover a civil penalty not to exceed $500. The civil penalty shall be paid into the local treasury. No filing fee or other fee or cost shall be charged to the county, city, or town which instituted the action.
E. Nothing in this section shall be construed to create a private cause of action.
F. Agents of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority designated pursuant to § 4.1-105 may issue a summons for any violation of this section. Additionally, any retailer selling retail tobacco products shall be subject to the enforcement and compliance provisions of Chapter 23.2 (§ 59.1-293.10 et seq.) of Title 59.1.
G. As used in this section:
"Electronic smoking device" means any device that may be used to deliver any aerosolized or vaporized substance to the person inhaling from the device, including an e-cigarette, e-cigar, e-pipe, vape pen, or e-hookah. "Electronic smoking device" includes any component, part, or accessory of the device, whether or not sold separately, and also includes any substance intended to be aerosolized or vaporized during the use of the device, whether or not the substance contains nicotine. "Electronic smoking device" does not include any (i) battery or battery charger when sold separately or (ii) device used for heated tobacco products. "Electronic smoking device" does not include drugs or devices, as such terms are defined in 21 U.S.C. § 321, or combination products, as such term is used in 21 U.S.C. § 353, if such drugs, devices, or combination products are authorized for sale by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
"Hemp product" and "hemp product intended for smoking" mean the same as those terms are defined in § 3.2-4112.
"Retail tobacco product" means (i) any product containing, made of, or derived from tobacco or that contains nicotine that is intended for human consumption or is likely to be consumed, whether smoked, heated, chewed, dissolved, inhaled, absorbed, or ingested by other means, including a cigarette, a heated tobacco product, a cigar, pipe tobacco, chewing tobacco, snuff, or snus; (ii) any electronic smoking device and any substances that may be aerosolized or vaporized by such device, whether or not the substance contains nicotine; and (iii) any component, part, or accessory of a product described in clause (i) or (ii), whether or not such component, part, or accessory contains tobacco or nicotine, including filters, rolling papers, blunt or hemp wraps, and pipes. "Retail tobacco product" includes any nicotine vapor product as that term is defined in § 58.1-1021.01. "Retail tobacco product" does not include drugs or devices, as such terms are defined in 21 U.S.C. § 321, or combination products, as such term is used in 21 U.S.C. § 353, if such drugs, devices, or combination products are authorized for sale by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
"Wrappings" includes materials made or sold for covering or rolling tobacco or other materials for smoking in a manner similar to a cigarette or cigar.
§ 18.2-460. Obstructing justice; resisting arrest; fleeing from a law-enforcement officer; penalties.
A. If any person without just cause knowingly obstructs a judge, magistrate, justice, juror, attorney for the Commonwealth, witness, any law-enforcement officer, or animal control officer employed pursuant to § 3.2-6555 in the performance of his duties as such or fails or refuses without just cause to cease such obstruction when requested to do so by such judge, magistrate, justice, juror, attorney for the Commonwealth, witness, law-enforcement officer, or animal control officer employed pursuant to § 3.2-6555, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
B. Except as provided in subsection C, any person who, by threats or force, knowingly attempts to intimidate or impede a judge, magistrate, justice, juror, attorney for the Commonwealth, witness, any law-enforcement officer, or an animal control officer employed pursuant to § 3.2-6555 lawfully engaged in his duties as such, or to obstruct or impede the administration of justice in any court, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
C. If any person by threats of bodily harm or force knowingly attempts to intimidate or impede a judge, magistrate, justice, juror, attorney for the Commonwealth, witness, any or law-enforcement officer, lawfully engaged in the discharge of his duty, or to obstruct or impede the administration of justice in any court relating to a violation of or conspiracy to violate § 18.2-248 or subdivision (a)(3), (b) or (c) of § 18.2-248.1, or §, 18.2-46.2, or § 18.2-46.3, or relating to the violation of or conspiracy to violate any violent felony offense listed in subsection C of § 17.1-805, he is guilty of a Class 5 felony.
D. Any person who knowingly and willfully makes any materially false statement or representation to a law-enforcement officer or an animal control officer employed pursuant to § 3.2-6555 who is in the course of conducting an investigation of a crime by another is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
E. Any person who intentionally prevents or attempts to prevent a law-enforcement officer from lawfully arresting him, with or without a warrant, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. For purposes of this subsection, intentionally preventing or attempting to prevent a lawful arrest means fleeing from a law-enforcement officer when (i) the officer applies physical force to the person, or (ii) the officer communicates to the person that he is under arrest and (a) the officer has the legal authority and the immediate physical ability to place the person under arrest, and (b) a reasonable person who receives such communication knows or should know that he is not free to leave.
§ 18.2-474.1. Delivery of drugs, firearms, explosives, etc., to prisoners or committed persons.
Notwithstanding the provisions of § 18.2-474, any person who shall willfully in any manner deliver, attempt to deliver, or conspire with another to deliver to any prisoner confined under authority of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or of any political subdivision thereof, or to any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice in any juvenile correctional center, any drug which that is a controlled substance regulated by the Drug Control Act in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 or marijuana is guilty of a Class 5 felony. Any person who shall willfully in any manner so deliver or attempt to deliver or conspire to deliver to any such prisoner or confined or committed person, firearms, ammunitions, or explosives of any nature is guilty of a Class 3 felony.
Nothing herein contained shall be construed to repeal or amend § 18.2-473.
§ 19.2-66. When Attorney General or Chief Deputy Attorney General may apply for order authorizing interception of communications.
A. The Attorney General or Chief Deputy Attorney General, if the Attorney General so designates in writing, in any case where the Attorney General is authorized by law to prosecute or pursuant to a request in his official capacity of an attorney for the Commonwealth in any city or county, may apply to a judge of competent jurisdiction for an order authorizing the interception of wire, electronic or oral communications by the Department of State Police, when such interception may reasonably be expected to provide evidence of the commission of a felonious offense of extortion, bribery, kidnapping, murder, any felony violation of § 18.2-248 or 18.2-248.1, any felony violation of Chapter 29 (§ 59.1-364 et seq.) of Title 59.1, any felony violation of Article 2 (§ 18.2-38 et seq.), Article 2.1 (§ 18.2-46.1 et seq.), Article 2.2 (§ 18.2-46.4 et seq.), Article 5 (§ 18.2-58 et seq.), Article 6 (§ 18.2-59 et seq.) or any felonies that are not Class 6 felonies in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2, or any conspiracy to commit any of the foregoing offenses. The Attorney General or Chief Deputy Attorney General may apply for authorization for the observation or monitoring of the interception by a police department of a county or city, by a sheriff's office, or by law-enforcement officers of the United States. Such application shall be made, and such order may be granted, in conformity with the provisions of § 19.2-68.
B. The application for an order under subsection B of § 19.2-68 shall be made as follows:
1. In the case of an application for a wire or electronic interception, a judge of competent jurisdiction shall have the authority to issue an order under subsection B of § 19.2-68 if there is probable cause to believe that an offense was committed, is being committed, or will be committed or the person or persons whose communications are to be intercepted live, work, subscribe to a wire or electronic communication system, maintain an address or a post office box, or are making the communication within the territorial jurisdiction of the court.
2. In the case of an application for an oral intercept, a judge of competent jurisdiction shall have the authority to issue an order under subsection B of § 19.2-68 if there is probable cause to believe that an offense was committed, is being committed, or will be committed or the physical location of the oral communication to be intercepted is within the territorial jurisdiction of the court.
C. For the purposes of an order entered pursuant to subsection B of § 19.2-68 for the interception of a wire or electronic communication, such communication shall be deemed to be intercepted in the jurisdiction where the order is entered, regardless of the physical location or the method by which the communication is captured or routed to the monitoring location.
§ 19.2-81. Arrest without warrant authorized in certain cases.
A. The following officers shall have the powers of arrest as provided in this section:
1. Members of the State Police force of the Commonwealth;
2. Sheriffs of the various counties and cities, and their deputies;
3. Members of any county police force or any duly constituted police force of any city or town of the Commonwealth;
4. The Commissioner, members and employees of the Marine Resources Commission granted the power of arrest pursuant to § 28.2-900;
5. Regular conservation police officers appointed pursuant to § 29.1-200;
6. United States Coast Guard and United States Coast Guard Reserve commissioned, warrant, and petty officers authorized under § 29.1-205 to make arrests;
7. Conservation officers appointed pursuant to § 10.1-115;
8. Full-time sworn members of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles appointed pursuant to § 46.2-217;
9. Special agents of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority;
10. Campus police officers appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1; and
11. Members of the Division of Capitol Police.
B. Such officers may arrest without a warrant any person who commits any crime in the presence of the officer and any person whom he has reasonable grounds or probable cause to suspect of having committed a felony not in his presence.
Such officers may arrest without a warrant any person whom the officer has probable cause to suspect of operating any watercraft or motorboat while (i) intoxicated in violation of subsection B of § 29.1-738 or a substantially similar ordinance of any county, city, or town in the Commonwealth or (ii) in violation of an order issued pursuant to § 29.1-738.4 and may thereafter transfer custody of the person arrested to another officer, who may obtain a warrant based upon statements made to him by the arresting officer.
C. Any such officer may, at the scene of any accident involving a motor vehicle, watercraft as defined in § 29.1-733.2 or motorboat, or at any hospital or medical facility to which any person involved in such accident has been transported, or in the apprehension of any person charged with the theft of any motor vehicle, on any of the highways or waters of the Commonwealth, upon reasonable grounds to believe, based upon personal investigation, including information obtained from eyewitnesses, that a crime has been committed by any person then and there present, apprehend such person without a warrant of arrest. For purposes of this section, "the scene of any accident" shall include a reasonable location where a vehicle or person involved in an accident has been moved at the direction of a law-enforcement officer to facilitate the clearing of the highway or to ensure the safety of the motoring public.
D. Such officers may, within three hours of the alleged offense, arrest without a warrant at any location any person whom the officer has probable cause to suspect of driving or operating a motor vehicle, watercraft or motorboat while intoxicated in violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, 46.2-341.24, or subsection B of § 29.1-738; or a substantially similar ordinance of any county, city, or town in the Commonwealth, whether or not the offense was committed in such officer's presence. Such officers may, within three hours of the alleged offense, arrest without a warrant at any location any person whom the officer has probable cause to suspect of operating a watercraft or motorboat in violation of an order issued pursuant to § 29.1-738.4, whether or not the offense was committed in such officer's presence.
E. Such officers may arrest, without a warrant or a capias, persons duly charged with a crime in another jurisdiction upon receipt of a photocopy of a warrant or a capias, telegram, computer printout, facsimile printout, a radio, telephone or teletype message, in which photocopy of a warrant, telegram, computer printout, facsimile printout, radio, telephone or teletype message shall be given the name or a reasonably accurate description of such person wanted and the crime alleged.
F. Such officers may arrest, without a warrant or a capias, for an alleged misdemeanor not committed in his presence when the officer receives a radio message from his department or other law-enforcement agency within the Commonwealth that a warrant or capias for such offense is on file.
G. Such officers may also arrest without a warrant for an alleged misdemeanor not committed in their presence involving (i) shoplifting in violation of § 18.2-96 or 18.2-103 or a similar local ordinance, (ii) carrying a weapon on school property in violation of § 18.2-308.1, (iii) assault and battery, (iv) brandishing a firearm in violation of § 18.2-282, or (v) destruction of property in violation of § 18.2-137, when such property is located on premises used for business or commercial purposes, or a similar local ordinance, when any such arrest is based on probable cause upon reasonable complaint of the person who observed the alleged offense. The arresting officer may issue a summons to any person arrested under this section for a misdemeanor violation involving shoplifting.
§ 19.2-81.1. Arrest without warrant by correctional officers in certain cases.
Any correctional officer, as defined in § 53.1-1, may arrest, in the same manner as provided in § 19.2-81, persons for crimes involving:
(a) 1. The escape of an inmate from a correctional institution, as defined in § 53.1-1;
(b) 2. Assisting an inmate to escape from a correctional institution, as defined in § 53.1-1;
(c) 3. The delivery of contraband to an inmate in violation of § 4.1-1117, 18.2-474, or § 18.2-474.1; and
(d) 4. Any other criminal offense which that may contribute to the disruption of the safety, welfare, or security of the population of a correctional institution.
§ 19.2-83.1. Report of arrest of school employees and adult students for certain offenses.
A. Every state official or agency and every sheriff, police officer, or other local law-enforcement officer or conservator of the peace having the power to arrest for a felony, upon arresting a person who is known or discovered by the arresting official to be a full-time, part-time, permanent, or temporary teacher or any other employee in any local school division in the Commonwealth for a felony or a Class 1 misdemeanor or an equivalent offense in another state, shall file a report of such arrest with the division safety official designated pursuant to subsection F of § 22.1-279.8 in the school division in which such person is employed as soon as practicable but no later than 48 hours after such arrest. The contents of the report required pursuant to this subsection shall be utilized by the local school division solely to implement the provisions of subsection B of § 22.1-296.2 and § 22.1-315.
B. The report required pursuant to subsection A shall be transmitted to the division safety official (i) via certified mail, return receipt requested, to the mailing address identified by the division superintendent pursuant to subsection F of § 22.1-279.8 or (ii) via email to the email address identified by the division superintendent pursuant to subsection F of § 22.1-279.8. Any certified mail return receipt shall be retained in the case file.
C. (Expires July 1, 2027) In the event that the law-enforcement agency has existing access to Virginia Employment Commission records, each arresting official shall request in writing that the Virginia Employment Commission provide the name of the current employer of each person arrested for an offense set forth in § 9.1-902 for purposes of determining whether a report is required pursuant to subsection A.
D. Every state official or agency and every sheriff, police officer, or other local law-enforcement officer or conservator of the peace having the power to arrest for a felony shall file a report, as soon as practicable, with the division superintendent of the school division in which the student is enrolled upon arresting a person who is known or discovered by the arresting official to be a student age 18 or older in any local school division in the Commonwealth for:
1. A firearm offense pursuant to Article 4 (§ 18.2-279 et seq.), 5 (§ 18.2-288 et seq.), 6 (§ 18.2-299 et seq.), 6.1 (§ 18.2-307.1 et seq.), or 7 (§ 18.2-308.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2;
2. Homicide, pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-30 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2;
3. Felonious assault and bodily wounding, pursuant to Article 4 (§ 18.2-51 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2;
4. Criminal sexual assault, pursuant to Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2;
5. Manufacture, sale, gift, distribution or possession of Schedule I or II controlled substances, pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2;
6. Manufacture, sale or distribution of marijuana pursuant to Article 1 Chapter 11 (§ 18.2-247 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 4.1;
7. Arson and related crimes, pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-77 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 18.2;
8. Burglary and related offenses, pursuant to §§ 18.2-89 through 18.2-93;
9. Robbery pursuant to § 18.2-58;
10. Prohibited criminal street gang activity pursuant to § 18.2-46.2;
11. Recruitment of juveniles for criminal street gang pursuant to § 18.2-46.3;
12. An act of violence by a mob pursuant to § 18.2-42.1; or
13. Abduction of any person pursuant to § 18.2-47 or 18.2-48.
§ 19.2-188.1. Testimony regarding identification of controlled substances.
A. In any preliminary hearing on a violation of Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2, or subdivision 6 of § 53.1-203, any law-enforcement officer shall be permitted to testify as to the results of field tests that have been approved by the Department of Forensic Science pursuant to regulations adopted in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), regarding whether or not any substance the identity of which is at issue in such hearing is a controlled substance, or imitation controlled substance, as defined in § 18.2-247, or marijuana, as defined in § 18.2-247 4.1-600.
B. In any trial for a violation of § 4.1-1105.1 4.1-1104 or 4.1-1105, any law-enforcement officer shall be permitted to testify as to the results of any marijuana field test approved as accurate and reliable by the Department of Forensic Science pursuant to regulations adopted in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), regarding whether or not any plant material, the identity of which is at issue, is marijuana provided the defendant has been given written notice of his right to request a full chemical analysis. Such notice shall be on a form approved by the Supreme Court and shall be provided to the defendant prior to trial.
In any case in which the person accused of a violation of § 4.1-1105.1 4.1-1104 or 4.1-1105, or the attorney of record for the accused, desires a full chemical analysis of the alleged plant material, he may, by motion prior to trial before the court in which the charge is pending, request such a chemical analysis. Upon such motion, the court shall order that the analysis be performed by the Department of Forensic Science in accordance with the provisions of § 18.2-247 9.1-1101 and shall prescribe in its order the method of custody, transfer, and return of evidence submitted for chemical analysis.
§ 19.2-303.01. Reduction of sentence; substantial assistance to prosecution.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law or rule of court, upon motion of the attorney for the Commonwealth, the sentencing court may reduce the defendant's sentence if the defendant, after entry of the final judgment order, provided substantial assistance in investigating or prosecuting another person for (i) an act of violence as defined in § 19.2-297.1, an act of larceny of a firearm in violation of § 18.2-95, or any violation of § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.02, 18.2-248.03, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-248.5, 18.2-251.2, 18.2-251.3, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.2, 18.2-258, 18.2-258.02, 18.2-258.1, or 18.2-258.2, or any substantially similar offense in any other jurisdiction, which offense would be a felony if committed in the Commonwealth; (ii) a conspiracy to commit any of the offenses listed in clause (i); or (iii) violations as a principal in the second degree or accessory before the fact of any of the offenses listed in clause (i). In determining whether the defendant has provided substantial assistance pursuant to the provisions of this section, the court shall consider (a) the court's evaluation of the significance and usefulness of the defendant's assistance, taking into consideration the Commonwealth's evaluation of the assistance rendered; (b) the truthfulness, completeness, and reliability of any information or testimony provided by the defendant; (c) the nature and extent of the defendant's assistance; (d) any injury suffered or any danger or risk of injury to the defendant or his family resulting from his assistance; and (e) the timeliness of the defendant's assistance. If the motion is made more than one year after entry of the final judgment order, the court may reduce a sentence only if the defendant's substantial assistance involved (1) information not known to the defendant until more than one year after entry of the final judgment order, (2) information provided by the defendant within one year of entry of the final judgment order but that did not become useful to the Commonwealth until more than one year after entry of the final judgment order, or (3) information the usefulness of which could not reasonably have been anticipated by the defendant until more than one year after entry of the final judgment order and which was promptly provided to the Commonwealth by the defendant after its usefulness was reasonably apparent.
§ 19.2-386.21. Forfeiture of counterfeit and contraband cigarettes.
Counterfeit cigarettes possessed in violation of § 18.2-246.14 and cigarettes possessed in violation of § 58.1-1017 or 58.1-1017.1 shall be subject to seizure, forfeiture, and destruction or court-ordered assignment for use by a law-enforcement undercover operation by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority or any law-enforcement officer of the Commonwealth. However, any undercover operation that makes use of counterfeit cigarettes shall ensure that the counterfeit cigarettes remain under the control and command of law enforcement and shall not be distributed to a member of the general public who is not the subject of a criminal investigation. All fixtures, equipment, materials, and personal property used in substantial connection with (i) the sale or possession of counterfeit cigarettes in a knowing and intentional violation of Article 10 (§ 18.2-246.6 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 18.2 or (ii) the sale or possession of cigarettes in a knowing and intentional violation of § 58.1-1017 or 58.1-1017.1 shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture according to the procedures contained in Chapter 22.1 (§ 19.2-386.1 et seq.), applied mutatis mutandis.
§ 19.2-386.22. Seizure of property used in connection with or derived from illegal drug transactions.
A. The following property shall be subject to lawful seizure by any officer charged with enforcing the provisions of Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2: (i) all money, medical equipment, office equipment, laboratory equipment, motor vehicles, and all other personal and real property of any kind or character, used in substantial connection with (a) the illegal manufacture, sale or distribution of controlled substances or possession with intent to sell or distribute controlled substances in violation of § 18.2-248, (b) the sale or distribution of marijuana or possession with intent to distribute marijuana in violation of subdivisions (a)(2), (a)(3) and (c) of § 18.2-248.1 § 4.1-1103, or (c) a drug-related offense in violation of § 4.1-1117 or 18.2-474.1; (ii) everything of value furnished, or intended to be furnished, in exchange for a controlled substance in violation of § 18.2-248 or for marijuana in violation of § 18.2-248.1 4.1-1103 or for a controlled substance or marijuana in violation of § 4.1-1117 or 18.2-474.1; and (iii) all moneys or other property, real or personal, traceable to such an exchange, together with any interest or profits derived from the investment of such money or other property. Under the provisions of clause (i), real property shall not be subject to lawful seizure unless the minimum prescribed punishment for the violation is a term of not less than five years.
B. All seizures and forfeitures under this section shall be governed by the procedures contained in Chapter 22.1 (§ 19.2-386.1 et seq.).
§ 19.2-386.23. Disposal of seized controlled substances, marijuana, and paraphernalia.
A. All controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, marijuana, or paraphernalia, the lawful possession of which is not established or the title to which cannot be ascertained, which have come into the custody of a peace officer or have been seized in connection with violations of Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or Chapter 7 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Title 18.2, shall be forfeited and disposed of as follows:
1. Upon written application by (i) the Department of Forensic Science, (ii) the Department of State Police, or (iii) any police department or sheriff's office in a locality, the court may order the forfeiture of any such substance or paraphernalia to the Department of Forensic Science, the Department of State Police, or to such police department or sheriff's office for research and training purposes and for destruction pursuant to regulations of the United States Department of Justice Drug Enforcement Administration and of the Board of Pharmacy once these purposes have been fulfilled.
2. In the event no application is made under subdivision 1, the court shall order the destruction of all such substances or paraphernalia, which order shall state the existence and nature of the substance or paraphernalia, the quantity thereof, the location where seized, the person or persons from whom the substance or paraphernalia was seized, if known, and the manner whereby such item shall be destroyed. However, the court may order that paraphernalia identified in subdivision 5 of § 18.2-265.1 not be destroyed and that it be given to a person or entity that makes a showing to the court of sufficient need for the property and an ability to put the property to a lawful and publicly beneficial use. A return under oath, reporting the time, place and manner of destruction shall be made to the court by the officer to whom the order is directed. A copy of the order and affidavit shall be made a part of the record of any criminal prosecution in which the substance or paraphernalia was used as evidence and shall, thereafter, be prima facie evidence of its contents. In the event a law-enforcement agency recovers, seizes, finds, is given or otherwise comes into possession of any such substances or paraphernalia that are not evidence in a trial in the Commonwealth, the chief law-enforcement officer of the agency or his designee may, with the written consent of the appropriate attorney for the Commonwealth, order destruction of same; provided that a statement under oath, reporting a description of the substances and paraphernalia destroyed and the time, place and manner of destruction, is made to the chief law-enforcement officer by the officer to whom the order is directed.
B. No such substance or paraphernalia used or to be used in a criminal prosecution under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or Chapter 7 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Title 18.2 shall be disposed of as provided by this section until all rights of appeal have been exhausted, except as provided in § 19.2-386.24.
C. The amount of any specific controlled substance, or imitation controlled substance, retained by any law-enforcement agency pursuant to a court order issued under this section shall not exceed five pounds, or 25 pounds in the case of marijuana. Any written application to the court for controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or marijuana, shall certify that the amount requested shall not result in the requesting agency's exceeding the limits allowed by this subsection.
D. A law-enforcement agency that retains any controlled substance, imitation controlled substance, or marijuana, pursuant to a court order issued under this section shall (i) be required to conduct an inventory of such substance on a monthly basis, which shall include a description and weight of the substance, and (ii) destroy such substance pursuant to subdivision A 1 when no longer needed for research and training purposes. A written report outlining the details of the inventory shall be made to the chief law-enforcement officer of the agency within 10 days of the completion of the inventory, and the agency shall detail the substances that were used for research and training pursuant to a court order in the immediately preceding fiscal year. Destruction of such substance shall be certified to the court along with a statement prepared under oath, reporting a description of the substance destroyed, and the time, place, and manner of destruction.
