2025 SESSION
INTRODUCED
24104734D
SENATE BILL NO. 351
Offered January 10, 2024
Prefiled January 9, 2024
A BILL to amend and reenact §§ 8.01-401.2, 22.1-271.7, 32.1-134.2, 32.1-263, 32.1-282, 54.1-2900, 54.1-2901, 54.1-2910.5, 54.1-2927, 54.1-2957.9, 54.1-2972, 54.1-2973.1, 54.1-3000, 54.1-3005, 54.1-3300, 54.1-3300.1, 54.1-3301, 54.1-3303, 54.1-3401, 54.1-3408, 54.1-3482, 54.1-3482.1, and 63.2-2203 of the Code of Virginia; to amend the Code of Virginia by adding in Chapter 30 of Title 54.1 articles numbered 8 and 9, consisting of sections numbered 54.1-3044 through 54.1-3051; and to repeal §§ 54.1-2957 through 54.1-2957.04 of the Code of Virginia, relating to Board of Medicine; Board of Nursing; joint licensing of advanced practice registered nurses and licensed certified midwives.
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Patrons—Boysko and Suetterlein
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Referred to Committee on Health Professions
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Be it enacted by the General Assembly of Virginia:
1. That §§ 8.01-401.2, 22.1-271.7, 32.1-134.2, 32.1-263, 32.1-282, 54.1-2900, 54.1-2901, 54.1-2910.5, 54.1-2927, 54.1-2957.9, 54.1-2972, 54.1-2973.1, 54.1-3000, 54.1-3005, 54.1-3300, 54.1-3300.1, 54.1-3301, 54.1-3303, 54.1-3401, 54.1-3408, 54.1-3482, 54.1-3482.1, and 63.2-2203 of the Code of Virginia are amended and reenacted and that the Code of Virginia is amended by adding in Chapter 30 of Title 54.1 articles numbered 8 and 9, consisting of sections numbered 54.1-3044 through 54.1-3051, as follows:
§ 8.01-401.2. Chiropractor, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant as expert witness.
A. A doctor of chiropractic, when properly qualified, may testify as an expert witness in a court of law as to etiology, diagnosis, prognosis, treatment, treatment plan, and disability, including anatomical, physiological, and pathological considerations within the scope of the practice of chiropractic as defined in § 54.1-2900.
B. A physician assistant or an advanced practice registered nurse, when properly qualified, may testify as an expert witness in a court of law as to etiology, diagnosis, prognosis, treatment, treatment plan, and disability, including anatomical, physiological, and pathological considerations within the scope of his activities as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2952 or 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, respectively. However, no physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse shall be permitted to testify as an expert witness for or against (i) a defendant doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine in a medical malpractice action regarding the standard of care of a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine or (ii) a defendant health care provider in a medical malpractice action regarding causation.
§ 22.1-271.7. Public middle school student-athletes; pre-participation physical examination.
No public middle school student shall be a participant on or try out for any school athletic team or squad with a predetermined roster, regular practices, and scheduled competitions with other middle schools unless such student has submitted to the school principal a signed report from a licensed physician, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician attesting that such student has been examined, within the preceding 12 months, and found to be physically fit for athletic competition.
§ 32.1-134.2. Clinical privileges for certain practitioners.
The grant or denial of clinical privileges to licensed podiatrists and certified nurse midwives licensed as advanced practice registered nurses pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044 by any hospital licensed in this Commonwealth, and the determination by the hospital of the scope of such privileges, shall be based upon such practitioner's professional license, experience, competence, ability, and judgment, and the reasonable objectives and regulations of the hospital in which such privileges are sought.
§ 32.1-263. Filing death certificates; medical certification; investigation by Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.
A. A death certificate, including, if known, the social security number or control number issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles pursuant to § 46.2-342 of the deceased, shall be filed for each death that occurs in the Commonwealth. Non-electronically filed death certificates shall be filed with the registrar of any district in the Commonwealth within three days after such death and prior to final disposition or removal of the body from the Commonwealth. Electronically filed death certificates shall be filed with the State Registrar of Vital Records through the Electronic Death Registration System within three days after such death and prior to final disposition or removal of the body from the Commonwealth. Any death certificate shall be registered by such registrar if it has been completed and filed in accordance with the following requirements:
1. If the place of death is unknown, but the dead body is found in the Commonwealth, the death shall be registered in the Commonwealth and the place where the dead body is found shall be shown as the place of death. If the date of death is unknown, it shall be determined by approximation, taking into consideration all relevant information, including information provided by the immediate family regarding the date and time that the deceased was last seen alive, if the individual died in his home; and
2. When death occurs in a moving conveyance, in the United States of America and the body is first removed from the conveyance in the Commonwealth, the death shall be registered in the Commonwealth and the place where it is first removed shall be considered the place of death. When a death occurs on a moving conveyance while in international waters or air space or in a foreign country or its air space and the body is first removed from the conveyance in the Commonwealth, the death shall be registered in the Commonwealth but the certificate shall show the actual place of death insofar as can be determined.
B. The licensed funeral director, funeral service licensee, office of the state anatomical program, or next of kin as defined in § 54.1-2800 who first assumes custody of a dead body shall complete the certificate of death. He shall obtain personal data of the deceased necessary to complete the certificate of death, including the social security number of the deceased or control number issued to the deceased by the Department of Motor Vehicles pursuant to § 46.2-342, from the best qualified person or source available and obtain the medical certification from the person responsible therefor.
If a licensed funeral director, funeral service licensee, or representative of the office of the state anatomical program completes the certificate of death, he shall file the certificate of death with the State Registrar of Vital Records electronically using the Electronic Death Registration System and in accordance with the requirements of subsection A. If a member of the next of kin of the deceased completes the certificate of death, he shall file the certificate of death in accordance with the requirements of subsection A but shall not be required to file the certificate of death electronically.
C. The medical certification shall be completed and filed electronically with the State Registrar of Vital Records using the Electronic Death Registration System within 24 hours after death by the physician or autonomous nurse practitioner in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition that resulted in death except when inquiry or investigation by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner is required by § 32.1-283 or 32.1-285.1, or by the physician or autonomous nurse practitioner who pronounces death pursuant to § 54.1-2972. If the death occurred while under the care of a hospice provider, the medical certification shall be completed by the decedent's health care provider and filed electronically with the State Registrar of Vital Records using the Electronic Death Registration System for completion of the death certificate.