§ 19.2-386.24. Destruction of seized controlled substances or marijuana prior to trial.
Where seizures of controlled substances or marijuana are made in excess of 10 pounds in connection with any prosecution or investigation under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or Chapter 7 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Title 18.2, the appropriate law-enforcement agency may retain 10 pounds of the substance randomly selected from the seized substance for representative purposes as evidence and destroy the remainder of the seized substance.
Before any destruction is carried out under this section, the law-enforcement agency shall cause the material seized to be photographed with identification case numbers or other means of identification and shall prepare a report identifying the seized material. It shall also notify the accused, or other interested party, if known, or his attorney, at least five days in advance that the photography will take place and that they may be present. Prior to any destruction under this section, the law-enforcement agency shall also notify the accused or other interested party, if known, and his attorney at least seven days prior to the destruction of the time and place the destruction will occur. Any notice required under the provisions of this section shall be by first-class mail to the last known address of the person required to be notified. In addition to the substance retained for representative purposes as evidence, all photographs and records made under this section and properly identified shall be admissible in any court proceeding for any purposes for which the seized substance itself would have been admissible.
§ 19.2-386.25. Judge may order law-enforcement agency to maintain custody of controlled substances, etc.
Upon request of the clerk of any court, a judge of the court may order a law-enforcement agency to take into its custody or to maintain custody of substantial quantities of any controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, chemicals, marijuana, or paraphernalia used or to be used in a criminal prosecution under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or Chapter 7 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Title 18.2. The court in its order may make provision for ensuring integrity of these items until further order of the court.
§ 19.2-389. (Effective until July 1, 2026) Dissemination of criminal history record information.
A. Criminal history record information shall be disseminated, whether directly or through an intermediary, only to:
1. Authorized officers or employees of criminal justice agencies, as defined by § 9.1-101, for purposes of the administration of criminal justice and the screening of an employment application or review of employment by a criminal justice agency with respect to its own employees or applicants, and dissemination to the Virginia Parole Board, pursuant to this subdivision, of such information on all state-responsible inmates for the purpose of making parole determinations pursuant to subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6 of § 53.1-136 shall include collective dissemination by electronic means every 30 days. For purposes of this subdivision, criminal history record information includes information sent to the Central Criminal Records Exchange pursuant to §§ 37.2-819 and 64.2-2014 when disseminated to any full-time or part-time employee of the State Police, a police department or sheriff's office that is a part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof, and who is responsible for the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the penal, traffic or highway laws of the Commonwealth for the purposes of the administration of criminal justice;
2. Such other individuals and agencies that require criminal history record information to implement a state or federal statute or executive order of the President of the United States or Governor that expressly refers to criminal conduct and contains requirements or exclusions expressly based upon such conduct, except that information concerning the arrest of an individual may not be disseminated to a noncriminal justice agency or individual if an interval of one year has elapsed from the date of the arrest and no disposition of the charge has been recorded and no active prosecution of the charge is pending;
3. Individuals and agencies pursuant to a specific agreement with a criminal justice agency to provide services required for the administration of criminal justice pursuant to that agreement which shall specifically authorize access to data, limit the use of data to purposes for which given, and ensure the security and confidentiality of the data;
4. Individuals and agencies for the express purpose of research, evaluative, or statistical activities pursuant to an agreement with a criminal justice agency that shall specifically authorize access to data, limit the use of data to research, evaluative, or statistical purposes, and ensure the confidentiality and security of the data;
5. Agencies of state or federal government that are authorized by state or federal statute or executive order of the President of the United States or Governor to conduct investigations determining employment suitability or eligibility for security clearances allowing access to classified information;
6. Individuals and agencies where authorized by court order or court rule;
7. Agencies of any political subdivision of the Commonwealth, public transportation companies owned, operated or controlled by any political subdivision, and any public service corporation that operates a public transit system owned by a local government for the conduct of investigations of applicants for employment, permit, or license whenever, in the interest of public welfare or safety, it is necessary to determine under a duly enacted ordinance if the past criminal conduct of a person with a conviction record would be compatible with the nature of the employment, permit, or license under consideration;
7a. Commissions created pursuant to the Transportation District Act of 1964 (§ 33.2-1900 et seq.) of Title 33.2 and their contractors, for the conduct of investigations of individuals who have been offered a position of employment whenever, in the interest of public welfare or safety and as authorized in the Transportation District Act of 1964, it is necessary to determine if the past criminal conduct of a person with a conviction record would be compatible with the nature of the employment under consideration;
8. Public or private agencies when authorized or required by federal or state law or interstate compact to investigate (i) applicants for foster or adoptive parenthood or (ii) any individual, and the adult members of that individual's household, with whom the agency is considering placing a child or from whom the agency is considering removing a child due to abuse or neglect, on an emergency, temporary, or permanent basis pursuant to §§ 63.2-901.1 and 63.2-1505, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated to any party other than a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law;
9. To the extent permitted by federal law or regulation, public service companies as defined in § 56-1, for the conduct of investigations of applicants for employment when such employment involves personal contact with the public or when past criminal conduct of an applicant would be incompatible with the nature of the employment under consideration;
10. The appropriate authority for purposes of granting citizenship and for purposes of international travel, including, but not limited to, issuing visas and passports;
11. A person requesting a copy of his own criminal history record information as defined in § 9.1-101 at his cost, except that criminal history record information shall be supplied at no charge to a person who has applied to be a volunteer with (i) a Virginia affiliate of Big Brothers/Big Sisters of America; (ii) a volunteer fire company; (iii) the Volunteer Emergency Families for Children; (iv) any affiliate of Prevent Child Abuse, Virginia; (v) any Virginia affiliate of Compeer; or (vi) any board member or any individual who has been offered membership on the board of a Crime Stoppers, Crime Solvers or Crime Line program as defined in § 15.2-1713.1;
12. Administrators and board presidents of and applicants for licensure or registration as a child welfare agency as defined in § 63.2-100 for dissemination to the Commissioner of Social Services' representative pursuant to § 63.2-1702 for the conduct of investigations with respect to employees of and volunteers at such facilities, caretakers, and foster and adoptive parent applicants of private child-placing agencies, pursuant to §§ 63.2-1719, 63.2-1720, and 63.2-1721, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated by the facility or agency to any party other than the data subject, the Commissioner of Social Services' representative or a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for such further dissemination; however, nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit the Commissioner of Social Services' representative from issuing written certifications regarding the results of a background check that was conducted before July 1, 2021, in accordance with subsection J of § 22.1-289.035 or § 22.1-289.039;
13. The Department of Social Services for the purpose of screening individuals as a condition of licensure, employment, volunteering, or providing services on a regular basis in a licensed child welfare agency pursuant to §§ 63.2-1721 and 63.2-1726 or foster or adoptive home approved by a child-placing agency pursuant to § 63.2-901.1;
14. The school boards of the Commonwealth for the purpose of screening individuals who are offered or who accept public school employment and those current school board employees for whom a report of arrest has been made pursuant to § 19.2-83.1;
15. The Virginia Lottery for the conduct of investigations as set forth in the Virginia Lottery Law (§ 58.1-4000 et seq.) and casino gaming as set forth in Chapter 41 (§ 58.1-4100 et seq.) of Title 58.1, and the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services for the conduct of investigations as set forth in Article 1.1:1 (§ 18.2-340.15 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 18.2;
16. Licensed nursing homes, hospitals and home care organizations for the conduct of investigations of applicants for compensated employment in licensed nursing homes pursuant to § 32.1-126.01, hospital pharmacies pursuant to § 32.1-126.02, and home care organizations pursuant to § 32.1-162.9:1, subject to the limitations set out in subsection E;
17. Licensed assisted living facilities and licensed adult day centers for the conduct of investigations of applicants for compensated employment in licensed assisted living facilities and licensed adult day centers pursuant to § 63.2-1720, subject to the limitations set out in subsection F;
18. The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority for the conduct of investigations as set forth in § 4.1-103.1 or pursuant to any other law;
19. The State Board of Elections and authorized officers and employees thereof and general registrars appointed pursuant to § 24.2-110 in the course of conducting necessary investigations with respect to voter registration, limited to any record of felony convictions;
20. The Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (the Commissioner) or his designees for individuals who are committed to the custody of or being evaluated by the Commissioner pursuant to §§ 19.2-168.1, 19.2-169.1, 19.2-169.2, 19.2-169.5, 19.2-169.6, 19.2-182.2, 19.2-182.3, 19.2-182.8, and 19.2-182.9 where such information may be beneficial for the purpose of placement, evaluation, treatment, or discharge planning;
21. Any alcohol safety action program certified by the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program for (i) interventions with first offenders under § 18.2-251 or (ii) services to offenders under § 18.2-51.4, 18.2-266, or 18.2-266.1;
22. Residential facilities for juveniles regulated or operated by the Department of Social Services, the Department of Education, or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services for the purpose of determining applicants' fitness for employment or for providing volunteer or contractual services;
23. The Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and facilities operated by the Department for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment pursuant to departmental instructions;
24. Pursuant to § 22.1-296.3, the governing boards or administrators of private elementary or secondary schools which are accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 or a private organization coordinating such records information on behalf of such governing boards or administrators pursuant to a written agreement with the Department of State Police;
25. Public institutions of higher education and nonprofit private institutions of higher education for the purpose of screening individuals who are offered or accept employment;
26. Members of a threat assessment team established by a local school board pursuant to § 22.1-79.4, by a public institution of higher education pursuant to § 23.1-805, or by a private nonprofit institution of higher education, for the purpose of assessing or intervening with an individual whose behavior may present a threat to safety; however, no member of a threat assessment team shall redisclose any criminal history record information obtained pursuant to this section or otherwise use any record of an individual beyond the purpose that such disclosure was made to the threat assessment team;
27. Executive directors of community services boards or the personnel director serving the community services board for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment, approval as a sponsored residential service provider, permission to enter into a shared living arrangement with a person receiving medical assistance services pursuant to a waiver, or permission for any person under contract with the community services board to serve in a direct care position on behalf of the community services board pursuant to §§ 37.2-506, 37.2-506.1, and 37.2-607;
28. Executive directors of behavioral health authorities as defined in § 37.2-600 for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment, approval as a sponsored residential service provider, permission to enter into a shared living arrangement with a person receiving medical assistance services pursuant to a waiver, or permission for any person under contract with the behavioral health authority to serve in a direct care position on behalf of the behavioral health authority pursuant to §§ 37.2-506, 37.2-506.1, and 37.2-607;
29. The Commissioner of Social Services for the purpose of locating persons who owe child support or who are alleged in a pending paternity proceeding to be a putative father, provided that only the name, address, demographics and social security number of the data subject shall be released;
30. Authorized officers or directors of agencies licensed pursuant to Article 2 (§ 37.2-403 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2 by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services for the purpose of determining if any applicant who accepts employment in any direct care position or requests approval as a sponsored residential service provider, permission to enter into a shared living arrangement with a person receiving medical assistance services pursuant to a waiver, or permission for any person under contract with the provider to serve in a direct care position has been convicted of a crime that affects his fitness to have responsibility for the safety and well-being of individuals with mental illness, intellectual disability, or substance abuse pursuant to §§ 37.2-416, 37.2-416.1, 37.2-506, 37.2-506.1, and 37.2-607;
31. The Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles, for the purpose of evaluating applicants for and holders of a motor carrier certificate or license subject to the provisions of Chapters 20 (§ 46.2-2000 et seq.) and 21 (§ 46.2-2100 et seq.) of Title 46.2;
32. The Chairman of the Senate Committee for Courts of Justice or the Chairman of the House Committee for Courts of Justice for the purpose of determining if any person being considered for election to any judgeship has been convicted of a crime;
33. Heads of state agencies in which positions have been identified as sensitive for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment in positions designated as sensitive under Department of Human Resource Management policies developed pursuant to § 2.2-1201.1;
34. The Office of the Attorney General, for all criminal justice activities otherwise permitted under subdivision A 1 and for purposes of performing duties required by the Civil Commitment of Sexually Violent Predators Act (§ 37.2-900 et seq.);
35. Shipyards, to the extent permitted by federal law or regulation, engaged in the design, construction, overhaul, or repair of nuclear vessels for the United States Navy, including their subsidiary companies, for the conduct of investigations of applications for employment or for access to facilities, by contractors, leased laborers, and other visitors;
36. Any employer of individuals whose employment requires that they enter the homes of others, for the purpose of screening individuals who apply for, are offered, or have accepted such employment;
37. Public agencies when and as required by federal or state law to investigate (i) applicants as providers of adult foster care and home-based services or (ii) any individual with whom the agency is considering placing an adult on an emergency, temporary, or permanent basis pursuant to § 63.2-1601.1, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated by the agency to any party other than a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for such further dissemination, subject to limitations set out in subsection G;
38. The Department of Medical Assistance Services, or its designee, for the purpose of screening individuals who, through contracts, subcontracts, or direct employment, volunteer, apply for, are offered, or have accepted a position related to the provision of transportation services to enrollees in the Medicaid Program or the Family Access to Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) Program, or any other program administered by the Department of Medical Assistance Services;
39. The State Corporation Commission for the purpose of investigating individuals who are current or proposed members, senior officers, directors, and principals of an applicant or person licensed under Chapter 16 (§ 6.2-1600 et seq.), Chapter 19 (§ 6.2-1900 et seq.), or Chapter 26 (§ 6.2-2600 et seq.) of Title 6.2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if an application is denied based in whole or in part on information obtained from the Central Criminal Records Exchange pursuant to Chapter 16, 19, or 26 of Title 6.2, the Commissioner of Financial Institutions or his designee may disclose such information to the applicant or its designee;
40. The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation for the purpose of investigating individuals for initial licensure pursuant to § 54.1-2106.1;
41. The Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services and the Department for the Blind and Vision Impaired for the purpose of evaluating an individual's fitness for various types of employment and for the purpose of delivering comprehensive vocational rehabilitation services pursuant to Article 11 (§ 51.5-170 et seq.) of Chapter 14 of Title 51.5 that will assist the individual in obtaining employment;
42. Bail bondsmen, in accordance with the provisions of § 19.2-120;
43. The State Treasurer for the purpose of determining whether a person receiving compensation for wrongful incarceration meets the conditions for continued compensation under § 8.01-195.12;
44. The Department of Education or its agents or designees for the purpose of screening individuals seeking to enter into a contract with the Department of Education or its agents or designees for the provision of child care services for which child care subsidy payments may be provided;
45. The Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate any parent, guardian, or other adult members of a juvenile's household when completing a predispositional or postdispositional report required by § 16.1-273 or a Board of Juvenile Justice regulation promulgated pursuant to § 16.1-233;
46. The State Corporation Commission, for the purpose of screening applicants for insurance licensure under Chapter 18 (§ 38.2-1800 et seq.) of Title 38.2;
47. Administrators and board presidents of and applicants for licensure or registration as a child day program or family day system, as such terms are defined in § 22.1-289.02, for dissemination to the Superintendent of Public Instruction's representative pursuant to § 22.1-289.013 for the conduct of investigations with respect to employees of and volunteers at such facilities pursuant to §§ 22.1-289.034 through 22.1-289.037, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated by the facility or agency to any party other than the data subject, the Superintendent of Public Instruction's representative, or a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for such further dissemination; however, nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit the Superintendent of Public Instruction's representative from issuing written certifications regarding the results of prior background checks in accordance with subsection J of § 22.1-289.035 or § 22.1-289.039;
48. The National Center for Missing and Exploited Children for the purpose of screening individuals who are offered or accept employment or will be providing volunteer or contractual services with the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children;
49. The Executive Director or investigators of the Board of Accountancy for the purpose of the enforcement of laws relating to the Board of Accountancy in accordance with § 54.1-4407; and
50. Other entities as otherwise provided by law.
Upon an ex parte motion of a defendant in a felony case and upon the showing that the records requested may be relevant to such case, the court shall enter an order requiring the Central Criminal Records Exchange to furnish the defendant, as soon as practicable, copies of any records of persons designated in the order on whom a report has been made under the provisions of this chapter.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter to the contrary, upon a written request sworn to before an officer authorized to take acknowledgments, the Central Criminal Records Exchange, or the criminal justice agency in cases of offenses not required to be reported to the Exchange, shall furnish a copy of conviction data covering the person named in the request to the person making the request; however, such person on whom the data is being obtained shall consent in writing, under oath, to the making of such request. A person receiving a copy of his own conviction data may utilize or further disseminate that data as he deems appropriate. In the event no conviction data is maintained on the data subject, the person making the request shall be furnished at his cost a certification to that effect.
B. Use of criminal history record information disseminated to noncriminal justice agencies under this section shall be limited to the purposes for which it was given and may not be disseminated further, except as otherwise provided in subdivision A 47.
C. No criminal justice agency or person shall confirm the existence or nonexistence of criminal history record information for employment or licensing inquiries except as provided by law.
D. Criminal justice agencies shall establish procedures to query the Central Criminal Records Exchange prior to dissemination of any criminal history record information on offenses required to be reported to the Central Criminal Records Exchange to ensure that the most up-to-date disposition data is being used. Inquiries of the Exchange shall be made prior to any dissemination except in those cases where time is of the essence and the normal response time of the Exchange would exceed the necessary time period. A criminal justice agency to whom a request has been made for the dissemination of criminal history record information that is required to be reported to the Central Criminal Records Exchange may direct the inquirer to the Central Criminal Records Exchange for such dissemination. Dissemination of information regarding offenses not required to be reported to the Exchange shall be made by the criminal justice agency maintaining the record as required by § 15.2-1722.
E. Criminal history information provided to licensed nursing homes, hospitals and to home care organizations pursuant to subdivision A 16 shall be limited to the convictions on file with the Exchange for any offense specified in §§ 32.1-126.01, 32.1-126.02, and 32.1-162.9:1.
F. Criminal history information provided to licensed assisted living facilities and licensed adult day centers pursuant to subdivision A 17 shall be limited to the convictions on file with the Exchange for any offense specified in § 63.2-1720.
G. Criminal history information provided to public agencies pursuant to subdivision A 37 shall be limited to the convictions on file with the Exchange for any offense set forth in clause (i) of the definition of barrier crime in § 19.2-392.02.
H. Upon receipt of a written request from an employer or prospective employer, the Central Criminal Records Exchange, or the criminal justice agency in cases of offenses not required to be reported to the Exchange, shall furnish at the employer's cost a copy of conviction data covering the person named in the request to the employer or prospective employer making the request, provided that the person on whom the data is being obtained has consented in writing to the making of such request and has presented a photo-identification to the employer or prospective employer. In the event no conviction data is maintained on the person named in the request, the requesting employer or prospective employer shall be furnished at his cost a certification to that effect. The criminal history record search shall be conducted on forms provided by the Exchange.
I. The attorney for the Commonwealth shall provide a physical or electronic copy of a person's criminal history record information, including criminal history record information maintained in the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) and the Interstate Identification Index System (III System) that is in his possession, pursuant to the rules of court for obtaining discovery or for review by the court. No criminal history record information provided under this subsection shall be disseminated further.
§ 19.2-389. (Effective July 1, 2026) Dissemination of criminal history record information.
A. Criminal history record information shall be disseminated, whether directly or through an intermediary, only to:
1. Authorized officers or employees of criminal justice agencies, as defined by § 9.1-101, for purposes of the administration of criminal justice and the screening of an employment application or review of employment by a criminal justice agency with respect to its own employees or applicants, and dissemination to the Virginia Parole Board, pursuant to this subdivision, of such information on all state-responsible inmates for the purpose of making parole determinations pursuant to subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6 of § 53.1-136 shall include collective dissemination by electronic means every 30 days. For purposes of this subdivision, criminal history record information includes information sent to the Central Criminal Records Exchange pursuant to §§ 37.2-819 and 64.2-2014 when disseminated to any full-time or part-time employee of the State Police, a police department or sheriff's office that is a part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof, and who is responsible for the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the penal, traffic or highway laws of the Commonwealth for the purposes of the administration of criminal justice;
2. Such other individuals and agencies that require criminal history record information to implement a state or federal statute or executive order of the President of the United States or Governor that expressly refers to criminal conduct and contains requirements or exclusions expressly based upon such conduct, except that information concerning the arrest of an individual may not be disseminated to a noncriminal justice agency or individual if an interval of one year has elapsed from the date of the arrest and no disposition of the charge has been recorded and no active prosecution of the charge is pending;
3. Individuals and agencies pursuant to a specific agreement with a criminal justice agency to provide services required for the administration of criminal justice pursuant to that agreement which shall specifically authorize access to data, limit the use of data to purposes for which given, and ensure the security and confidentiality of the data;
4. Individuals and agencies for the express purpose of research, evaluative, or statistical activities pursuant to an agreement with a criminal justice agency that shall specifically authorize access to data, limit the use of data to research, evaluative, or statistical purposes, and ensure the confidentiality and security of the data;
5. Agencies of state or federal government that are authorized by state or federal statute or executive order of the President of the United States or Governor to conduct investigations determining employment suitability or eligibility for security clearances allowing access to classified information;
6. Individuals and agencies where authorized by court order or court rule;
7. Agencies of any political subdivision of the Commonwealth, public transportation companies owned, operated or controlled by any political subdivision, and any public service corporation that operates a public transit system owned by a local government for the conduct of investigations of applicants for employment, permit, or license whenever, in the interest of public welfare or safety, it is necessary to determine under a duly enacted ordinance if the past criminal conduct of a person with a conviction record would be compatible with the nature of the employment, permit, or license under consideration;
7a. Commissions created pursuant to the Transportation District Act of 1964 (§ 33.2-1900 et seq.) of Title 33.2 and their contractors, for the conduct of investigations of individuals who have been offered a position of employment whenever, in the interest of public welfare or safety and as authorized in the Transportation District Act of 1964, it is necessary to determine if the past criminal conduct of a person with a conviction record would be compatible with the nature of the employment under consideration;
8. Public or private agencies when authorized or required by federal or state law or interstate compact to investigate (i) applicants for foster or adoptive parenthood or (ii) any individual, and the adult members of that individual's household, with whom the agency is considering placing a child or from whom the agency is considering removing a child due to abuse or neglect, on an emergency, temporary, or permanent basis pursuant to §§ 63.2-901.1 and 63.2-1505, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated to any party other than a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law;
9. To the extent permitted by federal law or regulation, public service companies as defined in § 56-1, for the conduct of investigations of applicants for employment when such employment involves personal contact with the public or when past criminal conduct of an applicant would be incompatible with the nature of the employment under consideration;
10. The appropriate authority for purposes of granting citizenship and for purposes of international travel, including, but not limited to, issuing visas and passports;
11. A person requesting a copy of his own criminal history record information as defined in § 9.1-101 at his cost, except that criminal history record information shall be supplied at no charge to a person who has applied to be a volunteer with (i) a Virginia affiliate of Big Brothers/Big Sisters of America; (ii) a volunteer fire company; (iii) the Volunteer Emergency Families for Children; (iv) any affiliate of Prevent Child Abuse, Virginia; (v) any Virginia affiliate of Compeer; or (vi) any board member or any individual who has been offered membership on the board of a Crime Stoppers, Crime Solvers or Crime Line program as defined in § 15.2-1713.1;
12. Administrators and board presidents of and applicants for licensure or registration as a child welfare agency as defined in § 63.2-100 for dissemination to the Commissioner of Social Services' representative pursuant to § 63.2-1702 for the conduct of investigations with respect to employees of and volunteers at such facilities, caretakers, and foster and adoptive parent applicants of private child-placing agencies, pursuant to §§ 63.2-1719, 63.2-1720, and 63.2-1721, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated by the facility or agency to any party other than the data subject, the Commissioner of Social Services' representative or a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for such further dissemination; however, nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit the Commissioner of Social Services' representative from issuing written certifications regarding the results of a background check that was conducted before July 1, 2021, in accordance with subsection J of § 22.1-289.035 or § 22.1-289.039;
13. Administrators and board presidents of and applicants for licensure as a prescribed pediatric extended care center for dissemination to the State Health Commissioner's representative pursuant to §§ 32.1-162.15:1.5 and 32.1-162.15:1.10 for the conduct of investigations with respect to employees of and volunteers at such centers, pursuant to § 32.1-162.15:1.17, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated by the center to any party other than the data subject, the State Health Commissioner's representative, or a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law;
14. The Department of Social Services for the purpose of screening individuals as a condition of licensure, employment, volunteering, or providing services on a regular basis in a licensed child welfare agency pursuant to §§ 63.2-1721 and 63.2-1726 or foster or adoptive home approved by a child-placing agency pursuant to § 63.2-901.1;
15. The school boards of the Commonwealth for the purpose of screening individuals who are offered or who accept public school employment and those current school board employees for whom a report of arrest has been made pursuant to § 19.2-83.1;
16. The Virginia Lottery for the conduct of investigations as set forth in the Virginia Lottery Law (§ 58.1-4000 et seq.) and casino gaming as set forth in Chapter 41 (§ 58.1-4100 et seq.) of Title 58.1, and the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services for the conduct of investigations as set forth in Article 1.1:1 (§ 18.2-340.15 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 18.2;
17. Licensed prescribed pediatric extended care centers for the conduct of investigations of applicants for compensated employment and volunteers in licensed prescribed pediatric extended care centers pursuant to § 32.1-162.15:1.17;
18. Licensed nursing homes, hospitals and home care organizations for the conduct of investigations of applicants for compensated employment in licensed nursing homes pursuant to § 32.1-126.01, hospital pharmacies pursuant to § 32.1-126.02, and home care organizations pursuant to § 32.1-162.9:1, subject to the limitations set out in subsection E;
19. Licensed assisted living facilities and licensed adult day centers for the conduct of investigations of applicants for compensated employment in licensed assisted living facilities and licensed adult day centers pursuant to § 63.2-1720, subject to the limitations set out in subsection F;
20. The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority for the conduct of investigations as set forth in § 4.1-103.1 or pursuant to any other law;
21. The State Board of Elections and authorized officers and employees thereof and general registrars appointed pursuant to § 24.2-110 in the course of conducting necessary investigations with respect to voter registration, limited to any record of felony convictions;
22. The Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (the Commissioner) or his designees for individuals who are committed to the custody of or being evaluated by the Commissioner pursuant to §§ 19.2-168.1, 19.2-169.1, 19.2-169.2, 19.2-169.5, 19.2-169.6, 19.2-182.2, 19.2-182.3, 19.2-182.8, and 19.2-182.9 where such information may be beneficial for the purpose of placement, evaluation, treatment, or discharge planning;
23. Any alcohol safety action program certified by the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program for (i) interventions with first offenders under § 18.2-251 or (ii) services to offenders under § 18.2-51.4, 18.2-266, or 18.2-266.1;
24. Residential facilities for juveniles regulated or operated by the Department of Social Services, the Department of Education, or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services for the purpose of determining applicants' fitness for employment or for providing volunteer or contractual services;
25. The Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and facilities operated by the Department for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment pursuant to departmental instructions;
26. Pursuant to § 22.1-296.3, the governing boards or administrators of private elementary or secondary schools which are accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 or a private organization coordinating such records information on behalf of such governing boards or administrators pursuant to a written agreement with the Department of State Police;
27. Public institutions of higher education and nonprofit private institutions of higher education for the purpose of screening individuals who are offered or accept employment;
28. Members of a threat assessment team established by a local school board pursuant to § 22.1-79.4, by a public institution of higher education pursuant to § 23.1-805, or by a private nonprofit institution of higher education, for the purpose of assessing or intervening with an individual whose behavior may present a threat to safety; however, no member of a threat assessment team shall redisclose any criminal history record information obtained pursuant to this section or otherwise use any record of an individual beyond the purpose that such disclosure was made to the threat assessment team;
29. Executive directors of community services boards or the personnel director serving the community services board for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment, approval as a sponsored residential service provider, permission to enter into a shared living arrangement with a person receiving medical assistance services pursuant to a waiver, or permission for any person under contract with the community services board to serve in a direct care position on behalf of the community services board pursuant to §§ 37.2-506, 37.2-506.1, and 37.2-607;
30. Executive directors of behavioral health authorities as defined in § 37.2-600 for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment, approval as a sponsored residential service provider, permission to enter into a shared living arrangement with a person receiving medical assistance services pursuant to a waiver, or permission for any person under contract with the behavioral health authority to serve in a direct care position on behalf of the behavioral health authority pursuant to §§ 37.2-506, 37.2-506.1, and 37.2-607;
31. The Commissioner of Social Services for the purpose of locating persons who owe child support or who are alleged in a pending paternity proceeding to be a putative father, provided that only the name, address, demographics and social security number of the data subject shall be released;
32. Authorized officers or directors of agencies licensed pursuant to Article 2 (§ 37.2-403 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2 by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services for the purpose of determining if any applicant who accepts employment in any direct care position or requests approval as a sponsored residential service provider, permission to enter into a shared living arrangement with a person receiving medical assistance services pursuant to a waiver, or permission for any person under contract with the provider to serve in a direct care position has been convicted of a crime that affects his fitness to have responsibility for the safety and well-being of individuals with mental illness, intellectual disability, or substance abuse pursuant to §§ 37.2-416, 37.2-416.1, 37.2-506, 37.2-506.1, and 37.2-607;
33. The Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles, for the purpose of evaluating applicants for and holders of a motor carrier certificate or license subject to the provisions of Chapters 20 (§ 46.2-2000 et seq.) and 21 (§ 46.2-2100 et seq.) of Title 46.2;
34. The Chairman of the Senate Committee for Courts of Justice or the Chairman of the House Committee for Courts of Justice for the purpose of determining if any person being considered for election to any judgeship has been convicted of a crime;
35. Heads of state agencies in which positions have been identified as sensitive for the purpose of determining an individual's fitness for employment in positions designated as sensitive under Department of Human Resource Management policies developed pursuant to § 2.2-1201.1;
36. The Office of the Attorney General, for all criminal justice activities otherwise permitted under subdivision A 1 and for purposes of performing duties required by the Civil Commitment of Sexually Violent Predators Act (§ 37.2-900 et seq.);
37. Shipyards, to the extent permitted by federal law or regulation, engaged in the design, construction, overhaul, or repair of nuclear vessels for the United States Navy, including their subsidiary companies, for the conduct of investigations of applications for employment or for access to facilities, by contractors, leased laborers, and other visitors;
38. Any employer of individuals whose employment requires that they enter the homes of others, for the purpose of screening individuals who apply for, are offered, or have accepted such employment;
39. Public agencies when and as required by federal or state law to investigate (i) applicants as providers of adult foster care and home-based services or (ii) any individual with whom the agency is considering placing an adult on an emergency, temporary, or permanent basis pursuant to § 63.2-1601.1, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated by the agency to any party other than a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for such further dissemination, subject to limitations set out in subsection G;
40. The Department of Medical Assistance Services, or its designee, for the purpose of screening individuals who, through contracts, subcontracts, or direct employment, volunteer, apply for, are offered, or have accepted a position related to the provision of transportation services to enrollees in the Medicaid Program or the Family Access to Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) Program, or any other program administered by the Department of Medical Assistance Services;
41. The State Corporation Commission for the purpose of investigating individuals who are current or proposed members, senior officers, directors, and principals of an applicant or person licensed under Chapter 16 (§ 6.2-1600 et seq.), Chapter 19.1 (§ 6.2-1922 et seq.), or Chapter 26 (§ 6.2-2600 et seq.) of Title 6.2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if an application is denied based in whole or in part on information obtained from the Central Criminal Records Exchange pursuant to Chapter 16, 19, or 26 of Title 6.2, the Commissioner of Financial Institutions or his designee may disclose such information to the applicant or its designee;
42. The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation for the purpose of investigating individuals for initial licensure pursuant to § 54.1-2106.1;
43. The Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services and the Department for the Blind and Vision Impaired for the purpose of evaluating an individual's fitness for various types of employment and for the purpose of delivering comprehensive vocational rehabilitation services pursuant to Article 11 (§ 51.5-170 et seq.) of Chapter 14 of Title 51.5 that will assist the individual in obtaining employment;
44. Bail bondsmen, in accordance with the provisions of § 19.2-120;
45. The State Treasurer for the purpose of determining whether a person receiving compensation for wrongful incarceration meets the conditions for continued compensation under § 8.01-195.12;
46. The Department of Education or its agents or designees for the purpose of screening individuals seeking to enter into a contract with the Department of Education or its agents or designees for the provision of child care services for which child care subsidy payments may be provided;
47. The Department of Juvenile Justice to investigate any parent, guardian, or other adult members of a juvenile's household when completing a predispositional or postdispositional report required by § 16.1-273 or a Board of Juvenile Justice regulation promulgated pursuant to § 16.1-233;
48. The State Corporation Commission, for the purpose of screening applicants for insurance licensure under Chapter 18 (§ 38.2-1800 et seq.) of Title 38.2;
49. Administrators and board presidents of and applicants for licensure or registration as a child day program or family day system, as such terms are defined in § 22.1-289.02, for dissemination to the Superintendent of Public Instruction's representative pursuant to § 22.1-289.013 for the conduct of investigations with respect to employees of and volunteers at such facilities pursuant to §§ 22.1-289.034 through 22.1-289.037, subject to the restriction that the data shall not be further disseminated by the facility or agency to any party other than the data subject, the Superintendent of Public Instruction's representative, or a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for such further dissemination; however, nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit the Superintendent of Public Instruction's representative from issuing written certifications regarding the results of prior background checks in accordance with subsection J of § 22.1-289.035 or § 22.1-289.039;
50. The National Center for Missing and Exploited Children for the purpose of screening individuals who are offered or accept employment or will be providing volunteer or contractual services with the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children;
51. The Executive Director or investigators of the Board of Accountancy for the purpose of the enforcement of laws relating to the Board of Accountancy in accordance with § 54.1-4407; and
52. Other entities as otherwise provided by law.
Upon an ex parte motion of a defendant in a felony case and upon the showing that the records requested may be relevant to such case, the court shall enter an order requiring the Central Criminal Records Exchange to furnish the defendant, as soon as practicable, copies of any records of persons designated in the order on whom a report has been made under the provisions of this chapter.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter to the contrary, upon a written request sworn to before an officer authorized to take acknowledgments, the Central Criminal Records Exchange, or the criminal justice agency in cases of offenses not required to be reported to the Exchange, shall furnish a copy of conviction data covering the person named in the request to the person making the request; however, such person on whom the data is being obtained shall consent in writing, under oath, to the making of such request. A person receiving a copy of his own conviction data may utilize or further disseminate that data as he deems appropriate. In the event no conviction data is maintained on the data subject, the person making the request shall be furnished at his cost a certification to that effect.
B. Use of criminal history record information disseminated to noncriminal justice agencies under this section shall be limited to the purposes for which it was given and may not be disseminated further, except as otherwise provided in subdivision A 49.
C. No criminal justice agency or person shall confirm the existence or nonexistence of criminal history record information for employment or licensing inquiries except as provided by law.
D. Criminal justice agencies shall establish procedures to query the Central Criminal Records Exchange prior to dissemination of any criminal history record information on offenses required to be reported to the Central Criminal Records Exchange to ensure that the most up-to-date disposition data is being used. Inquiries of the Exchange shall be made prior to any dissemination except in those cases where time is of the essence and the normal response time of the Exchange would exceed the necessary time period. A criminal justice agency to whom a request has been made for the dissemination of criminal history record information that is required to be reported to the Central Criminal Records Exchange may direct the inquirer to the Central Criminal Records Exchange for such dissemination. Dissemination of information regarding offenses not required to be reported to the Exchange shall be made by the criminal justice agency maintaining the record as required by § 15.2-1722.
E. Criminal history information provided to licensed nursing homes, hospitals and to home care organizations pursuant to subdivision A 18 shall be limited to the convictions on file with the Exchange for any offense specified in §§ 32.1-126.01, 32.1-126.02, and 32.1-162.9:1.
F. Criminal history information provided to licensed assisted living facilities and licensed adult day centers pursuant to subdivision A 19 shall be limited to the convictions on file with the Exchange for any offense specified in § 63.2-1720.
G. Criminal history information provided to public agencies pursuant to subdivision A 39 shall be limited to the convictions on file with the Exchange for any offense set forth in clause (i) of the definition of barrier crime in § 19.2-392.02.
H. Upon receipt of a written request from an employer or prospective employer, the Central Criminal Records Exchange, or the criminal justice agency in cases of offenses not required to be reported to the Exchange, shall furnish at the employer's cost a copy of conviction data covering the person named in the request to the employer or prospective employer making the request, provided that the person on whom the data is being obtained has consented in writing to the making of such request and has presented a photo-identification to the employer or prospective employer. In the event no conviction data is maintained on the person named in the request, the requesting employer or prospective employer shall be furnished at his cost a certification to that effect. The criminal history record search shall be conducted on forms provided by the Exchange.
I. The attorney for the Commonwealth shall provide a physical or electronic copy of a person's criminal history record information, including criminal history record information maintained in the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) and the Interstate Identification Index System (III System) that is in his possession, pursuant to the rules of court for obtaining discovery or for review by the court. No criminal history record information provided under this subsection shall be disseminated further.
§ 19.2-389.3. (Repealed effective July 1, 2026) Marijuana possession; limits on dissemination of criminal history record information; prohibited practices by employers, educational institutions, and state and local governments; penalty.
A. Records relating to the arrest, criminal charge, or conviction of a person for a misdemeanor violation of former § 18.2-248.1 or a violation of former § 18.2-250.1, including any violation charged under §§ former § 18.2-248.1 or former § 18.2-250.1 that was deferred and dismissed pursuant to § 18.2-251, maintained in the Central Criminal Records Exchange shall not be open for public inspection or otherwise disclosed, provided that such records may be disseminated (i) to make the determination as provided in § 18.2-308.2:2 of eligibility to possess or purchase a firearm; (ii) to aid in the preparation of a pretrial investigation report prepared by a local pretrial services agency established pursuant to Article 5 (§ 19.2-152.2 et seq.) of Chapter 9, a pre-sentence or post-sentence investigation report pursuant to § 19.2-299 or in the preparation of the discretionary sentencing guidelines worksheets pursuant to subsection C of § 19.2-298.01; (iii) to aid local community-based probation services agencies established pursuant to the Comprehensive Community Corrections Act for Local-Responsible Offenders (§ 9.1-173 et seq.) with investigating or serving adult local-responsible offenders and all court service units serving juvenile delinquent offenders; (iv) for fingerprint comparison utilizing the fingerprints maintained in the Automated Fingerprint Information System computer; (v) to attorneys for the Commonwealth to secure information incidental to sentencing and to attorneys for the Commonwealth and probation officers to prepare the discretionary sentencing guidelines worksheets pursuant to subsection C of § 19.2-298.01; (vi) to any full-time or part-time employee of the State Police, a police department, or sheriff's office that is a part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof, and who is responsible for the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the penal, traffic, or highway laws of the Commonwealth, for purposes of the administration of criminal justice as defined in § 9.1-101; (vii) to the Virginia Criminal Sentencing Commission for research purposes; (viii) to any full-time or part-time employee of the State Police or a police department or sheriff's office that is a part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof for the purpose of screening any person for full-time or part-time employment with the State Police or a police department or sheriff's office that is a part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof; (ix) to the State Health Commissioner or his designee for the purpose of screening any person who applies to be a volunteer with or an employee of an emergency medical services agency as provided in § 32.1-111.5; (x) to any full-time or part-time employee of the Department of Forensic Science for the purpose of screening any person for full-time or part-time employment with the Department of Forensic Science; (xi) to the chief law-enforcement officer of a locality, or his designee who shall be an individual employed as a public safety official of the locality, that has adopted an ordinance in accordance with §§ 15.2-1503.1 and 19.2-389 for the purpose of screening any person who applies to be a volunteer with or an employee of an emergency medical services agency as provided in § 32.1-111.5; and (xii) to any full-time or part-time employee of the Department of Motor Vehicles, any employer as defined in § 46.2-341.4, or any medical examiner as defined in 49 C.F.R. § 390.5 for the purpose of complying with the regulations of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration.
B. An employer or educational institution shall not, in any application, interview, or otherwise, require an applicant for employment or admission to disclose information concerning any arrest, criminal charge, or conviction against him when the record relating to such arrest, criminal charge, or conviction is not open for public inspection pursuant to subsection A. An applicant need not, in answer to any question concerning any arrest, criminal charge, or conviction, include a reference to or information concerning any arrest, criminal charge, or conviction when the record relating to such arrest, criminal charge, or conviction is not open for public inspection pursuant to subsection A.
C. Agencies, officials, and employees of the state and local governments shall not, in any application, interview, or otherwise, require an applicant for a license, permit, registration, or governmental service to disclose information concerning any arrest, criminal charge, or conviction against him when the record relating to such arrest, criminal charge, or conviction is not open for public inspection pursuant to subsection A. An applicant need not, in answer to any question concerning any arrest, criminal charge, or conviction, include a reference to or information concerning any arrest, criminal charge, or conviction when the record relating to such arrest, criminal charge, or conviction is not open for public inspection pursuant to subsection A. Such an application may not be denied solely because of the applicant's refusal to disclose information concerning any such arrest, criminal charge, or conviction.
D. A person who willfully violates subsection B or C is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor for each violation.
§ 19.2-392.02. National criminal background checks by businesses and organizations regarding employees or volunteers providing care to children or the elderly or disabled.
A. For purposes of this section:
"Barrier crime" means (i) a felony violation of § 16.1-253.2; any violation of § 18.2-31, 18.2-32, 18.2-32.1, 18.2-32.2, 18.2-33, 18.2-35, 18.2-36, 18.2-36.1, 18.2-36.2, 18.2-41, or 18.2-42; any felony violation of § 18.2-46.2, 18.2-46.3, 18.2-46.3:1, or 18.2-46.3:3; any violation of § 18.2-46.5, 18.2-46.6, or 18.2-46.7; any violation of subsection A or B of § 18.2-47; any violation of § 18.2-48, 18.2-49, or 18.2-50.3; any violation of § 18.2-51, 18.2-51.1, 18.2-51.2, 18.2-51.3, 18.2-51.4, 18.2-51.5, 18.2-51.6, 18.2-52, 18.2-52.1, 18.2-53, 18.2-53.1, 18.2-54.1, 18.2-54.2, 18.2-55, 18.2-55.1, 18.2-56, 18.2-56.1, 18.2-56.2, 18.2-57, 18.2-57.01, 18.2-57.02, 18.2-57.2, 18.2-58, 18.2-58.1, 18.2-59, 18.2-60, or 18.2-60.1; any felony violation of § 18.2-60.3 or 18.2-60.4; any violation of § 18.2-61, 18.2-63, 18.2-64.1, 18.2-64.2, 18.2-67.1, 18.2-67.2, 18.2-67.3, 18.2-67.4, 18.2-67.4:1, 18.2-67.4:2, 18.2-67.5, 18.2-67.5:1, 18.2-67.5:2, 18.2-67.5:3, 18.2-77, 18.2-79, 18.2-80, 18.2-81, 18.2-82, 18.2-83, 18.2-84, 18.2-85, 18.2-86, 18.2-87, 18.2-87.1, or 18.2-88; any felony violation of § 18.2-279, 18.2-280, 18.2-281, 18.2-282, 18.2-282.1, 18.2-286.1, or 18.2-287.2; any violation of § 18.2-289, 18.2-290, 18.2-300, 18.2-308.4, or 18.2-314; any felony violation of § 18.2-346.01, 18.2-348, or 18.2-349; any violation of § 18.2-355, 18.2-356, 18.2-357, or 18.2-357.1; any violation of subsection B of § 18.2-361; any violation of § 18.2-366, 18.2-369, 18.2-370, 18.2-370.1, 18.2-370.2, 18.2-370.3, 18.2-370.4, 18.2-370.5, 18.2-370.6, 18.2-371.1, 18.2-374.1, 18.2-374.1:1, 18.2-374.3, 18.2-374.4, 18.2-379, 18.2-386.1, or 18.2-386.2; any felony violation of § 18.2-405 or 18.2-406; any violation of § 18.2-408, 18.2-413, 18.2-414, 18.2-423, 18.2-423.01, 18.2-423.1, 18.2-423.2, 18.2-433.2, 18.2-472.1, 18.2-474.1, 18.2-477, 18.2-477.1, 18.2-477.2, 18.2-478, 18.2-479, 18.2-480, 18.2-481, 18.2-484, 18.2-485, 37.2-917, or 53.1-203; or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (ii) any violation of § 18.2-89, 18.2-90, 18.2-91, 18.2-92, 18.2-93, or 18.2-94 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (iii) any felony violation of § 4.1-1101, 4.1-1114, 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.02, 18.2-248.03, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-248.5, 18.2-251.2, 18.2-251.3, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.2, 18.2-258, 18.2-258.02, 18.2-258.1, or 18.2-258.2 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (iv) any felony violation of § 18.2-250 or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; (v) any offense set forth in § 9.1-902 that results in the person's requirement to register with the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry pursuant to § 9.1-901, including any finding that a person is not guilty by reason of insanity in accordance with Chapter 11.1 (§ 19.2-182.2 et seq.) of Title 19.2 of an offense set forth in § 9.1-902 that results in the person's requirement to register with the Sex Offender and Crimes Against Minors Registry pursuant to § 9.1-901; any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction; or any offense for which registration in a sex offender and crimes against minors registry is required under the laws of the jurisdiction where the offender was convicted; or (vi) any other felony not included in clause (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) unless five years have elapsed from the date of the conviction.
"Barrier crime information" means the following facts concerning a person who has been arrested for, or has been convicted of, a barrier crime, regardless of whether the person was a juvenile or adult at the time of the arrest or conviction: full name, race, sex, date of birth, height, weight, fingerprints, a brief description of the barrier crime or offenses for which the person has been arrested or has been convicted, the disposition of the charge, and any other information that may be useful in identifying persons arrested for or convicted of a barrier crime.
"Care" means the provision of care, treatment, education, training, instruction, supervision, or recreation to children or the elderly or disabled.
"Department" means the Department of State Police.
"Employed by" means any person who is employed by, volunteers for, seeks to be employed by, or seeks to volunteer for a qualified entity.
"Identification document" means a document made or issued by or under the authority of the United States government, a state, a political subdivision of a state, a foreign government, political subdivision of a foreign government, an international governmental or an international quasi-governmental organization that, when completed with information concerning a particular individual, is of a type intended or commonly accepted for the purpose of identification of individuals.
"Provider" means a person who (i) is employed by a qualified entity and has, seeks to have, or may have unsupervised access to a child or to an elderly or disabled person to whom the qualified entity provides care; (ii) is a volunteer of a qualified entity and has, seeks to have, or may have unsupervised access to a child to whom the qualified entity provides care; or (iii) owns, operates, or seeks to own or operate a qualified entity.