In the absence of such physician or autonomous nurse practitioner or with his approval, the certificate may be completed and filed by the following: (i) another physician or autonomous nurse practitioner employed or engaged by the same professional practice; (ii) a physician assistant supervised by such physician; (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044; (iv) the chief medical officer or medical director, or his designee, of the institution, hospice, or nursing home in which death occurred; (v) a physician or autonomous nurse practitioner specializing in the delivery of health care to hospitalized or emergency department patients who is employed by or engaged by the facility where the death occurred; (vi) the physician who performed an autopsy upon the decedent; (vii) an individual to whom the physician or autonomous nurse practitioner has delegated authority to complete and file the certificate, if such individual has access to the medical history of the case and death is due to natural causes; or (viii) a physician who is not licensed by the Board of Medicine who was in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition that resulted in death. A physician described in clause (viii) who completes a certificate in accordance with this subsection shall not be required to register with the Electronic Death Registration System or complete the certificate electronically.
As used in this subsection, "autonomous nurse practitioner" has the same meaning as provided in § 54.1-2972 54.1-3300.
D. When inquiry or investigation by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner is required by § 32.1-283 or 32.1-285.1, the Chief Medical Examiner shall cause an investigation of the cause of death to be made and the medical certification portion of the death certificate to be completed and filed within 24 hours after being notified of the death. If the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner refuses jurisdiction, the physician last furnishing medical care to the deceased shall prepare and file the medical certification portion of the death certificate.
E. If the death is a natural death and a death certificate is being prepared pursuant to § 54.1-2972 and the physician, autonomous nurse practitioner, or physician assistant is uncertain about the cause of death, he shall use his best medical judgment to certify a reasonable cause of death or contact the health district physician director in the district where the death occurred to obtain guidance in reaching a determination as to a cause of death and document the same.
If the cause of death cannot be determined within 24 hours after death, the medical certification shall be completed as provided by regulations of the Board. The attending physician or autonomous nurse practitioner, as defined in § 54.1-2972, or the Chief Medical Examiner, an Assistant Chief Medical Examiner, or a medical examiner appointed pursuant to § 32.1-282 shall give the funeral director or person acting as such notice of the reason for the delay, and final disposition of the body shall not be made until authorized by the attending physician, autonomous nurse practitioner, the Chief Medical Examiner, an Assistant Chief Medical Examiner, or a medical examiner appointed pursuant to § 32.1-282.
F. A physician, autonomous nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or individual delegated authority to complete and file a certificate of death by a physician who, in good faith, files a certificate of death or determines the cause of death shall be immune from civil liability, only for such filing and determination of causes of death on such certificate, absent gross negligence or willful misconduct.
§ 32.1-282. Medical examiners.
A. The Chief Medical Examiner may appoint for each county and city one or more medical examiners, who shall be licensed as a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse in the Commonwealth and appointed as agents of the Commonwealth, to assist the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner with medicolegal death investigations. A physician assistant appointed as a medical examiner shall practice in accordance with § 54.1-2952. An advanced practice registered nurse appointed as a medical examiner shall practice in accordance with § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044.
B. At the request of the Chief Medical Examiner, the Assistant Chief Medical Examiner, or their designees, medical examiners may assist the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner with cases requiring medicolegal death investigations in accordance with § 32.1-283.
C. The term of each medical examiner appointed, other than an appointment to fill a vacancy, shall begin on the first day of October of the year of appointment. The term of each medical examiner shall be three years; however, an appointment to fill a vacancy shall be for the unexpired term.
§ 54.1-2900. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Acupuncturist" means an individual approved by the Board to practice acupuncture. This is limited to "licensed acupuncturist" which means an individual other than a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic or podiatry who has successfully completed the requirements for licensure established by the Board (approved titles are limited to: Licensed Acupuncturist, Lic.Ac., and L.Ac.).
"Advanced practice registered nurse" means a certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, or nurse practitioner who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, has completed an advanced graduate-level education program in a specialty category of nursing, and has passed a national certifying examination for that specialty.
"Auricular acupuncture" means the subcutaneous insertion of sterile, disposable acupuncture needles in predetermined, bilateral locations in the outer ear when used exclusively and specifically in the context of a chemical dependency treatment program.
"Birth control" means contraceptive methods that are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. "Birth control" shall not be considered abortion for the purposes of Title 18.2.
"Board" means the Board of Medicine.
"Certified nurse midwife" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse midwifery and who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044.
"Certified registered nurse anesthetist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse anesthesia, who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, and who practices under the supervision of a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry but is not subject to the practice agreement requirement described in § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044.
"Clinical nurse specialist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of clinical nurse specialist and who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044.
"Collaboration" means the communication and decision-making process among health care providers who are members of a patient care team related to the treatment of a patient that includes the degree of cooperation necessary to provide treatment and care of the patient and includes (i) communication of data and information about the treatment and care of a patient, including the exchange of clinical observations and assessments, and (ii) development of an appropriate plan of care, including decisions regarding the health care provided, accessing and assessment of appropriate additional resources or expertise, and arrangement of appropriate referrals, testing, or studies.
"Consultation" means communicating data and information, exchanging clinical observations and assessments, accessing and assessing additional resources and expertise, problem-solving, and arranging for referrals, testing, or studies.
"Genetic counselor" means a person licensed by the Board to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.
"Healing arts" means the arts and sciences dealing with the prevention, diagnosis, treatment and cure or alleviation of human physical or mental ailments, conditions, diseases, pain or infirmities.
"Licensed certified midwife" means a person who is licensed as a certified midwife by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing.
"Medical malpractice judgment" means any final order of any court entering judgment against a licensee of the Board that arises out of any tort action or breach of contract action for personal injuries or wrongful death, based on health care or professional services rendered, or that should have been rendered, by a health care provider, to a patient.
"Medical malpractice settlement" means any written agreement and release entered into by or on behalf of a licensee of the Board in response to a written claim for money damages that arises out of any personal injuries or wrongful death, based on health care or professional services rendered, or that should have been rendered, by a health care provider, to a patient.
"Nurse practitioner" means an advanced practice registered nurse, other than an advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and who is certified in one of the specialties of nurse practitioner and is licensed by the Board of Nursing in the category of certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, or clinical nurse specialist, who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044.
"Occupational therapy assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure and who works under the supervision of a licensed occupational therapist to assist in the practice of occupational therapy.
"Patient care team" means a multidisciplinary team of health care providers actively functioning as a unit with the management and leadership of one or more patient care team physicians for the purpose of providing and delivering health care to a patient or group of patients.
"Patient care team physician" means a physician who is actively licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, who regularly practices medicine in the Commonwealth, and who provides management and leadership in the care of patients as part of a patient care team.
"Patient care team podiatrist" means a podiatrist who is actively licensed to practice podiatry in the Commonwealth, who regularly practices podiatry in the Commonwealth, and who provides management and leadership in the care of patients as part of a patient care team.
"Physician assistant" means a health care professional who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as a physician assistant.
"Practice of acupuncture" means the stimulation of certain points on or near the surface of the body by the insertion of needles to prevent or modify the perception of pain or to normalize physiological functions, including pain control, for the treatment of certain ailments or conditions of the body and includes the techniques of electroacupuncture, cupping and moxibustion. The practice of acupuncture does not include the use of physical therapy, chiropractic, or osteopathic manipulative techniques; the use or prescribing of any drugs, medications, serums or vaccines; or the procedure of auricular acupuncture as exempted in § 54.1-2901 when used in the context of a chemical dependency treatment program for patients eligible for federal, state or local public funds by an employee of the program who is trained and approved by the National Acupuncture Detoxification Association or an equivalent certifying body.
"Practice of athletic training" means the prevention, recognition, evaluation, and treatment of injuries or conditions related to athletic or recreational activity that requires physical skill and utilizes strength, power, endurance, speed, flexibility, range of motion or agility or a substantially similar injury or condition resulting from occupational activity immediately upon the onset of such injury or condition; and subsequent treatment and rehabilitation of such injuries or conditions under the direction of the patient's physician or under the direction of any doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dentistry, while using heat, light, sound, cold, electricity, exercise or mechanical or other devices.
"Practice of behavior analysis" means the design, implementation, and evaluation of environmental modifications, using behavioral stimuli and consequences, to produce socially significant improvement in human behavior, including the use of direct observation, measurement, and functional analysis of the relationship between environment and behavior.
"Practice of chiropractic" means the adjustment of the 24 movable vertebrae of the spinal column, and assisting nature for the purpose of normalizing the transmission of nerve energy, but does not include the use of surgery, obstetrics, osteopathy, or the administration or prescribing of any drugs, medicines, serums, or vaccines. "Practice of chiropractic" shall include (i) requesting, receiving, and reviewing a patient's medical and physical history, including information related to past surgical and nonsurgical treatment of the patient and controlled substances prescribed to the patient, and (ii) documenting in a patient's record information related to the condition and symptoms of the patient, the examination and evaluation of the patient made by the doctor of chiropractic, and treatment provided to the patient by the doctor of chiropractic. "Practice of chiropractic" shall also include performing the physical examination of an applicant for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit pursuant to § 46.2-341.12 if the practitioner has (i) applied for and received certification as a medical examiner pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 390, Subpart D and (ii) registered with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners.
"Practice of genetic counseling" means (i) obtaining and evaluating individual and family medical histories to assess the risk of genetic medical conditions and diseases in a patient, his offspring, and other family members; (ii) discussing the features, history, diagnosis, environmental factors, and risk management of genetic medical conditions and diseases; (iii) ordering genetic laboratory tests and other diagnostic studies necessary for genetic assessment; (iv) integrating the results with personal and family medical history to assess and communicate risk factors for genetic medical conditions and diseases; (v) evaluating the patient's and family's responses to the medical condition or risk of recurrence and providing client-centered counseling and anticipatory guidance; (vi) identifying and utilizing community resources that provide medical, educational, financial, and psychosocial support and advocacy; and (vii) providing written documentation of medical, genetic, and counseling information for families and health care professionals.
"Practice of licensed certified midwifery" means the provision of primary health care for preadolescents, adolescents, and adults within the scope of practice of a certified midwife established in accordance with the Standards for the Practice of Midwifery set by the American College of Nurse-Midwives, including (i) providing sexual and reproductive care and care during pregnancy and childbirth, postpartum care, and care for the newborn for up to 28 days following the birth of the child; (ii) prescribing of pharmacological and non-pharmacological therapies within the scope of the practice of midwifery; (iii) consulting or collaborating with or referring patients to such other health care providers as may be appropriate for the care of the patients; and (iv) serving as an educator in the theory and practice of midwifery.
"Practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine" means the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of human physical or mental ailments, conditions, diseases, pain, or infirmities by any means or method.
"Practice of occupational therapy" means the therapeutic use of occupations for habilitation and rehabilitation to enhance physical health, mental health, and cognitive functioning and includes the evaluation, analysis, assessment, and delivery of education and training in basic and instrumental activities of daily living; the design, fabrication, and application of orthoses (splints); the design, selection, and use of adaptive equipment and assistive technologies; therapeutic activities to enhance functional performance; vocational evaluation and training; and consultation concerning the adaptation of physical, sensory, and social environments.
"Practice of podiatry" means the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and cure or alleviation of physical conditions, diseases, pain, or infirmities of the human foot and ankle, including the medical, mechanical and surgical treatment of the ailments of the human foot and ankle, but does not include amputation of the foot proximal to the transmetatarsal level through the metatarsal shafts. Amputations proximal to the metatarsal-phalangeal joints may only be performed in a hospital or ambulatory surgery facility accredited by an organization listed in § 54.1-2939. The practice includes the diagnosis and treatment of lower extremity ulcers; however, the treatment of severe lower extremity ulcers proximal to the foot and ankle may only be performed by appropriately trained, credentialed podiatrists in an approved hospital or ambulatory surgery center at which the podiatrist has privileges, as described in § 54.1-2939. The Board of Medicine shall determine whether a specific type of treatment of the foot and ankle is within the scope of practice of podiatry.