"Qualified entity" means a business or organization that provides care to children or the elderly or disabled, whether governmental, private, for profit, nonprofit, or voluntary, except organizations exempt pursuant to subdivision A 7 of § 22.1-289.030.
B. A qualified entity may request the Department of State Police to conduct a national criminal background check on any provider who is employed by such entity. No qualified entity may request a national criminal background check on a provider until such provider has:
1. Been fingerprinted; and
2. Completed and signed a statement, furnished by the entity, that includes (i) his name, address, and date of birth as it appears on a valid identification document; (ii) a disclosure of whether or not the provider has ever been convicted of or is the subject of pending charges for a criminal offense within or outside the Commonwealth, and if the provider has been convicted of a crime, a description of the crime and the particulars of the conviction; (iii) a notice to the provider that the entity may request a background check; (iv) a notice to the provider that he is entitled to obtain a copy of any background check report, to challenge the accuracy and completeness of any information contained in any such report, and to obtain a prompt determination as to the validity of such challenge before a final determination is made by the Department; and (v) a notice to the provider that prior to the completion of the background check the qualified entity may choose to deny the provider unsupervised access to children or the elderly or disabled for whom the qualified entity provides care.
C. Upon receipt of (i) a qualified entity's written request to conduct a background check on a provider, (ii) the provider's fingerprints, and (iii) a completed, signed statement as described in subsection B, the Department shall make a determination whether the provider has been convicted of or is the subject of charges of a barrier crime. To conduct its determination regarding the provider's barrier crime information, the Department shall access the national criminal history background check system, which is maintained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation and is based on fingerprints and other methods of identification, and shall access the Central Criminal Records Exchange maintained by the Department. If the Department receives a background report lacking disposition data, the Department shall conduct research in whatever state and local recordkeeping systems are available in order to obtain complete data. The Department shall make reasonable efforts to respond to a qualified entity's inquiry within 15 business days.
D. Any background check conducted pursuant to this section for a provider employed by a private entity shall be screened by the Department of State Police. If the provider has been convicted of or is under indictment for a barrier crime, the qualified entity shall be notified that the provider is not qualified to work or volunteer in a position that involves unsupervised access to children or the elderly or disabled.
E. Any background check conducted pursuant to this section for a provider employed by a governmental entity shall be provided to that entity.
F. In the case of a provider who desires to volunteer at a qualified entity and who is subject to a national criminal background check, the Department and the Federal Bureau of Investigation may each charge the provider the lesser of $18 or the actual cost to the entity of the background check conducted with the fingerprints.
G. The failure to request a criminal background check pursuant to subsection B shall not be considered negligence per se in any civil action.
§ 19.2-392.6. (Effective July 1, 2026) Automatic sealing of offenses resulting in conviction.
A. If a person was convicted of a violation of any of the following sections with an offense date on or after January 1, 1986, such conviction, including any records relating to such conviction, shall be ordered to be automatically sealed in the manner set forth in § 19.2-392.7, subject to the provisions of subsections B and C: a misdemeanor violation of § 18.2-96 or 18.2-103; § 18.2-119, 18.2-120, or 18.2-134; a misdemeanor violation of former § 18.2-248.1; or § 18.2-415.
B. Subject to the provisions of subsection C, any conviction listed under subsection A shall be ordered to be automatically sealed if seven years have passed since the date of the conviction and the person convicted of such offense has not been convicted of violating any law of the Commonwealth that requires a report to the Central Criminal Records Exchange under subsection A of § 19.2-390 or any other state, the District of Columbia, or the United States or any territory thereof, excluding traffic infractions under Title 46.2, during that time period.
C. No conviction listed under subsection A shall be automatically sealed if, on the date of the conviction, the person was convicted of another offense that is not eligible for automatic sealing under subsection A.
This section shall not be construed as prohibiting a person from seeking sealing in the circuit court pursuant to the provisions of § 19.2-392.12 or 19.2-392.12:1.
§ 19.2-392.12:1. (Effective July 1, 2026) Sealing of charges and convictions related to automatic sealing; petition.
A. A person who has been convicted of or had a charge deferred and dismissed for a violation of § 4.1-305; a misdemeanor violation of § 18.2-96 or 18.2-103; a violation of § 18.2-119, 18.2-120, or 18.2-134; a misdemeanor violation of former § 18.2-248.1; a violation of subsection A of § 18.2-265.3; or a violation of § 18.2-415, where the offense date for any such offense was on or after January 1, 1986, may file a petition setting forth the relevant facts and requesting the sealing of the criminal history record information and court records relating to the charge or conviction. In addition to requesting the sealing of a charge or conviction, such petition may also request the sealing of any specifically identified ancillary matter related to such charge or conviction.
B. A person who had a conviction or offense automatically sealed pursuant to § 19.2-392.7 or 19.2-392.11 where the offense date for such conviction or offense was on or after January 1, 1986, or who had an offense sealed pursuant to § 19.2-392.6:1 regardless of the date of the offense, may file a petition setting forth the relevant facts and requesting sealing of the criminal history record information and court records of any specifically identified ancillary matter related to that charge or conviction.
C. A person shall not be required to pay any court fees or costs for filing a petition pursuant to this section.
D. The petition under subsection A or B, with a copy of the warrant, summons, or indictment, if reasonably available, shall be filed in the circuit court of the county or city in which the case was disposed of and shall contain, except when not reasonably available, (i) the date of arrest; (ii) the name of the arresting agency; (iii) the date of conviction, deferred dismissal, or final disposition of any ancillary matter; and (iv) the case number associated with each court record that is the subject of the petition. When this information is not reasonably available, the petition shall state the reason for such unavailability. The petition shall further state (a) the charge, conviction, or ancillary matter to be sealed; (b) the date of final disposition of the charge, conviction, or ancillary matter as set forth in the petition; (c) the petitioner's date of birth, sex, race, and social security number, if available; and (d) the full name used by the petitioner at the time of arrest or summons. A petition may request the sealing of the criminal history record information and court records for multiple charges, convictions, or ancillary matters as set forth in subsections A and B, provided that all such charges, convictions, and ancillary matters are eligible for sealing under this section. A petition may not request the sealing of the criminal history record information and court records where the charge, conviction, or ancillary matter was finalized on the same date as a conviction or deferred dismissal that is not eligible for sealing under this section.
E. A petitioner is not limited in the number of petitions that may be granted pursuant to this section within his lifetime. Any petition granted pursuant to this section shall not be counted toward the lifetime maximum of two petitions set forth in § 19.2-392.12.
F. The Commonwealth shall be made party to the proceeding. The petitioner shall provide a copy of the petition under subsection A or B by delivery or by first-class mail, postage prepaid, to the attorney for the Commonwealth of the county or city in which the petition is filed. The attorney for the Commonwealth may file an objection or answer to the petition or may give written notice to the court that he does not object to the petition within 30 days after it is delivered to him or received in the mail.
G. In addition to the filing of the petition under subsection D, the petitioner shall request that the Central Criminal Records Exchange (CCRE) electronically forward a copy of the petitioner's Virginia and national criminal history record to the circuit court in which the petition was filed. Upon receiving such request, the CCRE shall electronically forward such record to the circuit court; however, if the circuit court is unable to receive an electronic transmission, the CCRE shall forward a copy of such record to the circuit court which shall be maintained under seal by the clerk unless otherwise ordered by the court. Upon completion of the hearing, the court shall cause the criminal history record to be destroyed unless, within 30 days of the date of the entry of the final order in the matter, the petitioner or the attorney for the Commonwealth notes an appeal as provided by law in civil cases.
H. After receiving the criminal history record of the petitioner, the court may conduct a hearing on the petition.
I. For a petition filed pursuant to subsection A, the court shall enter an order requiring the sealing of the records related to the charge, conviction, or ancillary matter if the court finds that seven years have passed since the date of conviction or of dismissal of the deferred charge listed in subsection A and the petitioner has not been convicted of violating any law of the Commonwealth that requires a report to the Central Criminal Records Exchange under subsection A of § 19.2-390 or any other state, the District of Columbia, or the United States or any territory thereof, excluding traffic infractions under Title 46.2, during that time period.
J. For a petition filed pursuant to subsection B, the court shall enter an order to seal the ancillary matter if the charge or conviction identified in the petition has been sealed pursuant to § 19.2-392.6:1, 19.2-392.7, or 19.2-392.11.
K. If the attorney for the Commonwealth of the county or city in which the petition is filed (i) gives written notice to the court pursuant to subsection F that he does not object to the petition and (ii) stipulates in such written notice that the petitioner is eligible to have such charge, conviction, or ancillary matter sealed, the court may enter an order of sealing without conducting a hearing.
L. Any party aggrieved by the decision of the court may appeal, as provided by law in civil cases.
M. Upon the entry of an order of sealing, the clerk of the court shall maintain a copy of such order under seal and shall cause an electronic notification of such order to be forwarded to the Department of State Police. Such electronic notification shall contain (i) the petitioner's full name, date of birth, sex, race, and social security number, if available; (ii) the full name used by the petitioner at the time of arrest or summons; (iii) the petitioner's state identification number from the criminal history record; (iv) the court case number of the charge, conviction, or ancillary matter to be sealed, if available; and (v) the document control number, if available. The Department of State Police shall validate the accuracy of any criminal history record ordered to be sealed pursuant to this section but shall not validate whether such record is eligible for sealing. Upon receipt of such electronic notification, the Department of State Police shall seal such records in accordance with § 19.2-392.13. The Department of State Police shall also electronically notify the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court and any other agencies and individuals known to maintain or to have obtained such a record that such record has been ordered to be sealed and may only be disseminated in accordance with § 19.2-392.13.
N. Any order entered where (i) the court or parties failed to strictly comply with the procedures set forth in this section or (ii) the court entered an order for the sealing of records contrary to law shall be voidable upon motion and notice made within two years of the entry of such order.
O. A petition filed under this section and any responsive pleadings filed by the attorney for the Commonwealth shall be maintained under seal by the clerk unless otherwise ordered by the court. Any order to seal issued pursuant to this section shall be sealed and may only be disseminated for the purposes set forth in § 19.2-392.13.
P. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the circuit court from entering an order to seal a charge, conviction, or ancillary matter under this section when such charge, conviction, or ancillary matter is eligible for sealing under some other section of this chapter.
§ 22.1-206. Instruction concerning drugs, alcohol, substance abuse, retail tobacco products, hemp products intended for smoking, and gambling.
A. Instruction concerning drugs and drug abuse shall be provided by the public schools as prescribed by the Board of Education.
B. Instruction concerning the public safety hazards and dangers of alcohol abuse, underage drinking, underage marijuana use, and drunk driving shall be provided in the public schools. The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority shall provide educational materials to the Department of Education. The Department of Education shall review and shall distribute such materials as are approved to the public schools.
The Virginia Foundation for Healthy Youth shall develop and the Department of Education shall distribute to each local school division educational materials concerning the health and safety risks of using retail tobacco products and hemp products intended for smoking, as such terms are defined in § 18.2-371.2. Instruction concerning the health and safety risks of using retail tobacco products and hemp products intended for smoking, as such terms are defined in § 18.2-371.2, shall be provided in each public elementary and secondary school in the Commonwealth, consistent with such educational materials.
C. Instruction concerning gambling and the addictive potential thereof shall be provided by the public schools as prescribed by the Board.
§ 22.1-277.08. Expulsion of students for certain drug offenses.
A. School boards shall expel from school attendance any student whom such school board has determined, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this article, to have brought a controlled substance, or imitation controlled substance, or marijuana as those terms are defined in § 18.2-247 onto school property or to a school-sponsored activity. A school administrator, pursuant to school board policy, or a school board may, however, determine, based on the facts of a particular situation, that special circumstances exist and no disciplinary action or another disciplinary action or another term of expulsion is appropriate. A school board may, by regulation, authorize the division superintendent or his designee to conduct a preliminary review of such cases to determine whether a disciplinary action other than expulsion is appropriate. Such regulations shall ensure that, if a determination is made that another disciplinary action is appropriate, any such subsequent disciplinary action is to be taken in accordance with the procedures set forth in this article. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a student's expulsion regardless of the facts of the particular situation.
B. Each school board shall revise its standards of student conduct to incorporate the requirements of this section no later than three months after the date on which this act becomes effective.
§ 23.1-609. Surviving spouses and children of certain individuals; tuition and fee waivers.
A. The surviving spouse and any child between the ages of 16 and 25 of an individual who was killed in the line of duty while employed or serving as a (i) law-enforcement officer, including as a campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8, sworn law-enforcement officer, firefighter, special forest warden pursuant to § 10.1-1135, member of a rescue squad, special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, state correctional, regional or local jail officer, regional jail or jail farm superintendent, sheriff, or deputy sheriff; (ii) member of the Virginia National Guard while serving on official state duty or federal duty under Title 32 of the United States Code; or (iii) member of the Virginia Defense Force while servi2ng on official state duty, and any individual whose spouse was killed in the line of duty while employed or serving in any of such occupations, is entitled to a waiver of undergraduate tuition and mandatory fees at any public institution of higher education under the following conditions:
1. The chief executive officer of the deceased individual's employer certifies that such individual was so employed and was killed in the line of duty while serving or living in the Commonwealth; and
2. The surviving spouse or child is admitted to, enrolls at, and is in attendance at such institution and applies to such institution for the waiver. Waiver recipients who make satisfactory academic progress are eligible for renewal of such waiver.
B. Institutions that grant such waivers shall waive the amounts payable for tuition, institutional charges and mandatory educational and auxiliary fees, and books and supplies but shall not waive user fees such as room and board charges.
C. Each public institution of higher education shall include in its catalog or equivalent publication a statement describing the benefits available pursuant to this section.
§ 23.1-1301. Governing boards; powers.
A. The board of visitors of each baccalaureate public institution of higher education or its designee may:
1. Make regulations and policies concerning the institution;
2. Manage the funds of the institution and approve an annual budget;
3. Appoint the chief executive officer of the institution;
4. Appoint professors and fix their salaries; and
5. Fix the rates charged to students for tuition, mandatory fees, and other necessary charges.
B. The governing board of each public institution of higher education or its designee may:
1. In addition to the powers set forth in Restructured Higher Education Financial and Administrative Operations Act (§ 23.1-1000 et seq.), lease or sell and convey its interest in any real property that it has acquired by purchase, will, or deed of gift, subject to the prior approval of the Governor and any terms and conditions of the will or deed of gift, if applicable. The proceeds shall be held, used, and administered in the same manner as all other gifts and bequests;
2. Grant easements for roads, streets, sewers, waterlines, electric and other utility lines, or other purposes on any property owned by the institution;
3. Adopt regulations or institution policies for parking and traffic on property owned, leased, maintained, or controlled by the institution;
4. Adopt regulations or institution policies for the employment and dismissal of professors, teachers, instructors, and other employees;
5. Adopt regulations or institution policies for the acceptance and assistance of students in addition to the regulations or institution policies required pursuant to § 23.1-1303;
6. Adopt regulations or institution policies for the conduct of students in attendance and for the rescission or restriction of financial aid, suspension, and dismissal of students who fail or refuse to abide by such regulations or policies;
7. Establish programs, in cooperation with the Council and the Office of the Attorney General, to promote (i) student compliance with state laws on the use of alcoholic beverages and marijuana and (ii) the awareness and prevention of sexual crimes committed upon students;
8. Establish guidelines for the initiation or induction of students into any social fraternity or sorority in accordance with the prohibition against hazing as defined in § 18.2-56;
9. Assign any interest it possesses in intellectual property or in materials in which the institution claims an interest, provided such assignment is in accordance with the terms of the institution's intellectual property policies adopted pursuant to § 23.1-1303. The Governor's prior written approval is required for transfers of such property (i) developed wholly or predominantly through the use of state general funds, exclusive of capital assets and (ii)(a) developed by an employee of the institution acting within the scope of his assigned duties or (b) for which such transfer is made to an entity other than (1) the Innovation and Entrepreneurship Investment Authority, (2) an entity whose purpose is to manage intellectual properties on behalf of nonprofit organizations, colleges, and universities, or (3) an entity whose purpose is to benefit the respective institutions. The Governor may attach conditions to these transfers as he deems necessary. In the event the Governor does not approve such transfer, the materials shall remain the property of the respective institutions and may be used and developed in any manner permitted by law;
10. Conduct closed meetings pursuant to §§ 2.2-3711 and 2.2-3712 and conduct business through electronic communication means pursuant to § 2.2-3708.3; and
11. Adopt a resolution to require the governing body of a locality that is contiguous to the institution to enforce state statutes and local ordinances with respect to offenses occurring on the property of the institution. Upon receipt of such resolution, the governing body of such locality shall enforce statutes and local ordinances with respect to offenses occurring on the property of the institution.
§ 32.1-357. Board of Trustees; appointment; officers; quorum; executive committee; compensation and expenses.
A. The Foundation shall be governed and administered by a Board of Trustees consisting of 23 members. Two members shall be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Delegates from among the membership of the House of Delegates, one representing rural interests and one representing urban interests; two members shall be appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules, one representing rural interests and one representing urban interests, from among the membership of the Senate; two members shall be the Commissioner of the Department of Health or his designee and the Chairman of the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority or his designee; and 17 nonlegislative citizen members shall be appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly, as follows: (i) five designated representatives of public health organizations, such as the American Cancer Society, American Heart Association, Virginia Pediatric Society, Virginia Academy of Family Physicians, Virginia Dental Association, American Lung Association of Virginia, Medical Society of Virginia, Virginia Association of School Nurses, Virginia Nurses Association, and the Virginia Thoracic Society; (ii) four health professionals in the fields of oncology, cardiology, pulmonary medicine, and pediatrics; and (iii) eight citizens at large, including two youths. Of the eight citizen at large members, three adults shall be appointed by the Governor from a list of six provided by members of the General Assembly appointed to the Foundation and one member who is under the age of 18 years shall be appointed by the Governor from a list of three provided by the members of the General Assembly appointed to the Foundation.
Legislative members and the Commissioner of the Department of Health and the Chairman of the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority shall serve terms coincident with their terms of office. Following the initial staggering of terms, nonlegislative citizen members shall serve four-year terms. Vacancies in the membership of the Board shall be filled by appointment for the unexpired portion of the term. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointments. Legislative members may be reappointed for successive terms. No nonlegislative citizen member shall be eligible to serve for more than two successive four-year terms; however, after the expiration of a term of three years or less, or after the expiration of the remainder of a term to which he was appointed to fill a vacancy, two additional terms may be served by such member if appointed thereto. Immediately after such appointment, the members shall enter upon the performance of their duties.
B. The Foundation shall appoint from the membership of the Board a chairman and vice-chairman, both of whom shall serve in such capacities at the pleasure of the Foundation. The chairman, or in his absence, the vice-chairman, shall preside at all meetings of the Board. A majority of the members of the Board serving at any one time shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. The Board shall meet annually or more frequently at the call of the chairman.
The Board may establish an executive committee composed of the chairman, vice-chairman, and three additional members elected by the Board from its membership. The chairman of the Board shall serve as the chairman of the executive committee and shall preside over its meetings. In the absence of the chairman, the vice-chairman shall preside. The executive committee may exercise the powers and transact the business of the Board in the absence of the Board or when otherwise directed or authorized by the Board. A majority of the members of the executive committee shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. Any actions or business conducted by the executive committee shall be acted upon by the full board as soon as practicable.
C. Legislative members shall receive such compensation as provided in § 30-19.12 and nonlegislative citizen members shall receive compensation as provided in § 2.2-2813 for their services. All members shall be reimbursed for all reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as provided by §§ 2.2-2813 and 2.2-2825. Such compensation and expenses shall be paid from the Fund.
D. Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law, no officer or employee of the Commonwealth shall be deemed to have forfeited or shall forfeit his office or employment by reason of his acceptance of membership on the Board or his service to the Foundation.
E. Members of the Board and employees of the Foundation shall be subject to the standards of conduct set forth in the State and Local Government Conflict of Interests Act (§ 2.2-3100 et seq.) and may be removed from office for misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, neglect of duty, or misconduct in the manner set forth therein.
§ 33.2-613. Free use of toll facilities by certain state officers and employees; penalties.
A. Upon presentation of a toll pass issued pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Board, the following persons may use all toll bridges, toll ferries, toll tunnels, and toll roads in the Commonwealth without the payment of toll while in the performance of their official duties:
1. The Commissioner of Highways;
2. Members of the Commonwealth Transportation Board;
3. Employees of the Department of Transportation;
4. The Superintendent of the Department of State Police;
5. Officers and employees of the Department of State Police;
6. Members of the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority;
7. Employees of the regulatory and hearings divisions of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority and special agents of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority;
8. The Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles;
9. Employees of the Department of Motor Vehicles;
10. Local police officers;
11. Sheriffs and their deputies;
12. Regional jail officials;
13. Animal wardens;
14. The Director and officers of the Department of Wildlife Resources;
15. Persons operating firefighting equipment and emergency medical services vehicles as defined in § 32.1-111.1;
16. Operators of school buses being used to transport pupils to or from schools;
17. Operators of (i) commuter buses having a capacity of 20 or more passengers, including the driver, and used to regularly transport workers to and from their places of employment and (ii) public transit buses;
18. Employees of the Department of Rail and Public Transportation;
19. Employees of any transportation facility created pursuant to the Virginia Highway Corporation Act of 1988; and
20. Law-enforcement officers of the Virginia Marine Resources Commission.
B. Notwithstanding the provision of subsection A requiring presentation of a toll pass for toll-free use of such facilities, in cases of emergency and circumstances of concern for public safety on the highways of the Commonwealth, the Department of Transportation shall, in order to alleviate an actual or potential threat or risk to the public's safety, facilitate the flow of traffic on or within the vicinity of the toll facility by permitting the temporary suspension of toll collection operations on its facilities.
1. The assessment of the threat to public safety shall be performed and the decision temporarily to suspend toll collection operations shall be made by the Commissioner of Highways or his designee.
2. Major incidents that may require the temporary suspension of toll collection operations shall include (i) natural disasters, such as hurricanes, tornadoes, fires, and floods; (ii) accidental releases of hazardous materials, such as chemical spills; (iii) major traffic accidents, such as multivehicle collisions; and (iv) other incidents deemed to present a risk to public safety. Any mandatory evacuation during a state of emergency as defined in § 44-146.16 shall require the temporary suspension of toll collection operations in affected evacuation zones on routes designated as mass evacuation routes. The Commissioner of Highways shall reinstate toll collection when the mandatory evacuation period ends.
3. In any judicial proceeding in which a person is found to be criminally responsible or civilly liable for any incident resulting in the suspension of toll collections as provided in this subsection, the court may assess against the person an amount equal to lost toll revenue as a part of the costs of the proceeding and order that such amount, not to exceed $2,000 for any individual incident, be paid to the Department of Transportation for deposit into the toll road fund.
C. Any tollgate keeper who refuses to permit the persons listed in subsection A to use any toll bridge, toll ferry, toll tunnel, or toll road upon presentation of such a toll pass is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not more than $50 and not less than $2.50. Any person other than those listed in subsection A who exhibits any such toll pass for the purpose of using any toll bridge, toll ferry, toll tunnel, or toll road is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
D. Any vehicle operated by the holder of a valid driver's license or other document issued under Chapter 3 (§ 46.2-300 et seq.) of Title 46.2, or the comparable law of another jurisdiction, authorizing the operation of a motor vehicle upon the highways shall be allowed free use of all toll bridges, toll roads, and other toll facilities in the Commonwealth if:
1. The vehicle is specially equipped to permit its operation by an individual with a disability;
2. The driver of the vehicle has been certified, either by a physician licensed by the Commonwealth or any other state or by the Adjudication Office of the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, as having a severe physical disability and having permanent upper limb mobility or dexterity impairments that substantially impair his ability to deposit coins in toll baskets;
3. The driver has applied for and received from the Department of Transportation a vehicle window sticker identifying him as eligible for such free passage; and
4. Such identifying window sticker is properly displayed on the vehicle.
A copy of this subsection shall be posted at all toll bridges, toll roads, and other toll facilities in the Commonwealth. The Department of Transportation shall provide envelopes for payments of tolls by those persons exempted from tolls pursuant to this subsection and shall accept any payments made by such persons.