"Practice of radiologic technology" means the application of ionizing radiation to human beings for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.
"Practice of respiratory care" means the (i) administration of pharmacological, diagnostic, and therapeutic agents related to respiratory care procedures necessary to implement a treatment, disease prevention, pulmonary rehabilitative, or diagnostic regimen prescribed by a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine; (ii) transcription and implementation of the written or verbal orders of a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine pertaining to the practice of respiratory care; (iii) observation and monitoring of signs and symptoms, general behavior, general physical response to respiratory care treatment and diagnostic testing, including determination of whether such signs, symptoms, reactions, behavior or general physical response exhibit abnormal characteristics; and (iv) implementation of respiratory care procedures, based on observed abnormalities, or appropriate reporting, referral, respiratory care protocols or changes in treatment pursuant to the written or verbal orders by a licensed practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine or the initiation of emergency procedures, pursuant to the Board's regulations or as otherwise authorized by law. The practice of respiratory care may be performed in any clinic, hospital, skilled nursing facility, private dwelling or other place deemed appropriate by the Board in accordance with the written or verbal order of a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine, and shall be performed under qualified medical direction.
"Practice of surgical assisting" means the performance of significant surgical tasks, including manipulation of organs, suturing of tissue, placement of hemostatic agents, injection of local anesthetic, harvesting of veins, implementation of devices, and other duties as directed by a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.
"Qualified medical direction" means, in the context of the practice of respiratory care, having readily accessible to the respiratory therapist a licensed practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine who has specialty training or experience in the management of acute and chronic respiratory disorders and who is responsible for the quality, safety, and appropriateness of the respiratory services provided by the respiratory therapist.
"Radiologic technologist" means an individual, other than a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or chiropractic or a dentist licensed pursuant to Chapter 27 (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.), who (i) performs, may be called upon to perform, or is licensed to perform a comprehensive scope of diagnostic or therapeutic radiologic procedures employing ionizing radiation and (ii) is delegated or exercises responsibility for the operation of radiation-generating equipment, the shielding of patient and staff from unnecessary radiation, the appropriate exposure of radiographs, the administration of radioactive chemical compounds under the direction of an authorized user as specified by regulations of the Department of Health, or other procedures that contribute to any significant extent to the site or dosage of ionizing radiation to which a patient is exposed.
"Radiologic technologist, limited" means an individual, other than a licensed radiologic technologist, dental hygienist, or person who is otherwise authorized by the Board of Dentistry under Chapter 27 (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.) and the regulations pursuant thereto, who performs diagnostic radiographic procedures employing equipment that emits ionizing radiation that is limited to specific areas of the human body.
"Radiologist assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as an advanced-level radiologic technologist and who, under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy specializing in the field of radiology, is authorized to (i) assess and evaluate the physiological and psychological responsiveness of patients undergoing radiologic procedures; (ii) evaluate image quality, make initial observations, and communicate observations to the supervising radiologist; (iii) administer contrast media or other medications prescribed by the supervising radiologist; and (iv) perform, or assist the supervising radiologist to perform, any other procedure consistent with the guidelines adopted by the American College of Radiology, the American Society of Radiologic Technologists, and the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists.
"Respiratory care" means the practice of the allied health profession responsible for the direct and indirect services, including inhalation therapy and respiratory therapy, in the treatment, management, diagnostic testing, control, and care of patients with deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the cardiopulmonary system under qualified medical direction.
"Surgical assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as a surgical assistant and who works under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.
§ 54.1-2901. Exceptions and exemptions generally.
A. The provisions of this chapter shall not prevent or prohibit:
1. Any person entitled to practice his profession under any prior law on June 24, 1944, from continuing such practice within the scope of the definition of his particular school of practice;
2. Any person licensed to practice naturopathy prior to June 30, 1980, from continuing such practice in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board;
3. Any licensed advanced practice registered nurse from rendering care in accordance with the provisions of §§ 54.1-2957 54.1-3044 and 54.1-2957.01 54.1-3045, any advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing in the category of certified nurse midwife practicing pursuant to subsection H of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or any advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist practicing pursuant to subsection J of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044 when such services are authorized by regulations promulgated jointly by the Boards of Medicine and Board of Nursing;
4. Any registered professional nurse, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, graduate laboratory technician or other technical personnel who have been properly trained from rendering care or services within the scope of their usual professional activities which shall include the taking of blood, the giving of intravenous infusions and intravenous injections, and the insertion of tubes when performed under the orders of a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant;
5. Any dentist, pharmacist or optometrist from rendering care or services within the scope of his usual professional activities;
6. Any practitioner licensed or certified by the Board or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board of Nursing from delegating to personnel supervised by him, such activities or functions as are nondiscretionary and do not require the exercise of professional judgment for their performance and which are usually or customarily delegated to such persons by practitioners of the healing arts or nursing, if such activities or functions are authorized by and performed for such practitioners of the healing arts and responsibility for such activities or functions is assumed by such practitioners of the healing arts or nursing;
7. The rendering of medical advice or information through telecommunications from a physician licensed to practice medicine in Virginia or an adjoining state, or from a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, to emergency medical personnel acting in an emergency situation;
8. The domestic administration of family remedies;
9. The giving or use of massages, steam baths, dry heat rooms, infrared heat or ultraviolet lamps in public or private health clubs and spas;
10. The manufacture or sale of proprietary medicines in this Commonwealth by licensed pharmacists or druggists;
11. The advertising or sale of commercial appliances or remedies;
12. The fitting by nonitinerant persons or manufacturers of artificial eyes, limbs or other apparatus or appliances or the fitting of plaster cast counterparts of deformed portions of the body by a nonitinerant bracemaker or prosthetist for the purpose of having a three-dimensional record of the deformity, when such bracemaker or prosthetist has received a prescription from a licensed physician, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed physician assistant directing the fitting of such casts and such activities are conducted in conformity with the laws of Virginia;
13. Any person from the rendering of first aid or medical assistance in an emergency in the absence of a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy under the provisions of this chapter;
14. The practice of the religious tenets of any church in the ministration to the sick and suffering by mental or spiritual means without the use of any drug or material remedy, whether gratuitously or for compensation;
15. Any legally qualified out-of-state or foreign practitioner from meeting in consultation with legally licensed practitioners in this Commonwealth;
16. Any practitioner of the healing arts licensed or certified and in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state or Canada when that practitioner of the healing arts is in Virginia temporarily and such practitioner has been issued a temporary authorization by the Board from practicing medicine or the duties of the profession for which he is licensed or certified (i) in a summer camp or in conjunction with patients who are participating in recreational activities, (ii) while participating in continuing educational programs prescribed by the Board, or (iii) by rendering at any site any health care services within the limits of his license, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic which is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge as provided in § 54.1-106;
17. The performance of the duties of any active duty health care provider in active service in the army, navy, coast guard, marine corps, air force, or public health service of the United States at any public or private health care facility while such individual is so commissioned or serving and in accordance with his official military duties;
18. Any masseur, who publicly represents himself as such, from performing services within the scope of his usual professional activities and in conformance with state law;
19. Any person from performing services in the lawful conduct of his particular profession or business under state law;
20. Any person from rendering emergency care pursuant to the provisions of § 8.01-225;
21. Qualified emergency medical services personnel, when acting within the scope of their certification, and licensed health care practitioners, when acting within their scope of practice, from following Durable Do Not Resuscitate Orders issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1 and Board of Health regulations, or licensed health care practitioners from following any other written order of a physician not to resuscitate a patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest;
22. Any commissioned or contract medical officer of the army, navy, coast guard or air force rendering services voluntarily and without compensation while deemed to be licensed pursuant to § 54.1-106;
23. Any provider of a chemical dependency treatment program who is certified as an "acupuncture detoxification specialist" by the National Acupuncture Detoxification Association or an equivalent certifying body, from administering auricular acupuncture treatment under the appropriate supervision of a National Acupuncture Detoxification Association certified licensed physician or licensed acupuncturist;
24. Any employee of any assisted living facility who is certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) acting in compliance with the patient's individualized service plan and with the written order of the attending physician not to resuscitate a patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest;
25. Any person working as a health assistant under the direction of a licensed medical or osteopathic doctor within the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice or local correctional facilities;
26. Any employee of a school board, authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon, when, upon the authorization of a prescriber and the written request of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, assisting with the administration of insulin or administrating glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections during the school day or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia;
27. Any practitioner of the healing arts or other profession regulated by the Board from rendering free health care to an underserved population of Virginia who (i) does not regularly practice his profession in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice his profession in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certification issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five business days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer, nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any practitioner of the healing arts whose license or certificate has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations. However, the Board shall allow a practitioner of the healing arts who meets the above criteria to provide volunteer services without prior notice for a period of up to three days, provided the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state;
28. Any registered nurse, acting as an agent of the Department of Health, from obtaining specimens of sputum or other bodily fluid from persons in whom the diagnosis of active tuberculosis disease, as defined in § 32.1-49.1, is suspected and submitting orders for testing of such specimens to the Division of Consolidated Laboratories or other public health laboratories, designated by the State Health Commissioner, for the purpose of determining the presence or absence of tubercle bacilli as defined in § 32.1-49.1;
29. Any physician of medicine or osteopathy or advanced practice registered nurse from delegating to a registered nurse under his supervision the screening and testing of children for elevated blood-lead levels when such testing is conducted (i) in accordance with a written protocol between the physician or advanced practice registered nurse and the registered nurse and (ii) in compliance with the Board of Health's regulations promulgated pursuant to §§ 32.1-46.1 and 32.1-46.2. Any follow-up testing or treatment shall be conducted at the direction of a physician or an advanced practice registered nurse;
30. Any practitioner of one of the professions regulated by the Board of Medicine who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state or Canada from engaging in the practice of that profession when the practitioner is in Virginia temporarily with an out-of-state athletic team or athlete for the duration of the athletic tournament, game, or event in which the team or athlete is competing;
31. Any person from performing state or federally funded health care tasks directed by the consumer, which are typically self-performed, for an individual who lives in a private residence and who, by reason of disability, is unable to perform such tasks but who is capable of directing the appropriate performance of such tasks;
32. Any practitioner of one of the professions regulated by the Board of Medicine who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state from engaging in the practice of that profession in Virginia with a patient who is being transported to or from a Virginia hospital for care;
33. Any doctor of medicine or osteopathy, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who would otherwise be subject to licensure by the Board who holds an active, unrestricted license in another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States territory or possession and who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in that state, the District of Columbia, or that United States territory or possession who provides behavioral health services, as defined in § 37.2-100, from engaging in the practice of his profession and providing behavioral health services to a patient located in the Commonwealth in accordance with the standard of care when (i) such practice is for the purpose of providing continuity of care through the use of telemedicine services as defined in § 38.2-3418.16 and (ii) the practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship with the patient and has performed an in-person evaluation of the patient within the previous year. A practitioner who provides behavioral health services to a patient located in the Commonwealth through use of telemedicine services pursuant to this subdivision may provide such services for a period of no more than one year from the date on which the practitioner began providing such services to such patient;
34. Any employee of a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services who is certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation from acting in compliance with a program participant's valid written order not to resuscitate issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1 if such valid written order not to resuscitate is included in the program participant's individualized service plan; or
35. Any doctor of medicine or osteopathy, physician assistant, respiratory therapist, occupational therapist, or advanced practice registered nurse who would otherwise be subject to licensure by the Board who holds an active, unrestricted license in another state or the District of Columbia and who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in that state or the District of Columbia from engaging in the practice of that profession in the Commonwealth with a patient located in the Commonwealth when (i) such practice is for the purpose of providing continuity of care through the use of telemedicine services as defined in § 38.2-3418.16 and (ii) the patient is a current patient of the practitioner with whom the practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship and the practitioner has performed an in-person examination of the patient within the previous 12 months.