E. Nothing contained in this section or in § 33.2-612 or 33.2-1718 shall operate to affect the provisions of § 22.1-187.
F. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections A, B, and C, only the following persons may use the Chesapeake Bay Bridge-Tunnel, facilities of the Richmond Metropolitan Transportation Authority, or facilities of an operator authorized to operate a toll facility pursuant to the Public-Private Transportation Act of 1995 (§ 33.2-1800 et seq.) without the payment of toll when necessary and incidental to the conduct of official business:
1. The Commissioner of Highways;
2. Members of the Commonwealth Transportation Board;
3. Employees of the Department of Transportation;
4. The Superintendent of the Department of State Police;
5. Officers and employees of the Department of State Police;
6. The Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles;
7. Employees of the Department of Motor Vehicles; and
8. Sheriffs and deputy sheriffs.
However, in the event of a mandatory evacuation and suspension of tolls pursuant to subdivision B 2, the Commissioner of Highways or his designee shall order the temporary suspension of toll collection operations on facilities of all operators authorized to operate a toll facility pursuant to the Public-Private Transportation Act of 1995 (§ 33.2-1800 et seq.) that has been designated as a mass evacuation route in affected evacuation zones, to the extent such order is necessary to facilitate evacuation and is consistent with the terms of the applicable comprehensive agreement between the operator and the Department. The Commissioner of Highways shall authorize the reinstatement of toll collections suspended pursuant to this subsection when the mandatory evacuation period ends or upon the reinstatement of toll collections on other tolled facilities in the same affected area, whichever occurs first.
G. Any vehicle operated by a quadriplegic driver shall be allowed free use of all toll facilities in Virginia controlled by the Richmond Metropolitan Transportation Authority, pursuant to the requirements of subdivisions D 1 through 4.
H. Vehicles transporting two or more persons, including the driver, may be permitted toll-free use of the Dulles Toll Road during rush hours by the Board; however, notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision B 1 of § 56-543, such vehicles shall not be permitted toll-free use of a roadway as defined pursuant to the Virginia Highway Corporation Act of 1988 (§ 56-535 et seq.).
§ 46.2-105.2. Obtaining documents from the Department when not entitled thereto; penalty.
A. It shall be unlawful for any person to obtain a Virginia driver's license, special identification card, vehicle registration, certificate of title, or other document issued by the Department if such person has not satisfied all legal and procedural requirements for the issuance thereof, or is otherwise not legally entitled thereto, including obtaining any document issued by the Department through the use of counterfeit, forged, or altered documents.
B. It shall be unlawful to aid any person to obtain any driver's license, special identification card, vehicle registration, certificate of title, or other document in violation of the provisions of subsection A.
C. It shall be unlawful to knowingly possess or use for any purpose any driver's license, special identification card, vehicle registration, certificate of title, or other document obtained in violation of the provisions of subsection A.
D. A violation of any provision of this section shall constitute a Class 2 misdemeanor if a person is charged and convicted of a violation of this section that involved the unlawful obtaining or possession of any document issued by the Department for the purpose of engaging in any age-limited activity, including but not limited to obtaining, possessing, or consuming alcoholic beverages or marijuana. However, if a person is charged and convicted of any other violation of this section, such offense shall constitute a Class 6 felony.
E. Whenever it appears to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that any driver's license, special identification card, vehicle registration, certificate of title, or other document issued by the Department has been obtained in violation of this section, it may be cancelled by the Commissioner, who shall mail notice of the cancellation to the address of record maintained by the Department.
F. A violation of this section may be prosecuted in the jurisdiction (i) from which any person obtained any document issued by the Department, (ii) where any person received or created any counterfeit, forged, or altered document used to obtain any document issued by the Department, or (iii) where any counterfeit, forged, or altered document has been filed with the Department.
§ 46.2-347. Fraudulent use of driver's license or Department of Motor Vehicles identification card to obtain alcoholic beverages or marijuana; penalties.
Any underage person as specified in § 4.1-304 who knowingly uses or attempts to use a forged, deceptive or otherwise nongenuine driver's license issued by any state, territory or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or any foreign country or government; United States Armed Forces identification card; United States passport or foreign government visa; Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles special identification card; official identification issued by any other federal, state or foreign government agency; or official student identification card of an institution of higher education to obtain alcoholic beverages shall be or marijuana is guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor, and upon conviction of a violation of this section, the court shall revoke such convicted person's driver's license or privilege to drive a motor vehicle for a period of not less than 30 days nor more than one year.
§ 48-17.1. Temporary injunctions against alcoholic beverage sales or marijuana sales.
A. Any locality by or through its mayor, chief executive, or attorney may petition a circuit court to temporarily enjoin the sale of alcohol or marijuana at any establishment licensed by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority. The basis for such petition shall be the operator of the establishment has allowed it to become a meeting place for persons committing serious criminal violations of the law on or immediately adjacent to the premises so frequent and serious as to be deemed a continuing threat to public safety, as represented in an affidavit by the chief law-enforcement officer of the locality, supported by records of such criminal acts. The court shall, upon the presentation of evidence at a hearing on the matter, grant a temporary injunction, without bond, enjoining the sale of alcohol or marijuana at the establishment, if it appears to the satisfaction of the court that the threat to public safety complained of exists and is likely to continue if such injunction is not granted. The court hearing on the petition shall be held within 10 days of service upon the respondent. The respondent shall be served with notice of the time and place of the hearing and copies of all documentary evidence to be relied upon by the complainant at such hearing. Any injunction issued by the court shall be dissolved in the event the court later finds that the threat to public safety that is the basis of the injunction has been abated by reason of a change of ownership, management, or business operations at the establishment, or other change in circumstance.
B. The Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority shall be given notice of any hearing under this section. In the event an injunction is granted, the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority shall initiate an investigation into the activities at the establishment complained of and conduct an administrative hearing. After the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority hearing and when a final determination has been issued by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, regardless of disposition, any injunction issued hereunder shall be null, without further action by the complainant, respondent, or the court.
§ 51.1-212. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Employee" means any (i) member of the Capitol Police Force as described in § 30-34.2:1, (ii) campus police officer appointed under the provisions of Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1, (iii) conservation police officer in the Department of Wildlife Resources appointed under the provisions of Chapter 2 (§ 29.1-200 et seq.) of Title 29.1, (iv) special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority appointed under the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 4.1-100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, (v) law-enforcement officer employed by the Virginia Marine Resources Commission as described in § 9.1-101, (vi) correctional officer as the term is defined in § 53.1-1, and including correctional officers employed at a juvenile correction facility as the term is defined in § 66-25.3, (vii) parole officer appointed pursuant to § 53.1-143, (viii) commercial vehicle enforcement officer employed by the Department of State Police, (ix) full-time firefighter employed by the Department of Military Affairs, and (x) conservation officer of the Department of Conservation and Recreation appointed under the provisions of Article 4 (§ 10.1-115 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 10.1.
"Member" means any person included in the membership of the Retirement System as provided in this chapter.
"Normal retirement date" means a member's sixtieth birthday.
"Retirement System" means the Virginia Law Officers' Retirement System.
§ 53.1-231.2. Restoration of the civil right to be eligible to register to vote to certain persons.
This section shall apply to any person who is not a qualified voter because of a felony conviction, who seeks to have his right to register to vote restored and become eligible to register to vote, and who meets the conditions and requirements set out in this section.
Any person, other than a person (i) convicted of a violent felony as defined in § 19.2-297.1 or in subsection C of § 17.1-805 and any crime ancillary thereto; (ii) convicted of a felony pursuant to § 4.1-1101, 4.1-1114, 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-255, 18.2-255.2, or 18.2-258.02; or (iii) convicted of a felony pursuant to § 24.2-1016, may petition the circuit court of the county or city in which he was convicted of a felony, or the circuit court of the county or city in which he presently resides, for restoration of his civil right to be eligible to register to vote through the process set out in this section. On such petition, the court may approve the petition for restoration to the person of his right if the court is satisfied from the evidence presented that the petitioner has completed, five or more years previously, service of any sentence and any modification of sentence including probation, parole, and suspension of sentence; that the petitioner has demonstrated civic responsibility through community or comparable service; and that the petitioner has been free from criminal convictions, excluding traffic infractions, for the same period.
If the court approves the petition, it shall so state in an order, provide a copy of the order to the petitioner, and transmit its order to the Secretary of the Commonwealth. The order shall state that the petitioner's right to be eligible to register to vote may be restored by the date that is 90 days after the date of the order, subject to the approval or denial of restoration of that right by the Governor. The Secretary of the Commonwealth shall transmit the order to the Governor who may grant or deny the petition for restoration of the right to be eligible to register to vote approved by the court order. The Secretary of the Commonwealth shall send, within 90 days of the date of the order, to the petitioner at the address stated on the court's order, a certificate of restoration of that right or notice that the Governor has denied the restoration of that right. The Governor's denial of a petition for the restoration of voting rights shall be a final decision and the petitioner shall have no right of appeal. The Secretary shall notify the court and the State Board of Elections in each case of the restoration of the right or denial of restoration by the Governor.
On receipt of the certificate of restoration of the right to register to vote from the Secretary of the Commonwealth, the petitioner, who is otherwise a qualified voter, shall become eligible to register to vote.
§ 54.1-2903. What constitutes practice; advertising in connection with medical practice.
A. Any person shall be regarded as practicing the healing arts who actually engages in such practice as defined in this chapter, or who opens an office for such purpose, or who advertises or announces to the public in any manner a readiness to practice or who uses in connection with his name the words or letters "Doctor," "Dr.," "M.D.," "D.O.," "D.P.M.," "D.C.," "Healer," "N.P.," or any other title, word, letter or designation intending to designate or imply that he is a practitioner of the healing arts or that he is able to heal, cure or relieve those suffering from any injury, deformity or disease.
Signing a birth or death certificate, or signing any statement certifying that the person so signing has rendered professional service to the sick or injured, or signing or issuing a prescription for drugs or other remedial agents, shall be prima facie evidence that the person signing or issuing such writing is practicing the healing arts within the meaning of this chapter except where persons other than physicians are required to sign birth certificates.
B. No person regulated under this chapter shall use the title "Doctor" or the abbreviation "Dr." in writing or in advertising in connection with his practice unless he simultaneously uses words, initials, an abbreviation or designation, or other language that identifies the type of practice for which he is licensed. No person regulated under this chapter shall include in any advertisement a reference to marijuana, as defined in § 18.2-247 54.1-3401, unless such advertisement is for the treatment of addiction or substance abuse. However, nothing in this subsection shall prevent a person from including in any advertisement that such person is registered with the Board of Directors of the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority to issue written certifications for the use of cannabis products, as defined in § 4.1-1600.
§ 54.1-3443. Board to administer article.
A. The Board shall administer this article and may add substances to or deschedule or reschedule all substances enumerated in the schedules in this article pursuant to the procedures of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). In making a determination regarding a substance, the Board shall consider the following:
1. The actual or relative potential for abuse;
2. The scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known;
3. The state of current scientific knowledge regarding the substance;
4. The history and current pattern of abuse;
5. The scope, duration, and significance of abuse;
6. The risk to the public health;
7. The potential of the substance to produce psychic or physical dependence; and
8. Whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a substance already controlled under this article.
B. After considering the factors enumerated in subsection A, the Board shall make findings and issue a regulation controlling the substance if it finds the substance has a potential for abuse.
C. If the Board designates a substance as an immediate precursor, substances which are precursors of the controlled precursor shall not be subject to control solely because they are precursors of the controlled precursor.
D. If the Board, in consultation with the Department of Forensic Science, determines the substance shall be placed into Schedule I or II pursuant to § 54.1-3445 or 54.1-3447, the Board may amend its regulations pursuant to Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act. Prior to making such amendments, the Board shall conduct a public hearing. At least 30 days prior to conducting such hearing, it shall post notice of the hearing on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and shall send notice of the hearing to any persons requesting to be notified of a regulatory action. In the notice, the Board shall include a list of all substances it intends to schedule by regulation. The Board shall notify the House and Senate Committees for Courts of Justice of any new substance added to Schedule I or II pursuant to this subsection. Any substance added to Schedule I or II pursuant to this subsection shall remain on Schedule I or II for a period of 18 months. Upon expiration of such 18-month period, such substance shall be descheduled unless a general law is enacted adding such substance to Schedule I or II. Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Board from adding substances to or descheduling or rescheduling all substances enumerated in the schedules pursuant to the provisions of subsections A, B, and E.
E. If any substance is designated, rescheduled, or descheduled as a controlled substance under federal law and notice of such action is given to the Board, the Board may similarly control the substance under this chapter after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final or interim final order or rule designating a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or descheduling a substance by amending its regulations in accordance with the requirements of Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act. Prior to making such amendments, the Board shall post notice of the hearing on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and shall send notice of the hearing to any persons requesting to be notified of a regulatory action. The Board shall include a list of all substances it intends to schedule by regulation in such notice.
F. Authority to control under this section does not extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in Title 4.1.
G. The Board shall exempt any nonnarcotic substance from a schedule if such substance may, under the provisions of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 301 et seq.) or state law, be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription.
H. Any tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt, or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether scheduled pursuant to this section shall not be included in the definition of marijuana set forth in § 4.1-600, 18.2-247, or 54.1-3401.
§ 54.1-4426. Accounting services for licensed marijuana establishments.
A. As used in this section, "licensed" and "marijuana establishment" have the same meanings as provided in § 4.1-600.
B. A CPA, CPA firm, or officer, director, or employee of a CPA or CPA firm that provides accounting services to a licensed marijuana establishment shall not be held liable pursuant to any state law or regulation solely for providing such accounting services.
C. Nothing in this section shall require a CPA or CPA firm to provide accounting services to a licensed marijuana establishment.
§ 58.1-3. Secrecy of information; penalties.
A. Except in accordance with a proper judicial order or as otherwise provided by law, the Tax Commissioner or agent, clerk, commissioner of the revenue, treasurer, or any other state or local tax or revenue officer or employee, or any person to whom tax information is divulged pursuant to this section or § 58.1-512, 58.1-2712.2, or 58.1-3826, or any former officer or employee of any of the aforementioned offices shall not divulge any information acquired by him in the performance of his duties with respect to the transactions, property, including personal property, income or business of any person, firm or corporation. Such prohibition specifically includes any copy of a federal return or federal return information required by Virginia law to be attached to or included in the Virginia return. This prohibition shall apply to any reports, returns, financial documents or other information filed with the Attorney General pursuant to the provisions of Article 3 (§ 3.2-4204 et seq.) of Chapter 42 of Title 3.2. Any person violating the provisions of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. The provisions of this subsection shall not be applicable, however, to:
1. Matters required by law to be entered on any public assessment roll or book;
2. Acts performed or words spoken, published, or shared with another agency or subdivision of the Commonwealth in the line of duty under state law;
3. Inquiries and investigations to obtain information as to the process of real estate assessments by a duly constituted committee of the General Assembly, or when such inquiry or investigation is relevant to its study, provided that any such information obtained shall be privileged;
4. The sales price, date of construction, physical dimensions or characteristics of real property, or any information required for building permits;
5. Copies of or information contained in an estate's probate tax return, filed with the clerk of court pursuant to § 58.1-1714, when requested by a beneficiary of the estate or an heir at law of the decedent or by the commissioner of accounts making a settlement of accounts filed in such estate;
6. Information regarding nonprofit entities exempt from sales and use tax under § 58.1-609.11, when requested by the General Assembly or any duly constituted committee of the General Assembly;
7. Reports or information filed with the Attorney General by a Stamping Agent pursuant to the provisions of Article 3 (§ 3.2-4204 et seq.), when such reports or information are provided by the Attorney General to a tobacco products manufacturer who is required to establish a qualified escrow fund pursuant to § 3.2-4201 and are limited to the brand families of that manufacturer as listed in the Tobacco Directory established pursuant to § 3.2-4206 and are limited to the current or previous two calendar years or in any year in which the Attorney General receives Stamping Agent information that potentially alters the required escrow deposit of the manufacturer. The information shall only be provided in the following manner: the manufacturer may make a written request, on a quarterly or yearly basis or when the manufacturer is notified by the Attorney General of a potential change in the amount of a required escrow deposit, to the Attorney General for a list of the Stamping Agents who reported stamping or selling its products and the amount reported. The Attorney General shall provide the list within 15 days of receipt of the request. If the manufacturer wishes to obtain actual copies of the reports the Stamping Agents filed with the Attorney General, it must first request them from the Stamping Agents pursuant to subsection C of § 3.2-4209. If the manufacturer does not receive the reports pursuant to subsection C of § 3.2-4209, the manufacturer may make a written request to the Attorney General, including a copy of the prior written request to the Stamping Agent and any response received, for copies of any reports not received. The Attorney General shall provide copies of the reports within 45 days of receipt of the request.
B. 1. Nothing contained in this section shall be construed to prohibit the publication of statistics so classified as to prevent the identification of particular reports or returns and the items thereof or the publication of delinquent lists showing the names of taxpayers who are currently delinquent, together with any relevant information which in the opinion of the Department may assist in the collection of such delinquent taxes. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or other law, the Department, upon request by the General Assembly or any duly constituted committee of the General Assembly, shall disclose the total aggregate amount of an income tax deduction or credit taken by all taxpayers, regardless of (i) how few taxpayers took the deduction or credit or (ii) any other circumstances. This section shall not be construed to prohibit a local tax official from disclosing whether a person, firm or corporation is licensed to do business in that locality and divulging, upon written request, the name and address of any person, firm or corporation transacting business under a fictitious name. Additionally, notwithstanding any other provision of law, the commissioner of revenue is authorized to provide, upon written request stating the reason for such request, the Tax Commissioner with information obtained from local tax returns and other information pertaining to the income, sales and property of any person, firm or corporation licensed to do business in that locality.
2. This section shall not prohibit the Department from disclosing whether a person, firm, or corporation is registered as a retail sales and use tax dealer pursuant to Chapter 6 (§ 58.1-600 et seq.) or whether a certificate of registration number relating to such tax is valid. Additionally, notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Department is hereby authorized to make available the names and certificate of registration numbers of dealers who are currently registered for retail sales and use tax.
3. This section shall not prohibit the Department from disclosing information to nongovernmental entities with which the Department has entered into a contract to provide services that assist it in the administration of refund processing or other services related to its administration of taxes.
4. This section shall not prohibit the Department from disclosing information to taxpayers regarding whether the taxpayer's employer or another person or entity required to withhold on behalf of such taxpayer submitted withholding records to the Department for a specific taxable year as required pursuant to subdivision C 1 of § 58.1-478.
5. This section shall not prohibit the commissioner of the revenue, treasurer, director of finance, or other similar local official who collects or administers taxes for a county, city, or town from disclosing information to nongovernmental entities with which the locality has entered into a contract to provide services that assist it in the administration of refund processing or other non-audit services related to its administration of taxes. The commissioner of the revenue, treasurer, director of finance, or other similar local official who collects or administers taxes for a county, city, or town shall not disclose information to such entity unless he has obtained a written acknowledgement by such entity that the confidentiality and nondisclosure obligations of and penalties set forth in subsection A apply to such entity and that such entity agrees to abide by such obligations.
C. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A or B or any other provision of this title, the Tax Commissioner is authorized to (i) divulge tax information to any commissioner of the revenue, director of finance, or other similar collector of county, city, or town taxes who, for the performance of his official duties, requests the same in writing setting forth the reasons for such request; (ii) provide to the Commissioner of the Department of Social Services, upon entering into a written agreement, the amount of income, filing status, number and type of dependents, whether a federal earned income tax credit as authorized in § 32 of the Internal Revenue Code and an income tax credit for low-income taxpayers as authorized in § 58.1-339.8 have been claimed, and Forms W-2 and 1099 to facilitate the administration of public assistance or social services benefits as defined in § 63.2-100 or child support services pursuant to Chapter 19 (§ 63.2-1900 et seq.) of Title 63.2, or as may be necessary to facilitate the administration of outreach and enrollment related to the federal earned income tax credit authorized in § 32 of the Internal Revenue Code and the income tax credit for low-income taxpayers authorized in § 58.1-339.8; (iii) provide to the chief executive officer of the designated student loan guarantor for the Commonwealth of Virginia, upon written request, the names and home addresses of those persons identified by the designated guarantor as having delinquent loans guaranteed by the designated guarantor; (iv) provide current address information upon request to state agencies and institutions for their confidential use in facilitating the collection of accounts receivable, and to the clerk of a circuit or district court for their confidential use in facilitating the collection of fines, penalties, and costs imposed in a proceeding in that court; (v) provide to the Commissioner of the Virginia Employment Commission, after entering into a written agreement, such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the collection of unemployment taxes and overpaid benefits; (vi) provide to the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, upon entering into a written agreement, such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the collection of state and local taxes and the administration of the alcoholic beverage and cannabis control laws; (vii) provide to the Director of the Virginia Lottery such tax information as may be necessary to identify those lottery ticket retailers who owe delinquent taxes; (viii) provide to the Department of the Treasury for its confidential use such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the location of owners and holders of unclaimed property, as defined in § 55.1-2500; (ix) provide to the State Corporation Commission, upon entering into a written agreement, such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the collection of taxes and fees administered by the Commission; (x) provide to the Executive Director of the Potomac and Rappahannock Transportation Commission for his confidential use such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the collection of the motor vehicle fuel sales tax; (xi) provide to the Commissioner of the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services such tax information as may be necessary to identify those applicants for registration as a supplier of charitable gaming supplies who have not filed required returns or who owe delinquent taxes; (xii) provide to the Department of Housing and Community Development for its confidential use such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the administration of the remaining effective provisions of the Enterprise Zone Act (§ 59.1-270 et seq.), and the Enterprise Zone Grant Program (§ 59.1-538 et seq.); (xiii) provide current name and address information to private collectors entering into a written agreement with the Tax Commissioner, for their confidential use when acting on behalf of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions; however, the Tax Commissioner is not authorized to provide such information to a private collector who has used or disseminated in an unauthorized or prohibited manner any such information previously provided to such collector; (xiv) provide current name and address information as to the identity of the wholesale or retail dealer that affixed a tax stamp to a package of cigarettes to any person who manufactures or sells at retail or wholesale cigarettes and who may bring an action for injunction or other equitable relief for violation of Chapter 10.1, Enforcement of Illegal Sale or Distribution of Cigarettes Act; (xv) provide to the Commissioner of Labor and Industry, upon entering into a written agreement, such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the collection of unpaid wages under § 40.1-29; (xvi) provide to the Director of the Department of Human Resource Management, upon entering into a written agreement, such tax information as may be necessary to identify persons receiving workers' compensation indemnity benefits who have failed to report earnings as required by § 65.2-712; (xvii) provide to any commissioner of the revenue, director of finance, or any other officer of any county, city, or town performing any or all of the duties of a commissioner of the revenue and to any dealer registered for the collection of the Communications Sales and Use Tax, a list of the names, business addresses, and dates of registration of all dealers registered for such tax; (xviii) provide to the Executive Director of the Northern Virginia Transportation Commission for his confidential use such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the collection of the motor vehicle fuel sales tax; (xix) provide to the Commissioner of Agriculture and Consumer Services the name and address of the taxpayer businesses licensed by the Commonwealth that identify themselves as subject to regulation by the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services pursuant to § 3.2-5130; (xx) provide to the developer or the economic development authority of a tourism project authorized by § 58.1-3851.1, upon entering into a written agreement, tax information facilitating the repayment of gap financing; (xxi) provide to the Virginia Retirement System and the Department of Human Resource Management, after entering into a written agreement, such tax information as may be necessary to facilitate the enforcement of subdivision C 4 of § 9.1-401; (xxii) provide to the Department of Medical Assistance Services and the Department of Social Services, upon entering into a written agreement, the name, address, social security number, email address, dependent information provided pursuant to subdivision B 2 of § 58.1-341.1, number and type of personal exemptions, tax-filing status, adjusted gross income, and any additional information voluntarily provided by the taxpayer for disclosure pursuant to subdivisions B 1 and 2 of § 58.1-341.1, of an individual, or spouse in the case of a married taxpayer filing jointly, who has voluntarily consented to such disclosure for purposes of identifying persons who would like to newly enroll in medical assistance; (xxiii) provide to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles information sufficient to verify that an applicant for a driver privilege card or permit under § 46.2-328.3 or an applicant for an identification privilege card under § 46.2-345.3 reported income and deductions from Virginia sources, as defined in § 58.1-302, or was claimed as a dependent, on an individual income tax return filed with the Commonwealth within the preceding 12 months; and (xxiv) provide to the Virginia Health Benefit Exchange, upon entering into a written agreement, for taxable years starting on January 1, 2023, or as soon thereafter as practicable, as determined by the Department of Taxation and the Virginia Health Benefit Exchange, the name, address, social security number, email address, dependent information provided pursuant to subdivision B 2 of § 58.1-341.1, number and type of personal exemptions, tax-filing status, adjusted gross income, and any additional information voluntarily provided by the taxpayer for disclosure pursuant to subdivision B 3 of § 58.1-341.1, of an individual, or spouse in the case of a married taxpayer filing jointly, who has voluntarily consented to such disclosure for purposes of identifying persons who do not meet the income eligibility requirements for medical assistance and would like to newly enroll in a qualified health plan. The Tax Commissioner is further authorized to enter into written agreements with duly constituted tax officials of other states and of the United States for the inspection of tax returns, the making of audits, and the exchange of information relating to any tax administered by the Department of Taxation. Any person to whom tax information is divulged pursuant to this section shall be subject to the prohibitions and penalties prescribed herein as though he were a tax official.
D. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A or B or any other provision of this title, the commissioner of revenue or other assessing official is authorized to (i) provide, upon written request stating the reason for such request, the chief executive officer of any county or city with information furnished to the commissioner of revenue by the Tax Commissioner relating to the name and address of any dealer located within the county or city who paid sales and use tax, for the purpose of verifying the local sales and use tax revenues payable to the county or city; (ii) provide to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation for its confidential use the name, address, and amount of gross receipts of any person, firm or entity subject to a criminal investigation of an unlawful practice of a profession or occupation administered by the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, only after the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation exhausts all other means of obtaining such information; and (iii) provide to any representative of a condominium unit owners' association, property owners' association or real estate cooperative association, or to the owner of property governed by any such association, the names and addresses of parties having a security interest in real property governed by any such association; however, such information shall be released only upon written request stating the reason for such request, which reason shall be limited to proposing or opposing changes to the governing documents of the association, and any information received by any person under this subsection shall be used only for the reason stated in the written request. The treasurer or other local assessing official may require any person requesting information pursuant to clause (iii) of this subsection to pay the reasonable cost of providing such information. Any person to whom tax information is divulged pursuant to this subsection shall be subject to the prohibitions and penalties prescribed herein as though he were a tax official.
Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A or B or any other provisions of this title, the treasurer or other collector of taxes for a county, city or town is authorized to provide information relating to any motor vehicle, trailer or semitrailer obtained by such treasurer or collector in the course of performing his duties to the commissioner of the revenue or other assessing official for such jurisdiction for use by such commissioner or other official in performing assessments.
This section shall not be construed to prohibit a local tax official from imprinting or displaying on a motor vehicle local license decal the year, make, and model and any other legal identification information about the particular motor vehicle for which that local license decal is assigned.
E. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, state agencies and any other administrative or regulatory unit of state government shall divulge to the Tax Commissioner or his authorized agent, upon written request, the name, address, and social security number of a taxpayer, necessary for the performance of the Commissioner's official duties regarding the administration and enforcement of laws within the jurisdiction of the Department of Taxation. The receipt of information by the Tax Commissioner or his agent that may be deemed taxpayer information shall not relieve the Commissioner of the obligations under this section.
F. Additionally, it is unlawful for any person to disseminate, publish, or cause to be published any confidential tax document that he knows or has reason to know is a confidential tax document. A confidential tax document is any correspondence, document, or tax return that is prohibited from being divulged by subsection A, B, C, or D and includes any document containing information on the transactions, property, income, or business of any person, firm, or corporation that is required to be filed with any state official by § 58.1-512. This prohibition shall not apply if such confidential tax document has been divulged or disseminated pursuant to a provision of law authorizing disclosure. Any person violating the provisions of this subsection is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.
G. Information provided by an accommodations intermediary pursuant to subsection F of § 58.1-3826 to the commissioner of the revenue, treasurer, or any other local tax or revenue officer or employee of a county, city, or town, or any other person to whom such tax information is divulged, shall be confidential pursuant to subsection A and shall not be divulged to any other department or official of the locality or any other political subdivision of the Commonwealth. Such information shall be used by such officials only for the purpose of levying and collecting retail sales and use tax, transient occupancy tax, and any other taxes imposed on the sale of accommodations.
§ 58.1-301. Conformity to Internal Revenue Code.
A. Any term used in this chapter shall have the same meaning as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes, unless a different meaning is clearly required.
B. Any reference in this chapter to the laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes shall mean the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, and amendments thereto, and other provisions of the laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes, except for:
1. The special depreciation allowance for certain property provided for under §§ 168(k), 168(l), 168(m), 1400L, and 1400N of the Internal Revenue Code;
2. The carry-back of certain net operating losses for five years under § 172(b)(1)(H) of the Internal Revenue Code;
3. The original issue discount on applicable high yield discount obligations under § 163(e)(5)(F) of the Internal Revenue Code;
4. The deferral of certain income under § 108(i) of the Internal Revenue Code. For Virginia income tax purposes, income from the discharge of indebtedness in connection with the reacquisition of an "applicable debt instrument" (as defined under § 108(i) of the Internal Revenue Code) reacquired in the taxable year shall be fully included in the taxpayer's Virginia taxable income for the taxable year, unless the taxpayer elects to include such income in the taxpayer's Virginia taxable income ratably over a three-taxable-year period beginning with taxable year 2009 for transactions completed in taxable year 2009, or over a three-taxable-year period beginning with taxable year 2010 for transactions completed in taxable year 2010 on or before April 21, 2010. For purposes of such election, all other provisions of § 108(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall apply mutatis mutandis. No other deferral shall be allowed for income from the discharge of indebtedness in connection with the reacquisition of an "applicable debt instrument";
5. For taxable years beginning on and after January 1, 2019, the suspension of the overall limitation on itemized deductions under § 68(f) of the Internal Revenue Code;
6. For taxable years beginning on and after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2018, and for taxable years beginning on and after January 1, 2019, the 7.5 percent of federal adjusted gross income threshold set forth in § 213(a) of the Internal Revenue Code that is used for purposes of computing the deduction allowed for expenses for medical care pursuant to § 213 of the Internal Revenue Code. For such taxable years, the threshold utilized for Virginia income tax purposes to compute the deduction allowed for expenses for medical care pursuant to § 213 of the Internal Revenue Code shall be 10 percent of federal adjusted gross income;
7. The provisions of §§ 2303(a) and 2303(b) of the federal Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act, P.L. 116-136 (2020), related to the net operating loss limitation and carryback;
8. The provisions of § 2304(a) of the federal Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act, P.L. 116-136 (2020), related to a loss limitation applicable to taxpayers other than corporations;
9. The provisions of § 2306 of the federal Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act, P.L. 116-136 (2020), related to the limitation on business interest;
10. For taxable years beginning before January 1, 2021, the provisions of §§ 276(a), 276(b)(2), 276(b)(3), 278(a)(2), 278(a)(3), 278(b)(2), 278(b)(3), 278(c)(2), 278(c)(3), 278(d)(2), and 278(d)(3) of the federal Consolidated Appropriations Act, P.L. 116-260 (2020), and §§ 9672(2), 9672(3), 9673(2), and 9673(3) of the federal American Rescue Plan Act, P.L. 117-2 (2021) related to deductions, tax attributes, and basis increases for certain loan forgiveness and other business financial assistance; and
11. a. (1) Any amendment enacted on or after January 1, 2023, with a projected impact that would increase or decrease general fund revenues by greater than $15 million in the fiscal year in which the amendment was enacted or any of the succeeding four fiscal years. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any amendment to federal income tax law that is either subsequently adopted by the General Assembly or a federal tax extender as defined in subdivision b.
(2) All amendments enacted on or after January 1, 2023, and occurring between adjournment sine die of the previous regular session of the General Assembly and the first day of the subsequent regular session of the General Assembly if the cumulative projected impact of such amendments would increase or decrease general fund revenues by greater than $75 million in the fiscal year in which the amendments were enacted or any of the succeeding four fiscal years. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any amendment to federal income tax law that is (i) subsequently adopted by the General Assembly, (ii) a federal tax extender as defined in subdivision b, or (iii) enacted before the date on which the cumulative projected impact is met. However, any amendment conformed to pursuant to clause (iii) shall be included in the calculation of the $75 million threshold for purposes of determining whether such threshold has been met.
(3) Beginning January 1, 2024, the threshold provided by subdivision (1) shall be adjusted annually based on the preceding change in the Chained Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (C-CPI-U), as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics for the U.S. Department of Labor or any successor index for the previous year.
b. For purposes of this subdivision 11, "amendment" means a single amendment to federal income tax law or a group of such amendments enacted in the same act of Congress that collectively surpass the threshold impact, and "federal tax extender" means an amendment to federal tax law that extends the expiration date of a federal tax provision to which Virginia conforms or has previously conformed.
c. The Secretary of Finance, in consultation with the Chairmen of the Senate Committee on Finance and Appropriations and the House Committees on Appropriations and Finance, shall be responsible for determining whether the criteria of subdivision a are met.
d. The Secretary of Finance shall annually provide a report on or before November 15 of each year on the fiscal impact of amendments to federal income tax law occurring since the adjournment sine die of the preceding regular session of the General Assembly to the Chairmen of the Senate Committee on Finance and Appropriations and the House Committees on Appropriations and Finance. The Secretary of Finance shall also provide updates to the same Chairmen on any further amendments to federal income tax law occurring between submission of the required report and the first day of the subsequent regular session of the General Assembly; and
12. For taxable years beginning on and after January 1, 2026, the prohibition on utilizing tax deductions for ordinary and necessary expenditures made in connection with carrying on a trade or business licensed in Virginia pursuant to the Cannabis Control Act (§ 4.1-600 et seq.) under § 280E of the Internal Revenue Code.
C. The Department of Taxation is hereby authorized to develop procedures or guidelines for implementation of the provisions of this section, which procedures or guidelines shall be exempt from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).
§ 58.1-623.2. Cigarette exemption certificate.
A. 1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all sales of cigarettes, as defined in § 58.1-1031, bearing Virginia revenue stamps in the Commonwealth shall be subject to the tax until the contrary is established. The burden of proving that a sale is not taxable is upon the dealer unless he takes from the taxpayer a cigarette exemption certificate issued by the Department to the taxpayer to the effect that the cigarettes are exempt under this chapter for the purposes of resale in the Commonwealth.
2. The cigarette exemption certificate mentioned in this section shall relieve the person who takes such certificate from any liability for the payment or collection of the tax on the sale of cigarettes, except upon notice from the Tax Commissioner or the taxpayer that such certificate is no longer acceptable.
3. If a taxpayer who gives a cigarette exemption certificate under this section makes any use of the property other than an exempt use or retention, demonstration, or display while holding the property for resale or distribution in the regular course of business, such use shall be deemed a taxable sale by the taxpayer as of the time the property or service is first used by him, and the cost of the property to him shall be deemed the sales price of such retail sale.
B. 1. Prior to issuing a cigarette exemption certificate under this section, the Department shall conduct a background investigation on the taxpayer for the certificate. The Department shall not issue a cigarette exemption certificate until at least 30 days have passed from the receipt of the application, unless the taxpayer qualifies for the expedited process set forth in subdivision 3, or any other expedited process set forth in guidelines issued pursuant to subsection L. If the taxpayer does not qualify for the expedited process, the Department shall inspect each location listed in the application and verify that any location that resells cigarettes meets the requirements prescribed in subsection E.
2. A taxpayer shall be required to pay an application fee, not to exceed $50, to the Department for a cigarette exemption certificate.
3. A taxpayer shall be eligible for an expedited process to receive a cigarette exemption certificate if the taxpayer possesses, at the time of filing an application for a cigarette exemption certificate, (i) an active license, in good standing, issued by the Department of Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority pursuant to Title 4.1, as verified by electronic or other means by the Department, or (ii) an active tobacco products tax distributor's license, in good standing, issued by the Department pursuant to § 58.1-1021.04:1. The Department may identify other categories of taxpayers who qualify for an expedited process through guidelines issued pursuant to subsection L. Taxpayers that qualify for an expedited process shall not be subject to the background check or the waiting period set forth in subdivision 1, nor shall such taxpayers be required to pay the application fee set forth in subdivision 2.
4. If a taxpayer has been denied a cigarette exemption certificate, or has been issued a cigarette exemption certificate that has subsequently been suspended or revoked, the Department shall not consider an application from the taxpayer for a new cigarette exemption certificate for six months from the date of the denial, suspension, or revocation.
C. The Department shall deny an application for a cigarette exemption certificate, or suspend or revoke a cigarette exemption certificate previously issued to a taxpayer, if the Department determines that:
1. The taxpayer is a person who is not 18 years of age or older;
2. The taxpayer is a person who is physically unable to carry on the business for which the application for a cigarette exemption certificate is filed, or has been adjudicated incapacitated;
3. The taxpayer has not resided in the Commonwealth for at least one year immediately preceding the application, unless in the opinion of the Department, good cause exists for the taxpayer to have not resided in the Commonwealth for the immediately preceding year;
4. The taxpayer has not established a physical place of business in the Commonwealth, as described in subsection E;
5. A court or administrative body having jurisdiction has found that the physical place of business occupied by the taxpayer, as described in subsection E, does not conform to the sanitation, health, construction, or equipment requirements of the governing body of the county, city, or town in which such physical place is located, or to similar requirements established pursuant to the laws of the Commonwealth;
6. The physical place of business occupied by the taxpayer, as described in subsection E, is not constructed, arranged, or illuminated so as to allow access to and reasonable observation of, any room or area in which cigarettes are to be sold;
7. The taxpayer is not an authorized representative of the business;
8. The taxpayer made a material misstatement or material omission in the application;
9. The taxpayer has defrauded, or attempted to defraud, the Department, or any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or authority, by making or filing any report, document, or tax return required by statute or regulation that is fraudulent or contains a false representation of material fact, or the taxpayer has willfully deceived or attempted to deceive the Department, or any federal, state, or local government or governmental agency or authority, by making or maintaining business records required by statute or regulation that are false or fraudulent;
10. The Tax Commissioner has determined that the taxpayer has misused the certificate;
11. The taxpayer has knowingly and willfully allowed any individual, other than an authorized representative, to use the certificate;
12. The taxpayer has failed to comply with or has been convicted under any of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 10 (§ 58.1-1000 et seq.) or any of the rules of the Department adopted or promulgated under the authority of this chapter or Chapter 10; however, no certificate shall be denied, suspended, or revoked on the basis of a failure to file a retail sales and use tax return or remit retail sales and use tax unless the taxpayer is more than 30 days delinquent in any filing or payment and has not entered into an installment agreement pursuant to § 58.1-1817; or
13. The taxpayer has been convicted under the laws of any state or of the United States of (i) any robbery, extortion, burglary, larceny, embezzlement, gambling, perjury, bribery, treason, racketeering, money laundering, other crime involving fraud under Chapter 6 (§ 18.2-168 et seq.) of Title 18.2, or crime that has the same elements of the offenses set forth in § 58.1-1017 or 58.1-1017.1, or (ii) a felony.
D. The provisions of § 58.1-623.1 shall apply to the suspension and revocation of exemption certificates issued pursuant to this section, mutatis mutandis.
E. A cigarette exemption certificate shall only be issued to a taxpayer who:
1. Has a physical place of business in the Commonwealth, owned or leased by him, where a substantial portion of the sales activity of the retail cigarette sales activity of the business is routinely conducted and that (i) satisfies all local zoning regulations; (ii) has sales and office space of at least 250 square feet in a permanent, enclosed building not used as a house, apartment, storage unit, garage, or other building other than a building zoned for retail business; (iii) houses all records required to be maintained pursuant to § 58.1-1007; (iv) is equipped with office equipment, including but not limited to, a desk, a chair, a Point of Sale System, filing space, a working telephone listed in the name of the taxpayer or his business, working utilities, including electricity and provisions for space heating, and an Internet connection and email address; (v) displays a sign and business hours and is open to the public during the listed business hours; and (vi) does not occupy the same physical place of business of any other taxpayer who has been issued a cigarette exemption certificate;
2. Possesses a copy of the (i) corporate charter and articles of incorporation in the case of a corporation, (ii) partnership agreement in the case of a partnership, or (iii) organizational registration from the Virginia State Corporation Commission in the case of an LLC; and
3. Possesses a local business license, if such local business license is required by the locality where the taxpayer's physical place of business is located.
F. A taxpayer with more than one physical place of business shall be required to complete only one application for a cigarette exemption certificate but shall list on the application every physical place of business in the Commonwealth where cigarettes are purchased, stored, or resold by the taxpayer or his affiliate. Upon approval of the application, the Department shall issue a cigarette exemption certificate to the taxpayer. The taxpayer shall be authorized to resell cigarettes only at the locations listed on the application. No cigarette exemption certificate shall be transferrable. For purposes of this subsection, a taxpayer shall be considered to have more than one physical place of business if the taxpayer owns or leases two or more physical locations in the Commonwealth where cigarettes are purchased, stored, or resold.
G. A cigarette exemption certificate issued to a taxpayer shall bear the address of the physical place of business occupied or to be occupied by the taxpayer in conducting the business of purchasing cigarettes in the Commonwealth. In the event that a taxpayer intends to move the physical place of business listed on a certificate to a new location, he shall provide written notice to the Department at least 30 days in advance of the move. A successful inspection of the new physical place of business shall be required by the Department prior to the issuance of a new cigarette exemption certificate bearing the updated address. If the taxpayer intends to change any of the required information relating to the physical places of business contained in the application for the cigarette exemption certificate submitted pursuant to subsection F, the taxpayer shall file an amendment to the application at least 30 days in advance of such change. The certificate with the original address shall become invalid upon the issuance of the new certificate, or 30 days after notice of the move is provided to the Department, whichever occurs sooner. A taxpayer shall not be required to pay a fee to the Department for the issuance of a new cigarette exemption certificate pursuant to this subsection.
H. The privilege of a taxpayer issued a cigarette exemption certificate to purchase cigarettes shall extend to any authorized representative of such taxpayer. The taxpayer issued a cigarette exemption certificate may be held liable for any violation of this chapter, Chapter 10 (§ 58.1-1000 et seq.), Chapter 10.1 (§ 58.1-1031 et seq.), or any related Department guidelines by such authorized representative.
I. A taxpayer issued a cigarette exemption certificate shall comply with the recordkeeping requirements prescribed in § 58.1-1007 and shall make such records available for audit and inspection as provided therein. A taxpayer issued a cigarette exemption certificate who fails to comply with such requirements shall be subject to the penalties provided in § 58.1-1007.
J. A cigarette exemption certificate granted by the Department shall be valid for five years from the date of issuance. At the end of the five-year period, the cigarette exemption certificate of a taxpayer who qualifies for the expedited application process set forth in subdivision B 3 shall be automatically renewed and no fee shall be required. If a taxpayer does not qualify for the expedited application process, then such taxpayer shall apply to the Department to renew the new cigarette exemption certificate as set forth in subdivision B 1 and shall pay an application fee not to exceed $50 as set forth in subdivision B 2; however, the 30-day waiting period set forth in subdivision B 1 shall not apply.
K. No taxpayer issued a cigarette exemption certificate shall display the certificate, or a copy thereof, in the physical place of business where a substantial portion of the retail cigarette sales activity of the business is routinely conducted.
L. The Tax Commissioner shall develop guidelines implementing the provisions of this section, including but not limited to (i) defining categories of taxpayers who qualify for the expedited process, (ii) prescribing the form of the application for the cigarette exemption certificate, (iii) prescribing the form of the application for the expedited cigarette exemption certificate, (iv) establishing procedures for suspending and revoking the cigarette exemption certificate, and (v) establishing procedures for renewing the cigarette exemption certificate. Such guidelines shall be exempt from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).
M. For the purposes of this section:
"Authorized representative" means an individual who has an ownership interest in or is a current employee of the taxpayer who possesses a valid cigarette exemption certificate pursuant to this section.
§ 58.1-1007. Documents touching purchase, sale, etc., of cigarettes to be kept for three years, subject to inspection; penalty.
It shall be the duty of every person receiving, storing, selling, handling or transporting cigarettes in any manner whatsoever, to preserve all invoices, books, papers, cancelled checks, or other documents relating to the purchase, sale, exchange, receipt or transportation of all cigarettes for a period of three years. All such invoices, books, papers, cancelled checks or other memoranda and records shall be subject to audit and inspection at all times by any duly authorized representative of the Department, the Office of the Attorney General, or the Department of Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority or by a local cigarette tax administrative or enforcement official. Any person who fails or refuses to keep and preserve the records as required in this section shall be is guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor. Any person who, upon request by a duly authorized agent who is entitled to audit and inspect such records, fails or refuses to allow an audit or inspection of records as provided in this section shall have his stamping permit suspended until such time as the audit or inspection is allowed. The Department may impose a penalty of $1,000 for each day that the person fails or refuses to allow an audit or inspection of the records. The penalty shall be assessed and collected by the Department as other taxes are collected.
§ 58.1-1017.4. Documents to be provided at purchase.
A. Any person, except as provided in subsection C, who ships, sells, or distributes any quantity of cigarettes in excess of 10,000 sticks or 50 cartons, or with a value greater than $10,000 in any single transaction or multiple related transactions, shall (i) obtain a copy of the cigarette exemption certificate issued to the purchaser pursuant to § 58.1-623.2 and (ii) maintain such information about the shipment, receipt, sale, and distribution of such cigarettes on a form prescribed by the Office of the Attorney General. Such form may be in electronic format in a manner prescribed by the Office of the Attorney General. Such form shall be transmitted to the Office of the Attorney General upon request, as determined by the Office of the Attorney General.
B. For purposes of complying with subsection A, the seller may maintain an electronic copy of the purchaser's cigarette exemption certificate.
C. The provisions of this section shall not apply to a stamping agent when delivering cigarettes to the purchaser's physical place of business.
D. Prior to completing the sale, the purchaser shall complete the form for the seller and present a valid photo identification issued by a state or federal government agency. The purchaser shall sign the form acknowledging an understanding of the applicable sales limit and that providing false statements or misrepresentations may subject the purchaser to criminal penalties.
E. Prior to completing the sale, the seller shall verify that the identity of the purchaser listed on the form matches the identity on the photo identification provided pursuant to subsection D and that the form is completed in its entirety.