For purposes of this subdivision, if such practitioner with whom the patient has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship is unavailable at the time in which the patient seeks continuity of care, another practitioner of the same subspecialty at the same practice group with access to the patient's treatment history may provide continuity of care using telemedicine services until the practitioner with whom the patient has a previously established practitioner-patient relationship becomes available. For the purposes of this subdivision, "practitioner of the same subspecialty" means a practitioner who utilizes the same subspecialty taxonomy code designation for claims processing.
For the purposes of this subdivision, if a patient is (a) an enrollee of a health maintenance organization that contracts with a multispecialty group of practitioners, each of whom is licensed by the Board of Medicine, and (b) a current patient of at least one practitioner who is a member of the multispecialty group with whom such practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship and of whom such practitioner has performed an in-person examination within the previous 12 months, the patient shall be deemed to be a current patient of each practitioner in the multispecialty group with whom each such practitioner has established a practitioner-patient relationship.
B. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, military medical personnel, as defined in § 2.2-2001.4, while participating in a program established by the Department of Veterans Services pursuant to § 2.2-2001.4, may practice under the supervision of a licensed physician or podiatrist or the chief medical officer of an organization participating in such program, or his designee who is a licensee of the Board and supervising within his scope of practice.
§ 54.1-2910.5. Pediatric sexual assault survivor services; requirements.
Any health care practitioner licensed by the Board to practice medicine or osteopathy or as a physician assistant, or jointly licensed by the Board and the Board of Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse, who wishes to provide sexual assault survivor treatment services or sexual assault survivor transfer services, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, to pediatric survivors of sexual assault, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, shall comply with the provisions of Article 8 (§ 32.1-162.15:2 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 applicable to pediatric medical care facilities.
§ 54.1-2927. Applicants from other states without reciprocity; temporary licenses or certificates for certain practitioners of the healing arts.
A. The Board, in its discretion, may issue certificates or licenses to applicants upon endorsement by boards or other appropriate authorities of other states or territories or the District of Columbia with which reciprocal relations have not been established if the credentials of such applicants are satisfactory and the examinations and passing grades required by such other boards are fully equal to those required by the Virginia Board.
The Board may issue certificates or licenses to applicants holding certificates from the national boards of their respective branches of the healing arts if their credentials, schools of graduation and national board examinations and results are acceptable to the Board. The Board shall promulgate regulations in order to carry out the provisions of this section.
The Board of Medicine shall prioritize applicants for licensure as a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse from such states that are contiguous with the Commonwealth in processing their applications for licensure by endorsement through a streamlined process, with a final determination regarding qualification to be made within 20 days of the receipt of a completed application.
B. The Board may issue authorization to practice valid for a period not to exceed three months to a practitioner of the healing arts licensed or certified and in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in the state, District of Columbia, or Canada where the practitioner resides when the practitioner is in Virginia temporarily to practice the healing arts (i) in a summer camp or in conjunction with patients who are participating in recreational activities, (ii) in continuing education programs, or (iii) by rendering at any site any health care services within the limits of his license or certificate, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic that is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge as provided in § 54.1-106. A fee not to exceed $25 may be charged by the Board for the issuance of authorization to practice pursuant to the provisions of this subsection.
§ 54.1-2957.9. Regulation of the practice of midwifery.
The Board shall adopt regulations governing the practice of midwifery, upon consultation with the Advisory Board on Midwifery. The regulations shall (i) address the requirements for licensure to practice midwifery, including the establishment of standards of care, (ii) be consistent with the North American Registry of Midwives' current job description for the profession and the National Association of Certified Professional Midwives' standards of practice, except that prescriptive authority shall be prohibited, (iii) ensure independent practice, (iv) require midwives to disclose to their patients, when appropriate, options for consultation and referral to a physician and evidence-based information on health risks associated with birth of a child outside of a hospital or birthing center, as defined in § 54.1-2957.03 54.1-3049, including risks associated with vaginal births after a prior cesarean section, breech births, births by women experiencing high-risk pregnancies, and births involving multiple gestation, (v) provide for an appropriate license fee, and (vi) include requirements for licensure renewal and continuing education. Such regulations shall not (a) require any agreement, written or otherwise, with another health care professional or (b) require the assessment of a woman who is seeking midwifery services by another health care professional. A licensed midwife may obtain, possess, and administer drugs and devices that are used within the licensed midwife's scope of practice as determined by the North American Registry of Midwives Job Analysis. The Board of Medicine shall develop and publish best practice and standards of care guidance for all such drugs. The formulary shall not include any drug, as defined in § 54.1-3401, in Schedule I through V of the Drug Control Act. A licensed midwife may obtain medications and devices to treat conditions within the licensed midwife's scope of practice from entities including a pharmacy, as defined in § 54.1-3300, or a manufacturer, medical equipment supplier, outsourcing facility, warehouser, or wholesale distributor, as these terms are defined in § 54.1-3401. An entity that provides a medication to a licensed midwife in accordance with this section, and who relies in good faith upon the license information provided by the licensed midwife, is not subject to liability for providing the medication.
Completing all Alliance for Innovation on Maternal Health patient safety bundles advanced by the Virginia Neonatal Perinatal Collaborative shall be required of any licensed midwife who obtains, possesses, and administers drugs and devices within the scope of his practice.
License renewal shall be contingent upon maintaining a Certified Professional Midwife certification.
§ 54.1-2972. When person deemed medically and legally dead; determination of death; nurses', licensed practical nurses', physician assistants', or advanced practice registered nurses' authority to pronounce death under certain circumstances.
A. As used in this section, "autonomous nurse practitioner" means a nurse practitioner who is authorized to practice without a practice agreement pursuant to subsection I of § 54.1-2957 has the same meaning as provided in § 54.1-3300.
B. A person shall be medically and legally dead if:
1. In the opinion of a physician duly authorized to practice medicine in the Commonwealth or autonomous nurse practitioner, based on the ordinary standards of medical practice, there is the absence of spontaneous respiratory and spontaneous cardiac functions and, because of the disease or condition that directly or indirectly caused these functions to cease, or because of the passage of time since these functions ceased, attempts at resuscitation would not, in the opinion of such physician or autonomous nurse practitioner, be successful in restoring spontaneous life-sustaining functions, and, in such event, death shall be deemed to have occurred at the time these functions ceased; or
2. In the opinion of a physician, who shall be duly licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth and board-eligible or board-certified in the field of neurology, neurosurgery, or critical care medicine, when based on the ordinary standards of medical practice, there is irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, and, in the opinion of such physician, based on the ordinary standards of medical practice and considering the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, and the patient's medical record, further attempts at resuscitation or continued supportive maintenance would not be successful in restoring such functions, and, in such event, death shall be deemed to have occurred at the time when all such functions have ceased.
C. A registered nurse, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner may pronounce death if the following criteria are satisfied: (i) the nurse is employed by or the physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner works at (a) a home care organization as defined in § 32.1-162.7, (b) a hospice as defined in § 32.1-162.1, (c) a hospital or nursing home as defined in § 32.1-123, including state-operated hospitals for the purposes of this section, (d) the Department of Corrections, or (e) a continuing care retirement community registered with the State Corporation Commission pursuant to Chapter 49 (§ 38.2-4900 et seq.) of Title 38.2; (ii) the nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner is directly involved in the care of the patient; (iii) the patient's death has occurred; (iv) the patient is under the care of a physician or autonomous nurse practitioner when his death occurs; (v) the patient's death has been anticipated; and (vi) the physician or autonomous nurse practitioner is unable to be present within a reasonable period of time to determine death. A licensed practical nurse may pronounce death for a patient in hospice pursuant to a valid Do Not Resuscitate Order issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1. The nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner shall inform the patient's attending and consulting physician or autonomous nurse practitioner of the patient's death as soon as practicable.
The nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner shall have the authority to pronounce death in accordance with such procedural regulations, if any, as may be promulgated by the Board of Medicine; however, if the circumstances of the death are not anticipated or the death requires an investigation by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, such nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse shall notify the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner of the death and the body shall not be released to the funeral director.
This subsection shall not authorize a nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner to determine the cause of death. Determination of cause of death shall continue to be the responsibility of the attending physician or autonomous nurse practitioner, except as provided in § 32.1-263. Further, this subsection shall not be construed to impose any obligation to carry out the functions of this subsection.
This subsection shall not relieve any registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred for failure to follow statutes or Board of Nursing or Board of Medicine regulations.
D. The alternative definitions of death provided in subdivisions B 1 and 2 may be utilized for all purposes in the Commonwealth, including the trial of civil and criminal cases.
§ 54.1-2973.1. Practice of laser hair removal.
The practice of laser hair removal shall be performed by a properly trained person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine or a physician assistant as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2952 or an advanced practice registered nurse as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044 or by a properly trained person under the direction and supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine or a physician assistant as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2952 or an advanced practice registered nurse as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044 who may delegate such practice in accordance with subdivision A 6 of § 54.1-2901.
§ 54.1-3000. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Advanced practice registered nurse" means a certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, or nurse practitioner who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing Board pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, has completed an advanced graduate-level education program in a specialty category of nursing, and has passed a national certifying examination for that specialty.
"Board" means the Board of Nursing.
"Certified nurse aide" means a person who meets the qualifications specified in this article and who is currently certified by the Board.
"Certified nurse midwife" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse midwifery and who is licensed by the Board as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-3044.
"Certified registered nurse anesthetist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse anesthesia, who is licensed by the Board as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-3044, and who practices under the supervision of a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry but is not subject to the practice agreement requirement described in § 54.1-3044.
"Clinical nurse specialist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of clinical nurse specialist and who is licensed by the Board as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-3044.
"Massage therapist" means a person who meets the qualifications specified in this chapter and who is currently licensed by the Board.
"Massage therapy" means the treatment of soft tissues for therapeutic purposes by the application of massage and bodywork techniques based on the manipulation or application of pressure to the muscular structure or soft tissues of the human body. The term "massage therapy" does not include the diagnosis or treatment of illness or disease or any service or procedure for which a license to practice medicine, nursing, midwifery, chiropractic, physical therapy, occupational therapy, acupuncture, athletic training, or podiatry is required by law or any service described in subdivision A 18 of § 54.1-3001.
"Massage therapy" shall not include manipulation of the spine or joints.
"Nurse practitioner" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is jointly certified in one of the specialties of nurse practitioner and who is licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing Board as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044.
"Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a person who is licensed or holds a multistate licensure privilege under the provisions of this chapter to practice practical nursing as defined in this section. Such a licensee shall be empowered to provide nursing services without compensation. The abbreviation "L.P.N." shall stand for such terms.
"Practical nursing" or "licensed practical nursing" means the performance for compensation of selected nursing acts in the care of individuals or groups who are ill, injured, or experiencing changes in normal health processes; in the maintenance of health; in the prevention of illness or disease; or, subject to such regulations as the Board may promulgate, in the teaching of those who are or will be nurse aides. Practical nursing or licensed practical nursing requires knowledge, judgment and skill in nursing procedures gained through prescribed education. Practical nursing or licensed practical nursing is performed under the direction or supervision of a licensed medical practitioner, a professional nurse, registered nurse or registered professional nurse or other licensed health professional authorized by regulations of the Board.
"Practice of a nurse aide" or "nurse aide practice" means the performance of services requiring the education, training, and skills specified in this chapter for certification as a nurse aide. Such services are performed under the supervision of a dentist, physician, podiatrist, professional nurse, licensed practical nurse, or other licensed health care professional acting within the scope of the requirements of his profession.
"Professional nurse," "registered nurse" or "registered professional nurse" means a person who is licensed or holds a multistate licensure privilege under the provisions of this chapter to practice professional nursing as defined in this section. Such a licensee shall be empowered to provide professional services without compensation, to promote health and to teach health to individuals and groups. The abbreviation "R.N." shall stand for such terms.
"Professional nursing," "registered nursing" or "registered professional nursing" means the performance for compensation of any nursing acts in the observation, care and counsel of individuals or groups who are ill, injured or experiencing changes in normal health processes or the maintenance of health; in the prevention of illness or disease; in the supervision and teaching of those who are or will be involved in nursing care; in the delegation of selected nursing tasks and procedures to appropriately trained unlicensed persons as determined by the Board; or in the administration of medications and treatments as prescribed by any person authorized by law to prescribe such medications and treatment. Professional nursing, registered nursing and registered professional nursing require specialized education, judgment, and skill based upon knowledge and application of principles from the biological, physical, social, behavioral and nursing sciences.