F. The records required to be completed by this section shall be preserved for three years at the location where the purchase was made and shall be available for audit and inspection as described in § 58.1-1007. A violation of these requirements shall be punished under the provisions of § 58.1-1007.
G. The Department, the Department of Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Office of the Attorney General, a local cigarette tax administrative or enforcement official, or any other law-enforcement agency of the Commonwealth or any federal law-enforcement agency conducting a criminal investigation involving the trafficking of cigarettes may access these records required to be completed and preserved by this section at any time. Failure to supply the records upon request shall be punished under the provisions of § 58.1-1007. Copies of the records required to be completed and preserved by this section shall be provided to such officials or agencies upon request. Any court, investigatory grand jury, or special grand jury that has been impaneled in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 13 (§ 19.2-191 et seq.) of Title 19.2 may access such information if relevant to any proceedings therein.
H. The records required to be completed and preserved by this section shall be exempt from disclosure under the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.).
§ 58.1-3651. Property exempt from taxation by classification or designation by ordinance adopted by local governing body on or after January 1, 2003.
A. Pursuant to subsection 6 (a)(6) of Article X of the Constitution of Virginia, on and after January 1, 2003, any county, city, or town may by designation or classification exempt from real or personal property taxes, or both, by ordinance adopted by the local governing body, the real or personal property, or both, owned by a nonprofit organization, including a single member limited liability company whose sole member is a nonprofit organization, that uses such property for religious, charitable, patriotic, historical, benevolent, cultural, or public park and playground purposes. The ordinance shall state the specific use on which the exemption is based, and continuance of the exemption shall be contingent on the continued use of the property in accordance with the purpose for which the organization is classified or designated. No exemption shall be provided to any organization that has any rule, regulation, policy, or practice that unlawfully discriminates on the basis of religious conviction, race, color, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, or national origin.
B. Any ordinance exempting property by designation pursuant to subsection A shall be adopted only after holding a public hearing with respect thereto, at which citizens shall have an opportunity to be heard. The local governing body shall publish notice of the hearing once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county, city, or town where the real property is located. The notice shall include the assessed value of the real and tangible personal property for which an exemption is requested as well as the property taxes assessed against such property. The public hearing shall not be held until at least seven days after the notice is published in the newspaper. The local governing body shall collect the cost of publication from the organization requesting the property tax exemption. Before adopting any such ordinance the governing body shall consider the following questions:
1. Whether the organization is exempt from taxation pursuant to § 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954;
2. Whether a current annual alcoholic beverage license for serving alcoholic beverages has been issued by the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority to such organization, for use on such property;
3. Whether any director, officer, or employee of the organization is paid compensation in excess of a reasonable allowance for salaries or other compensation for personal services which such director, officer, or employee actually renders;
4. Whether any part of the net earnings of such organization inures to the benefit of any individual, and whether any significant portion of the service provided by such organization is generated by funds received from donations, contributions, or local, state or federal grants. As used in this subsection, donations shall include the providing of personal services or the contribution of in-kind or other material services;
5. Whether the organization provides services for the common good of the public;
6. Whether a substantial part of the activities of the organization involves carrying on propaganda, or otherwise attempting to influence legislation and whether the organization participates in, or intervenes in, any political campaign on behalf of any candidate for public office;
7. The revenue impact to the locality and its taxpayers of exempting the property; and
8. Any other criteria, facts and circumstances that the governing body deems pertinent to the adoption of such ordinance.
C. Any ordinance exempting property by classification pursuant to subsection A shall be adopted only after holding a public hearing with respect thereto, at which citizens shall have an opportunity to be heard. The local governing body shall publish notice of the hearing once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county, city, or town. The public hearing shall not be held until at least five days after the notice is published in the newspaper.
D. Exemptions of property from taxation under this article shall be strictly construed in accordance with Article X, § 6 (f) of the Constitution of Virginia.
E. Nothing in this section or in any ordinance adopted pursuant to this section shall affect the validity of either a classification exemption or a designation exemption granted by the General Assembly prior to January 1, 2003, pursuant to Article 2 (§ 58.1-3606 et seq.), 3 (§ 58.1-3609 et seq.) or 4 (§ 58.1-3650 et seq.) of this chapter. An exemption granted pursuant to Article 4 (§ 58.1-3650 et seq.) of this chapter may be revoked in accordance with the provisions of § 58.1-3605.
§ 59.1-148.3. Purchase of handguns or other weapons of certain officers.
A. The Department of State Police, the Department of Wildlife Resources, the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority, the Virginia Lottery, the Marine Resources Commission, the Capitol Police, the Department of Conservation and Recreation, the Department of Forestry, any sheriff, any regional jail board or authority, and any local police department may allow any sworn law-enforcement officer, deputy, or regional jail officer, a local fire department may allow any full-time sworn fire marshal, the Department of Motor Vehicles may allow any law-enforcement officer, any institution of higher education named in § 23.1-1100 may allow any campus police officer appointed pursuant to Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1, retiring on or after July 1, 1991, and the Department of Corrections may allow any employee with internal investigations authority designated by the Department of Corrections pursuant to subdivision 11 of § 53.1-10 who retires (i) after at least 10 years of service, (ii) at 70 years of age or older, or (iii) as a result of a service-incurred disability or who is receiving long-term disability payments for a service-incurred disability with no expectation of returning to the employment where he incurred the disability to purchase the service handgun issued or previously issued to him by the agency or institution at a price of $1. If the previously issued weapon is no longer available, a weapon of like kind may be substituted for that weapon. This privilege shall also extend to any former Superintendent of State Police who leaves service after a minimum of five years. This privilege shall also extend to any person listed in this subsection who is eligible for retirement with at least 10 years of service who resigns on or after July 1, 1991, in good standing from one of the agencies listed in this section to accept a position covered by the Virginia Retirement System. Other weapons issued by the agencies listed in this subsection for personal duty use of an officer may, with approval of the agency head, be sold to the officer subject to the qualifications of this section at a fair market price determined as in subsection B, so long as the weapon is a type and configuration that can be purchased at a regular hardware or sporting goods store by a private citizen without restrictions other than the instant background check.
B. The agencies listed in subsection A may allow any sworn law-enforcement officer who retires with five or more years of service, but less than 10, to purchase the service handgun issued to him by the agency at a price equivalent to the weapon's fair market value on the date of the officer's retirement. Any sworn law-enforcement officer employed by any of the agencies listed in subsection A who is retired for disability as a result of a nonservice-incurred disability may purchase the service handgun issued to him by the agency at a price equivalent to the weapon's fair market value on the date of the officer's retirement. Determinations of fair market value may be made by reference to a recognized pricing guide.
C. The agencies listed in subsection A may allow the immediate survivor of any sworn law-enforcement officer (i) who is killed in the line of duty or (ii) who dies in service and has at least 10 years of service to purchase the service handgun issued to the officer by the agency at a price of $1.
D. The governing board of any institution of higher learning education named in § 23.1-1100 may allow any campus police officer appointed pursuant to Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1 who retires on or after July 1, 1991, to purchase the service handgun issued to him at a price equivalent to the weapon's fair market value on the date of the officer's retirement. Determinations of fair market value may be made by reference to a recognized pricing guide.
E. Any officer who at the time of his retirement is a sworn law-enforcement officer with a state agency listed in subsection A, when the agency allows purchases of service handguns, and who retires after 10 years of state service, even if a portion of his service was with another state agency, may purchase the service handgun issued to him by the agency from which he retires at a price of $1.
F. The sheriff of Hanover County may allow any auxiliary or volunteer deputy sheriff with a minimum of 10 years of service, upon leaving office, to purchase for $1 the service handgun issued to him.
G. Any sheriff or local police department may allow any auxiliary law-enforcement officer with more than 10 years of service to purchase the service handgun issued to him by the agency at a price that is equivalent to or less than the weapon's fair market value on the date of purchase by the officer.
H. The agencies listed in subsection A may allow any full-time sworn law-enforcement officer currently employed by the agency to purchase his service handgun, with the approval of the chief law-enforcement officer of the agency, at a fair market price. This subsection shall only apply when the agency has purchased new service handguns for its officers, and the handgun subject to the sale is no longer used by the agency or officer in the course of duty.
I. The Department of State Police may allow any law-enforcement officer formerly employed by the Department who had at least 10 years of service with the Department and has been elected to a constitutional office to purchase his service handgun, with the approval of the Superintendent of State Police, at a fair market price.
§ 59.1-200. Prohibited practices.
A. The following fraudulent acts or practices committed by a supplier in connection with a consumer transaction are hereby declared unlawful:
1. Misrepresenting goods or services as those of another;
2. Misrepresenting the source, sponsorship, approval, or certification of goods or services;
3. Misrepresenting the affiliation, connection, or association of the supplier, or of the goods or services, with another;
4. Misrepresenting geographic origin in connection with goods or services;
5. Misrepresenting that goods or services have certain quantities, characteristics, ingredients, uses, or benefits;
6. Misrepresenting that goods or services are of a particular standard, quality, grade, style, or model;
7. Advertising or offering for sale goods that are used, secondhand, repossessed, defective, blemished, deteriorated, or reconditioned, or that are "seconds," irregulars, imperfects, or "not first class," without clearly and unequivocally indicating in the advertisement or offer for sale that the goods are used, secondhand, repossessed, defective, blemished, deteriorated, reconditioned, or are "seconds," irregulars, imperfects, or "not first class";
8. Advertising goods or services with intent not to sell them as advertised, or with intent not to sell at the price or upon the terms advertised.
In any action brought under this subdivision, the refusal by any person, or any employee, agent, or servant thereof, to sell any goods or services advertised or offered for sale at the price or upon the terms advertised or offered, shall be prima facie evidence of a violation of this subdivision. This paragraph shall not apply when it is clearly and conspicuously stated in the advertisement or offer by which such goods or services are advertised or offered for sale, that the supplier or offeror has a limited quantity or amount of such goods or services for sale, and the supplier or offeror at the time of such advertisement or offer did in fact have or reasonably expected to have at least such quantity or amount for sale;
9. Making false or misleading statements of fact concerning the reasons for, existence of, or amounts of price reductions;
10. Misrepresenting that repairs, alterations, modifications, or services have been performed or parts installed;
11. Misrepresenting by the use of any written or documentary material that appears to be an invoice or bill for merchandise or services previously ordered;
12. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, using in any manner the words "wholesale," "wholesaler," "factory," or "manufacturer" in the supplier's name, or to describe the nature of the supplier's business, unless the supplier is actually engaged primarily in selling at wholesale or in manufacturing the goods or services advertised or offered for sale;
13. Using in any contract or lease any liquidated damage clause, penalty clause, or waiver of defense, or attempting to collect any liquidated damages or penalties under any clause, waiver, damages, or penalties that are void or unenforceable under any otherwise applicable laws of the Commonwealth, or under federal statutes or regulations;
13a. Failing to provide to a consumer, or failing to use or include in any written document or material provided to or executed by a consumer, in connection with a consumer transaction any statement, disclosure, notice, or other information however characterized when the supplier is required by 16 C.F.R. Part 433 to so provide, use, or include the statement, disclosure, notice, or other information in connection with the consumer transaction;
14. Using any other deception, fraud, false pretense, false promise, or misrepresentation in connection with a consumer transaction;
15. Violating any provision of § 3.2-6509, 3.2-6512, 3.2-6513, 3.2-6513.1, 3.2-6514, 3.2-6515, 3.2-6516, or 3.2-6519 is a violation of this chapter;
16. Failing to disclose all conditions, charges, or fees relating to:
a. The return of goods for refund, exchange, or credit. Such disclosure shall be by means of a sign attached to the goods, or placed in a conspicuous public area of the premises of the supplier, so as to be readily noticeable and readable by the person obtaining the goods from the supplier. If the supplier does not permit a refund, exchange, or credit for return, he shall so state on a similar sign. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any retail merchant who has a policy of providing, for a period of not less than 20 days after date of purchase, a cash refund or credit to the purchaser's credit card account for the return of defective, unused, or undamaged merchandise upon presentation of proof of purchase. In the case of merchandise paid for by check, the purchase shall be treated as a cash purchase and any refund may be delayed for a period of 10 banking days to allow for the check to clear. This subdivision does not apply to sale merchandise that is obviously distressed, out of date, post season, or otherwise reduced for clearance; nor does this subdivision apply to special order purchases where the purchaser has requested the supplier to order merchandise of a specific or unusual size, color, or brand not ordinarily carried in the store or the store's catalog; nor shall this subdivision apply in connection with a transaction for the sale or lease of motor vehicles, farm tractors, or motorcycles as defined in § 46.2-100;
b. A layaway agreement. Such disclosure shall be furnished to the consumer (i) in writing at the time of the layaway agreement, or (ii) by means of a sign placed in a conspicuous public area of the premises of the supplier, so as to be readily noticeable and readable by the consumer, or (iii) on the bill of sale. Disclosure shall include the conditions, charges, or fees in the event that a consumer breaches the agreement;
16a. Failing to provide written notice to a consumer of an existing open-end credit balance in excess of $5 (i) on an account maintained by the supplier and (ii) resulting from such consumer's overpayment on such account. Suppliers shall give consumers written notice of such credit balances within 60 days of receiving overpayments. If the credit balance information is incorporated into statements of account furnished consumers by suppliers within such 60-day period, no separate or additional notice is required;
17. If a supplier enters into a written agreement with a consumer to resolve a dispute that arises in connection with a consumer transaction, failing to adhere to the terms and conditions of such an agreement;
18. Violating any provision of the Virginia Health Club Act, Chapter 24 (§ 59.1-294 et seq.);
19. Violating any provision of the Virginia Home Solicitation Sales Act, Chapter 2.1 (§ 59.1-21.1 et seq.);
20. Violating any provision of the Automobile Repair Facilities Act, Chapter 17.1 (§ 59.1-207.1 et seq.);
21. Violating any provision of the Virginia Lease-Purchase Agreement Act, Chapter 17.4 (§ 59.1-207.17 et seq.);
22. Violating any provision of the Prizes and Gifts Act, Chapter 31 (§ 59.1-415 et seq.);
23. Violating any provision of the Virginia Public Telephone Information Act, Chapter 32 (§ 59.1-424 et seq.);
24. Violating any provision of § 54.1-1505;
25. Violating any provision of the Motor Vehicle Manufacturers' Warranty Adjustment Act, Chapter 17.6 (§ 59.1-207.34 et seq.);
26. Violating any provision of § 3.2-5627, relating to the pricing of merchandise;
27. Violating any provision of the Pay-Per-Call Services Act, Chapter 33 (§ 59.1-429 et seq.);
28. Violating any provision of the Extended Service Contract Act, Chapter 34 (§ 59.1-435 et seq.);
29. Violating any provision of the Virginia Membership Camping Act, Chapter 25 (§ 59.1-311 et seq.);
30. Violating any provision of the Comparison Price Advertising Act, Chapter 17.7 (§ 59.1-207.40 et seq.);
31. Violating any provision of the Virginia Travel Club Act, Chapter 36 (§ 59.1-445 et seq.);
32. Violating any provision of §§ 46.2-1231 and 46.2-1233.1;
33. Violating any provision of Chapter 40 (§ 54.1-4000 et seq.) of Title 54.1;
34. Violating any provision of Chapter 10.1 (§ 58.1-1031 et seq.) of Title 58.1;
35. Using the consumer's social security number as the consumer's account number with the supplier, if the consumer has requested in writing that the supplier use an alternate number not associated with the consumer's social security number;
36. Violating any provision of Chapter 18 (§ 6.2-1800 et seq.) of Title 6.2;
37. Violating any provision of § 8.01-40.2;
38. Violating any provision of Article 7 (§ 32.1-212 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 32.1;
39. Violating any provision of Chapter 34.1 (§ 59.1-441.1 et seq.);
40. Violating any provision of Chapter 20 (§ 6.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 6.2;
41. Violating any provision of the Virginia Post-Disaster Anti-Price Gouging Act, Chapter 46 (§ 59.1-525 et seq.). For the purposes of this subdivision, "consumer transaction" has the same meaning as provided in § 59.1-526;
42. Violating any provision of Chapter 47 (§ 59.1-530 et seq.);
43. Violating any provision of § 59.1-443.2;
44. Violating any provision of Chapter 48 (§ 59.1-533 et seq.);
45. Violating any provision of Chapter 25 (§ 6.2-2500 et seq.) of Title 6.2;
46. Violating the provisions of clause (i) of subsection B of § 54.1-1115;
47. Violating any provision of § 18.2-239;
48. Violating any provision of Chapter 26 (§ 59.1-336 et seq.);
49. Selling, offering for sale, or manufacturing for sale a children's product the supplier knows or has reason to know was recalled by the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission. There is a rebuttable presumption that a supplier has reason to know a children's product was recalled if notice of the recall has been posted continuously at least 30 days before the sale, offer for sale, or manufacturing for sale on the website of the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission. This prohibition does not apply to children's products that are used, secondhand or "seconds";
50. Violating any provision of Chapter 44.1 (§ 59.1-518.1 et seq.);
51. Violating any provision of Chapter 22 (§ 6.2-2200 et seq.) of Title 6.2;
52. Violating any provision of § 8.2-317.1;
53. Violating subsection A of § 9.1-149.1;
54. Selling, offering for sale, or using in the construction, remodeling, or repair of any residential dwelling in the Commonwealth, any drywall that the supplier knows or has reason to know is defective drywall. This subdivision shall not apply to the sale or offering for sale of any building or structure in which defective drywall has been permanently installed or affixed;
55. Engaging in fraudulent or improper or dishonest conduct as defined in § 54.1-1118 while engaged in a transaction that was initiated (i) during a declared state of emergency as defined in § 44-146.16 or (ii) to repair damage resulting from the event that prompted the declaration of a state of emergency, regardless of whether the supplier is licensed as a contractor in the Commonwealth pursuant to Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1;
56. Violating any provision of Chapter 33.1 (§ 59.1-434.1 et seq.);
57. Violating any provision of § 18.2-178, 18.2-178.1, or 18.2-200.1;
58. Violating any provision of Chapter 17.8 (§ 59.1-207.45 et seq.). For the purposes of this subdivision, "consumer transaction" also includes transactions involving an automatic renewal or continuous service offer by a supplier to a small business, as those terms are defined in § 59.1-207.45;
59. Violating any provision of subsection E of § 32.1-126;
60. Violating any provision of § 54.1-111 relating to the unlicensed practice of a profession licensed under Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) or Chapter 21 (§ 54.1-2100 et seq.) of Title 54.1;
61. Violating any provision of § 2.2-2001.5;
62. Violating any provision of Chapter 5.2 (§ 54.1-526 et seq.) of Title 54.1;
63. Violating any provision of § 6.2-312;
64. Violating any provision of Chapter 20.1 (§ 6.2-2026 et seq.) of Title 6.2;
65. Violating any provision of Chapter 26 (§ 6.2-2600 et seq.) of Title 6.2;
66. Violating any provision of Chapter 54 (§ 59.1-586 et seq.);
67. Knowingly violating any provision of § 8.01-27.5;
68. Failing to, in accordance with § 59.1-207.46, (i) make available a conspicuous online option to cancel a recurring purchase of a good or service or (ii) with respect to a free trial lasting more than 30 days, notify a consumer of his option to cancel such free trial within 30 days of the end of the trial period to avoid an obligation to pay for the goods or services;
69. Selling or offering for sale any substance intended for human consumption, orally or by inhalation, that contains a synthetic derivative of tetrahydrocannabinol. As used in this subdivision, "synthetic derivative" means a chemical compound produced by man through a chemical transformation to turn a compound into a different compound by adding or subtracting molecules to or from the original compound. This subdivision shall not (i) apply to products that are approved for marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and scheduled in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or (ii) be construed to prohibit any conduct permitted under Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.) of Title 4.1 the Cannabis Control Act (§ 4.1-600 et seq.);
70. Selling or offering for sale to a person younger than 21 years of age any substance intended for human consumption, orally or by inhalation, that contains tetrahydrocannabinol. This subdivision shall not (i) apply to products that are approved for marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and scheduled in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or (ii) be construed to prohibit any conduct permitted under Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.) of Title 4.1 the Cannabis Control Act (§ 4.1-600 et seq.);
71. Selling or offering for sale any substance intended for human consumption, orally or by inhalation, that contains tetrahydrocannabinol, unless such substance is (i) contained in child-resistant packaging, as defined in § 4.1-600; (ii) equipped with a label that states, in English and in a font no less than 1/16 of an inch, (a) that the substance contains tetrahydrocannabinol and may not be sold to persons younger than 21 years of age, (b) all ingredients contained in the substance, (c) the amount of such substance that constitutes a single serving, and (d) the total percentage and milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol included in the substance and the number of milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol that are contained in each serving; and (iii) accompanied by a certificate of analysis, produced by an independent laboratory that is accredited pursuant to standard ISO/IEC 17025 of the International Organization of Standardization by a third-party accrediting body a licensed marijuana testing facility, that states the tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of the substance or the tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of the batch from which the substance originates. This subdivision shall not (i) apply to products that are approved for marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and scheduled in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or (ii) be construed to prohibit any conduct permitted under Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.) of Title 4.1 the Cannabis Control Act (§ 4.1-600 et seq.);
72. Manufacturing, offering for sale at retail, or selling at retail an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1, a food containing an industrial hemp extract, or a substance containing tetrahydrocannabinol that depicts or is in the shape of a human, animal, vehicle, or fruit;
73. Selling or offering for sale any substance intended for human consumption, orally or by inhalation, that contains tetrahydrocannabinol and, without authorization, bears, is packaged in a container or wrapper that bears, or is otherwise labeled to bear the trademark, trade name, famous mark as defined in 15 U.S.C. § 1125, or other identifying mark, imprint, or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor of a product intended for human consumption other than the manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor that did in fact so manufacture, process, pack, or distribute such substance;
74. Selling or offering for sale a topical hemp product, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that does not include a label stating that the product is not intended for human consumption. This subdivision shall not (i) apply to products that are approved for marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and scheduled in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), (ii) be construed to prohibit any conduct permitted under Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.) of Title 4.1, or (iii) apply to topical hemp products that were manufactured prior to July 1, 2023, provided that the person provides documentation of the date of manufacture if requested;
75. Violating any provision of § 59.1-466.8;
76. Violating subsection F of § 36-96.3:1;
77. Selling or offering for sale (i) any kratom product to a person younger than 21 years of age or (ii) any kratom product that does not include a label listing all ingredients and with the following guidance: "This product may be harmful to your health, has not been evaluated by the FDA, and is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease." As used in this subdivision, "kratom" means any part of the leaf of the plant Mitragyna speciosa or any extract thereof;
78. Advertising of any ignition interlock system in Virginia by an ignition interlock vendor not approved by the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program to operate in Virginia; targeted advertising of any ignition interlock system to a person before determination of guilt; and any advertising, whether before or after determination of guilt, without a conspicuous statement that such advertisement is not affiliated with any government agency. For purposes of this subdivision, "ignition interlock system" has the same meaning as ascribed to that term in § 18.2-270.1 and "targeted advertising" has the same meaning ascribed to that term in § 59.1-575 and includes direct mailings to an individual. This provision shall not apply to ignition interlock service vendor ads, pamphlets, or kiosk advertisements approved by the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program and provided at a Commission-approved location;
79. Failing to disclose the total cost of a good or continuous service, as defined in § 59.1-207.45, to a consumer, including any mandatory fees or charges, prior to entering into an agreement for the sale of any such good or provision of any such continuous service;
80. Violating any provision of the Unfair Real Estate Service Agreement Act (§ 55.1-3200 et seq.);
81. Selling or offering for sale services as a professional mold remediator to be performed upon any residential dwelling without holding a mold remediation certification from a nationally or internationally recognized certifying body for mold remediation, and failing to comply with (i) the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's publication on Mold Remediation in Schools and Commercial Buildings, as revised; (ii) the ANSI/IICRC S520 Standard for Professional Mold Remediation, as revised; or (iii) any other equivalent ANSI-accredited mold remediation standard, when conducting or offering to conduct mold remediation in the Commonwealth;
82. Willfully violating any provision of § 59.1-444.4;
83. Violating any provision of Chapter 23.2 (§ 59.1-293.10 et seq.);
84. Selling any food that is required by the FDA to have a nutrition label that does not meet the requirements of 21 C.F.R. Part 101;
85. Obtaining, disclosing, selling, or disseminating any personally identifiable reproductive or sexual health information without the consent of the consumer;
86. Violating any provision of Chapter 58 (§ 59.1-607 et seq.); and
87. (Effective July 1, 2026) Violating any provision of the Medical Debt Protection Act (§ 59.1-611 et seq.).
B. Nothing in this section shall be construed to invalidate or make unenforceable any contract or lease solely by reason of the failure of such contract or lease to comply with any other law of the Commonwealth or any federal statute or regulation, to the extent such other law, statute, or regulation provides that a violation of such law, statute, or regulation shall not invalidate or make unenforceable such contract or lease.
§ 65.2-107. Post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety disorder, or depressive disorder incurred by law-enforcement officers and firefighters.
A. As used in this section:
"Anxiety disorder" means a disorder that meets the diagnostic criteria for one or more of the anxiety disorders specified in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American Psychiatric Association.
"Depressive disorder" means a disorder that meets the diagnostic criteria for one or more of the depressive disorders specified in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American Psychiatric Association.
"Firefighter" means any (i) salaried firefighter, including special forest wardens designated pursuant to § 10.1-1135, emergency medical services personnel, and local or state fire scene investigator and (ii) volunteer firefighter and volunteer emergency medical services personnel.
"In the line of duty" means any action that a law-enforcement officer or firefighter was obligated or authorized to perform by rule, regulation, written condition of employment service, or law.
"Law-enforcement officer" means any (i) member of the State Police Officers' Retirement System; (ii) member of a county, city, or town police department; (iii) sheriff or deputy sheriff; (iv) Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officer; (v) city sergeant or deputy city sergeant of the City of Richmond; (vi) Virginia Marine Police officer; (vii) conservation police officer who is a full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Wildlife Resources; (viii) Capitol Police officer; (ix) special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority appointed under the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 4.1-100 et seq.) of Title 4.1; (x) for such period that the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority voluntarily subjects itself to the provisions of this chapter as provided in § 65.2-305, officer of the police force established and maintained by the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority; (xi) officer of the police force established and maintained by the Norfolk Airport Authority; (xii) sworn officer of the police force established and maintained by the Virginia Port Authority; or (xiii) campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1 and employed by any public institution of higher education.
"Mental health professional" means a board-certified psychiatrist or a psychologist licensed pursuant to Title 54.1 who has experience diagnosing and treating post-traumatic stress disorder.
"Post-traumatic stress disorder" means a disorder that meets the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder as specified in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American Psychiatric Association.
"Qualifying event" means an incident or exposure occurring in the line of duty on or after July 1, 2020, for post-traumatic stress disorder, and for purposes of subdivisions 1 through 4 of this definition, on or after July 1, 2023, for anxiety disorder or depressive disorder:
1. Resulting in serious bodily injury or death to any person or persons;
2. Involving a minor who has been injured, killed, abused, or exploited;
3. Involving an immediate threat to life of the claimant or another individual;
4. Involving mass casualties; or
5. Responding to crime scenes for investigation.
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety disorder, or depressive disorder incurred by a law-enforcement officer or firefighter is compensable under this title if:
1. A mental health professional examines a law-enforcement officer or firefighter and diagnoses the law-enforcement officer or firefighter as suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety disorder, or depressive disorder as a result of the individual's undergoing a qualifying event;
2. The post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety disorder, or depressive disorder resulted from the law-enforcement officer's or firefighter's acting in the line of duty and, in the case of a firefighter, such firefighter complied with federal Occupational Safety and Health Act standards adopted pursuant to 29 C.F.R. 1910.134 and 29 C.F.R. 1910.156;
3. The law-enforcement officer's or firefighter's undergoing a qualifying event was a substantial factor in causing his post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety disorder, or depressive disorder;
4. Such qualifying event, and not another event or source of stress, was the primary cause of the post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety disorder, or depressive disorder; and
5. The post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety disorder, or depressive disorder did not result from any disciplinary action, work evaluation, job transfer, layoff, demotion, promotion, termination, retirement, or similar action of the law-enforcement officer or firefighter.
Any such mental health professional shall comply with any workers' compensation guidelines for approved medical providers, including guidelines on release of past or contemporaneous medical records.
C. Notwithstanding any provision of this title, workers' compensation benefits for any law-enforcement officer or firefighter payable pursuant to this section shall (i) include any combination of medical treatment prescribed by a board-certified psychiatrist or a licensed psychologist, temporary total incapacity benefits under § 65.2-500, and temporary partial incapacity benefits under § 65.2-502 and (ii) be provided for a maximum of 104 weeks from the date of diagnosis. No medical treatment, temporary total incapacity benefits under § 65.2-500, or temporary partial incapacity benefits under § 65.2-502 shall be awarded beyond four years from the date of the qualifying event that formed the basis for the claim for benefits under this section. The weekly benefits received by a law-enforcement officer or a firefighter pursuant to § 65.2-500 or 65.2-502, when combined with other benefits, including contributory and noncontributory retirement benefits, Social Security benefits, and benefits under a long-term or short-term disability plan, but not including payments for medical care, shall not exceed the average weekly wage paid to such law-enforcement officer or firefighter.
D. No later than January 1, 2021, each employer of law-enforcement officers or firefighters shall (i) make peer support available to such law-enforcement officers and firefighters and (ii) refer a law-enforcement officer or firefighter seeking mental health care services to a mental health professional.
E. Each fire basic training program conducted or administered by the Department of Fire Programs or a municipal fire department in the Commonwealth shall provide, in consultation with the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, resilience and self-care technique training for any individual who begins basic training as a firefighter on or after July 1, 2021.
§ 65.2-402. Presumption as to death or disability from respiratory disease, hypertension or heart disease, cancer.
A. Respiratory diseases that cause (i) the death of volunteer or salaried firefighters or Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officers or (ii) any health condition or impairment of such firefighters or Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officers resulting in total or partial disability shall be presumed to be occupational diseases, suffered in the line of duty, that are covered by this title unless such presumption is overcome by a preponderance of competent evidence to the contrary.
B. Hypertension or heart disease causing the death of, or any health condition or impairment resulting in total or partial disability of any of the following persons who have completed five years of service in their position as (i) salaried or volunteer firefighters, (ii) members of the State Police Officers' Retirement System, (iii) members of county, city or town police departments, (iv) sheriffs and deputy sheriffs, (v) Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officers, (vi) city sergeants or deputy city sergeants of the City of Richmond, (vii) Virginia Marine Police officers, (viii) conservation police officers who are full-time sworn members of the enforcement division of the Department of Wildlife Resources, (ix) Capitol Police officers, (x) special agents of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority appointed under the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 4.1-100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, (xi) for such period that the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority voluntarily subjects itself to the provisions of this chapter as provided in § 65.2-305, officers of the police force established and maintained by the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority, (xii) officers of the police force established and maintained by the Norfolk Airport Authority, (xiii) sworn officers of the police force established and maintained by the Virginia Port Authority, (xiv) campus police officers appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1 and employed by any public institution of higher education, and (xv) salaried or volunteer emergency medical services personnel, as defined in § 32.1-111.1, when such emergency medical services personnel is operating in a locality that has legally adopted a resolution declaring that it will provide one or more of the presumptions under this subsection, shall be presumed to be occupational diseases, suffered in the line of duty, that are covered by this title unless such presumption is overcome by a preponderance of competent evidence to the contrary.
C. Leukemia or pancreatic, prostate, rectal, throat, ovarian, breast, colon, brain, testicular, bladder, or thyroid cancer causing the death of, or any health condition or impairment resulting in total or partial disability of, any of the following persons who have completed five years of service in their position as (i) salaried or volunteer firefighters; (ii) Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officers; (iii) commercial vehicle enforcement officers or motor carrier safety troopers employed by the Department of State Police; (iv) arson investigators or bomb investigators employed by the Department of State Police; (v) full-time sworn members of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles; or (vi) members of the State Police Officers' Retirement System who collect, analyze, or handle hazardous materials, as defined in § 44-146.34, infectious biological substances and radiological agents, as defined in § 18.2-52.1, fentanyl or fentanyl analogs, or methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers shall be presumed to be an occupational disease, suffered in the line of duty, that is covered by this title, unless such presumption is overcome by a preponderance of competent evidence to the contrary. For colon, brain, or testicular cancer, the presumption shall not apply for any individual who was diagnosed with such a condition before July 1, 2020. For bladder or thyroid cancer, the presumption shall not apply for any individual who was diagnosed with such a condition before July 1, 2023. For throat cancer, the presumption shall include cancer that forms in the tissues of the pharynx, larynx, adenoid, tonsil, esophagus, trachea, nasopharynx, oropharynx, or hypopharynx.
D. The presumptions described in subsections A, B, and C shall only apply if persons entitled to invoke them have, if requested by the private employer, appointing authority or governing body employing them, undergone preemployment physical examinations that (i) were conducted prior to the making of any claims under this title that rely on such presumptions, (ii) were performed by physicians whose qualifications are as prescribed by the private employer, appointing authority or governing body employing such persons, (iii) included such appropriate laboratory and other diagnostic studies as the private employer, appointing authorities or governing bodies may have prescribed, and (iv) found such persons free of respiratory diseases, hypertension, cancer or heart disease at the time of such examinations.
E. Persons making claims under this title who rely on such presumptions shall, upon the request of private employers, appointing authorities or governing bodies employing such persons, submit to physical examinations (i) conducted by physicians selected by such employers, authorities, bodies or their representatives and (ii) consisting of such tests and studies as may reasonably be required by such physicians. However, a qualified physician, selected and compensated by the claimant, may, at the election of such claimant, be present at such examination.
F. Whenever a claim for death benefits is made under this title and the presumptions of this section are invoked, any person entitled to make such claim shall, upon the request of the appropriate private employer, appointing authority or governing body that had employed the deceased, submit the body of the deceased to a postmortem examination as may be directed by the Commission. A qualified physician, selected and compensated by the person entitled to make the claim, may, at the election of such claimant, be present at such postmortem examination.
G. Volunteer law-enforcement chaplains, auxiliary and reserve deputy sheriffs, and auxiliary and reserve police are not included within the coverage of this section.
H. For purposes of this section, "firefighter" includes special forest wardens designated pursuant to § 10.1-1135 and any persons who are employed by or contract with private employers primarily to perform firefighting services.
§ 65.2-402.1. Presumption as to death or disability from infectious disease.
A. Hepatitis, meningococcal meningitis, tuberculosis or HIV causing the death of, or any health condition or impairment resulting in total or partial disability of, any (i) salaried or volunteer firefighter, or salaried or volunteer emergency medical services personnel; (ii) member of the State Police Officers' Retirement System; (iii) member of county, city, or town police departments; (iv) sheriff or deputy sheriff; (v) Department of Emergency Management hazardous materials officer; (vi) city sergeant or deputy city sergeant of the City of Richmond; (vii) Virginia Marine Police officer; (viii) conservation police officer who is a full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Wildlife Resources; (ix) Capitol Police officer; (x) special agent of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority appointed under the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 4.1-100 et seq.) of Title 4.1; (xi) for such period that the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority voluntarily subjects itself to the provisions of this chapter as provided in § 65.2-305, officer of the police force established and maintained by the Metropolitan Washington Airports Authority; (xii) officer of the police force established and maintained by the Norfolk Airport Authority; (xiii) conservation officer of the Department of Conservation and Recreation commissioned pursuant to § 10.1-115; (xiv) sworn officer of the police force established and maintained by the Virginia Port Authority; (xv) campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1 and employed by any public institution of higher education; (xvi) correctional officer as defined in § 53.1-1; or (xvii) full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles who has a documented occupational exposure to blood or body fluids shall be presumed to be occupational diseases, suffered in the line of government duty, that are covered by this title unless such presumption is overcome by a preponderance of competent evidence to the contrary. For purposes of this subsection, an occupational exposure occurring on or after July 1, 2002, shall be deemed "documented" if the person covered under this subsection gave notice, written or otherwise, of the occupational exposure to his employer, and an occupational exposure occurring prior to July 1, 2002, shall be deemed "documented" without regard to whether the person gave notice, written or otherwise, of the occupational exposure to his employer. For any correctional officer as defined in § 53.1-1 or full-time sworn member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles, the presumption shall not apply if such individual was diagnosed with hepatitis, meningococcal meningitis, or HIV before July 1, 2020.
B. 1. COVID-19 causing the death of, or any health condition or impairment resulting in total or partial disability of, any health care provider, as defined in § 8.01-581.1, who as part of the provider's employment is directly involved in diagnosing or treating persons known or suspected to have COVID-19, shall be presumed to be an occupational disease that is covered by this title unless such presumptions are overcome by a preponderance of competent evidence to the contrary. For the purposes of this section, the COVID-19 virus shall be established by a positive diagnostic test for COVID-19 and signs and symptoms of COVID-19 that require medical treatment, as described in subdivision F 2.
2. COVID-19 causing the death of, or any health condition or impairment resulting in total or partial disability of, any (i) firefighter, as defined in § 65.2-102; (ii) law-enforcement officer, as defined in § 9.1-101; (iii) correctional officer, as defined in § 53.1-1; or (iv) regional jail officer shall be presumed to be an occupational disease, suffered in the line of duty, as applicable, that is covered by this title unless such presumption is overcome by a preponderance of competent evidence to the contrary. For the purposes of this section, the COVID-19 virus shall be established by a positive diagnostic test for COVID-19, an incubation period consistent with COVID-19, and signs and symptoms of COVID-19 that require medical treatment.
C. As used in this section:
"Blood or body fluids" means blood and body fluids containing visible blood and other body fluids to which universal precautions for prevention of occupational transmission of blood-borne pathogens, as established by the Centers for Disease Control, apply. For purposes of potential transmission of hepatitis, meningococcal meningitis, tuberculosis, or HIV the term "blood or body fluids" includes respiratory, salivary, and sinus fluids, including droplets, sputum, saliva, mucous, and any other fluid through which infectious airborne or blood-borne organisms can be transmitted between persons.
"Hepatitis" means hepatitis A, hepatitis B, hepatitis non-A, hepatitis non-B, hepatitis C, or any other strain of hepatitis generally recognized by the medical community.
"HIV" means the medically recognized retrovirus known as human immunodeficiency virus, type I or type II, causing immunodeficiency syndrome.
"Occupational exposure," in the case of hepatitis, meningococcal meningitis, tuberculosis or HIV, means an exposure that occurs during the performance of job duties that places a covered employee at risk of infection.
D. Persons covered under this section who test positive for exposure to the enumerated occupational diseases, but have not yet incurred the requisite total or partial disability, shall otherwise be entitled to make a claim for medical benefits pursuant to § 65.2-603, including entitlement to an annual medical examination to measure the progress of the condition, if any, and any other medical treatment, prophylactic or otherwise.
E. 1. Whenever any standard, medically-recognized vaccine or other form of immunization or prophylaxis exists for the prevention of a communicable disease for which a presumption is established under this section, if medically indicated by the given circumstances pursuant to immunization policies established by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the United States Public Health Service, a person subject to the provisions of this section may be required by such person's employer to undergo the immunization or prophylaxis unless the person's physician determines in writing that the immunization or prophylaxis would pose a significant risk to the person's health. Absent such written declaration, failure or refusal by a person subject to the provisions of this section to undergo such immunization or prophylaxis shall disqualify the person from any presumption established by this section.
2. The presumptions described in subdivision B 1 shall not apply to any person offered by such person's employer a vaccine for the prevention of COVID-19 with an Emergency Use Authorization issued by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, unless the person is immunized or the person's physician determines in writing that the immunization would pose a significant risk to the person's health. Absent such written declaration, failure or refusal by a person subject to the provisions of this section to undergo such immunization shall disqualify the person from the presumptions described in subdivision B 1.
F. 1. The presumptions described in subsection A shall only apply if persons entitled to invoke them have, if requested by the appointing authority or governing body employing them, undergone preemployment physical examinations that (i) were conducted prior to the making of any claims under this title that rely on such presumptions; (ii) were performed by physicians whose qualifications are as prescribed by the appointing authority or governing body employing such persons; (iii) included such appropriate laboratory and other diagnostic studies as the appointing authorities or governing bodies may have prescribed; and (iv) found such persons free of hepatitis, meningococcal meningitis, tuberculosis or HIV at the time of such examinations. The presumptions described in subsection A shall not be effective until six months following such examinations, unless such persons entitled to invoke such presumption can demonstrate a documented exposure during the six-month period.
2. The presumptions described in subdivision B 1 shall apply to any person entitled to invoke them for any death or disability occurring on or after March 12, 2020, caused by infection from the COVID-19 virus, provided that for any such death or disability that occurred on or after March 12, 2020, and prior to December 31, 2022, and;
a. Prior to July 1, 2020, the claimant received a positive diagnosis of COVID-19 from a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant after either (i) a presumptive positive test or a laboratory-confirmed test for COVID-19 and presenting with signs and symptoms of COVID-19 that required medical treatment, or (ii) presenting with signs and symptoms of COVID-19 that required medical treatment absent a presumptive positive test or a laboratory-confirmed test for COVID-19; or
b. On or after July 1, 2020, and prior to December 31, 2022, the claimant received a positive diagnosis of COVID-19 from a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant after a presumptive positive test or a laboratory-confirmed test for COVID-19 and presented with signs and symptoms of COVID-19 that required medical treatment.
3. The presumptions described in subdivision B 2 shall apply to any person entitled to invoke them for any death or disability occurring on or after July 1, 2020, caused by infection from the COVID-19 virus, provided that for any such death or disability that occurred on or after July 1, 2020, and prior to December 31, 2021, the claimant received a diagnosis of COVID-19 from a licensed physician, after either a presumptive positive test or a laboratory confirmed test for COVID-19, and presented with signs and symptoms of COVID-19 that required medical treatment.
G. Persons making claims under this title who rely on such presumption shall, upon the request of appointing authorities or governing bodies employing such persons, submit to physical examinations (i) conducted by physicians selected by such appointing authorities or governing bodies or their representatives and (ii) consisting of such tests and studies as may reasonably be required by such physicians. However, a qualified physician, selected and compensated by the claimant, may, at the election of such claimant, be present at such examination.
2. That §§ 4.1-611 through 4.1-628, 4.1-1101.1, 4.1-1105.1, 18.2-248.1, and 18.2-251.1 of the Code of Virginia are repealed.
3. That, except as provided subsequent enactments of this act, the provisions of this act shall become effective on January 1, 2027.
4. That the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority (the Board), as renamed by the first enactment of this act, shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this act by December 1, 2026. With the exception of § 2.2-4031 of the Code of Virginia, neither the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) nor public participation guidelines adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to the adoption of any regulation pursuant to this act. Prior to adopting any regulation pursuant to this act, the Board shall publish a notice of opportunity to comment in the Virginia Register of Regulations and post the action on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall. Such notice of opportunity to comment shall contain (i) a summary of the proposed regulation; (ii) the text of the proposed regulation; and (iii) the name, address, and telephone number of the agency contact person responsible for receiving public comments. Such notice shall be made at least 60 days in advance of the last date prescribed in such notice for submittals of public comment. The legislative review provisions of subsections A and B of § 2.2-4014 of the Code of Virginia shall apply to the promulgation or final adoption process for regulations pursuant to this act. The Board shall consider and keep on file all public comments received for any regulation adopted pursuant to this act.
5. That a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility issued a permit by the Board of Directors (the Board) of the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority pursuant to Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.) of the Code of Virginia, as it existed on December 31, 2025, shall apply for a dual-use marijuana facility license in a manner prescribed by the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority (the Authority), as renamed by the first enactment of this act, between September 1, 2026, and October 1, 2026. No later than August 15, 2026, the Authority shall create a streamlined application process for pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities to apply for such dual-use marijuana facility licenses which shall include a requirement that a pharmaceutical processor submit to and obtain approval from the Authority for a detailed medical cannabis program preservation plan describing how such processor will prioritize sales and access to medical cannabis products for qualifying patients, including a plan for managing customer traffic flow, preventing supply shortages, and ensuring appropriate staffing. Provided the applicable licensing requirements are met, by December 1, 2026, the Board shall issue the applicable dual-use marijuana facility licenses pursuant to § 4.1-807 of the Code of Virginia, as created by this act, for any location for which a permit has been issued upon the payment of a one-time $15 million conversion fee to the Authority. On and after December 1, 2026, a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility issued a permit pursuant to Chapter 16 (§ 4.1-1600 et seq.) of the Code of Virginia who has not applied for a dual-use marijuana facility license and paid the conversion fee shall not operate under a dual-use marijuana facility license or renew such license. Any such pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility may continue to hold the dual-use marijuana facility license for resale to another person; however, the purchaser of such license shall be responsible for paying the one-time $15 million conversion fee.
6. That the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority (the Authority), as renamed by the first enactment of this act, may start accepting applications for licenses under this act on September 1, 2026, and shall, from December 1, 2026, until July 1, 2027, give preference to qualified micro business applicants, as defined in the provisions of the first enactment of this act, and as determined by regulations promulgated by the Board of Directors of the Authority in accordance with this act. The Authority may issue any license authorized by this act to any applicant who meets the requirements for licensure established by this act and by any regulations promulgated by the Board of Directors of the Authority in accordance with this act. Any applicant issued a license by the Authority may operate in accordance with the provisions of this act prior to January 1, 2027; however, no retail marijuana store licensee may sell retail marijuana or retail marijuana products to a consumer prior to January 1, 2027.
7. That the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority (the Authority), as renamed by the first enactment of this act, shall establish a seed-to-sale tracking system pursuant to the first enactment of this act by December 31, 2026.
8. That the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority (the Authority), as renamed by the first enactment of this act, shall (i) analyze whether any limits should be placed on the number of licenses issued to operate a marijuana establishment, (ii) analyze and identify any necessary adjustments regarding canopy limits for marijuana cultivation facility licensees, and (iii) report its finding to the General Assembly by November 1, 2027. The Authority shall continue such analysis and submit updated findings to the General Assembly for two years after such initial report and shall submit such updated findings by November 1 during the two subsequent years.
9. That the Board of Directors of the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage and Cannabis Control Authority (the Authority), as renamed by the first enactment of this act, shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this act by November 15, 2026. With the exception of § 2.2-4031 of the Code of Virginia, neither the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) nor public participation guidelines adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to the Board's initial adoption of such regulations.
10. That the provisions of this act may result in a net increase in periods of imprisonment or commitment. Pursuant to § 30-19.1:4 of the Code of Virginia, the estimated amount of the necessary appropriation is ________ for periods of imprisonment in state adult correctional facilities; therefore, Chapter 725 of the Acts of Assembly of 2025 requires the Virginia Criminal Sentencing Commission to assign a minimum fiscal impact of $50,000. Pursuant to § 30-19.1:4 of the Code of Virginia, the estimated amount of the necessary appropriation is _______ for periods of commitment to the custody of the Department of Juvenile Justice.