§ 54.1-3005. Specific powers and duties of Board.
In addition to the general powers and duties conferred in this title, the Board shall have the following specific powers and duties:
1. To prescribe minimum standards and approve curricula for educational programs preparing persons for licensure, certification, or registration under this chapter;
2. To approve programs that meet the requirements of this chapter and of the Board;
3. To provide consultation service for educational programs as requested;
4. To provide for periodic surveys of educational or training programs;
5. To deny or withdraw approval from educational or training programs for failure to meet prescribed standards;
6. To provide consultation regarding nursing practice for institutions and agencies as requested and investigate illegal nursing practices;
7. To keep a record of all its proceedings;
8. To certify and maintain a registry of all certified nurse aides and to promulgate regulations consistent with federal law and regulation. The Board shall require all schools to demonstrate their compliance with § 54.1-3006.2 upon application for approval or reapproval, during an on-site visit, or in response to a complaint or a report of noncompliance. The Board may impose a fee pursuant to § 54.1-2401 for any violation thereof. Such regulations may include standards for the authority of licensed practical nurses to teach nurse aides;
9. To maintain a registry of clinical nurse specialists and to promulgate regulations governing clinical nurse specialists;
10. To license and maintain a registry of all licensed massage therapists and to promulgate regulations governing the criteria for licensure as a massage therapist and the standards of professional conduct for licensed massage therapists;
11. To promulgate regulations for the delegation of certain nursing tasks and procedures not involving assessment, evaluation or nursing judgment to an appropriately trained unlicensed person by and under the supervision of a registered nurse, who retains responsibility and accountability for such delegation;
12. To develop and revise as may be necessary, in coordination with the Boards of Medicine and Education, guidelines for the training of employees of a school board in the administration of insulin and glucagon for the purpose of assisting with routine insulin injections and providing emergency treatment for life-threatening hypoglycemia. The first set of such guidelines shall be finalized by September 1, 1999, and shall be made available to local school boards for a fee not to exceed the costs of publication;
13. To enter into the Nurse Licensure Compact as set forth in this chapter and to promulgate regulations for its implementation;
14. To collect, store and make available nursing workforce information regarding the various categories of nurses certified, licensed or registered pursuant to § 54.1-3012.1;
15. To expedite application processing, to the extent possible, pursuant to § 54.1-119 for an applicant for licensure or certification by the Board upon submission of evidence that the applicant, who is licensed or certified in another state, is relocating to the Commonwealth pursuant to a spouse's official military orders;
16. To register medication aides and promulgate regulations governing the criteria for such registration and standards of conduct for medication aides;
17. To approve training programs for medication aides to include requirements for instructional personnel, curriculum, continuing education, and a competency evaluation;
18. To set guidelines for the collection of data by all approved nursing education programs and to compile this data in an annual report. The data shall include but not be limited to enrollment, graduation rate, attrition rate, and number of qualified applicants who are denied admission;
19. To develop, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, guidelines for the training of employees of child day programs as defined in § 22.1-289.02 and regulated by the Board of Education in the administration of prescription drugs as defined in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.). Such training programs shall be taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist;
20. In order to protect the privacy and security of health professionals licensed, registered or certified under this chapter, to promulgate regulations permitting use on identification badges of first name and first letter only of last name and appropriate title when practicing in hospital emergency departments, in psychiatric and mental health units and programs, or in health care facility units offering treatment for patients in custody of state or local law-enforcement agencies;
21. To revise, as may be necessary, guidelines for seizure management, in coordination with the Board of Medicine, including the list of rescue medications for students with epilepsy and other seizure disorders in the public schools. The revised guidelines shall be finalized and made available to the Board of Education by August 1, 2010. The guidelines shall then be posted on the Department of Education's website; and
22. To promulgate, together with the Board of Medicine, regulations governing the licensure of advanced practice registered nurses pursuant to § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044 and the licensure of licensed certified midwives pursuant to § 54.1-2957.04 54.1-3050.
Article 8.
Advanced Practice Registered Nurses.
§ 54.1-3044. Licensure and practice of advanced practice registered nurses.
A. As used in this section, "clinical experience" means the postgraduate delivery of health care directly to patients pursuant to a practice agreement with a patient care team physician.
B. The Board shall prescribe the regulations governing the licensure of advanced practice registered nurses. It is unlawful for a person to practice as an advanced practice registered nurse in the Commonwealth unless he holds such a license.
C. Every nurse practitioner who does not meet the requirements of subsection I shall maintain appropriate collaboration and consultation, as evidenced in a written or electronic practice agreement, with at least one patient care team physician. An advanced practice registered nurse who meets the requirements of subsection I may practice without a written or electronic practice agreement. A certified nurse midwife shall practice pursuant to subsection H. An advanced practice registered nurse who is licensed by the Board as a clinical nurse specialist shall practice pursuant to subsection J. A certified registered nurse anesthetist shall practice under the supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry. An advanced practice registered nurse who is appointed as a medical examiner pursuant to § 32.1-282 shall practice in collaboration with a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine who has been appointed to serve as a medical examiner pursuant to § 32.1-282. Collaboration and consultation among advanced practice registered nurses and patient care team physicians may be provided through telemedicine as described in § 38.2-3418.16.
Physicians on patient care teams may require that an advanced practice registered nurse be covered by a professional liability insurance policy with limits equal to the current limitation on damages set forth in § 8.01-581.15.
Service on a patient care team by a patient care team member shall not, by the existence of such service alone, establish or create liability for the actions or inactions of other team members.
D. The Board shall promulgate regulations specifying collaboration and consultation among physicians and nurse practitioners working as part of patient care teams that shall include the development of, and periodic review and revision of, a written or electronic practice agreement, guidelines for availability and ongoing communications that define consultation among the collaborating parties and the patient, and periodic joint evaluation of the services delivered. Practice agreements shall include provisions for (i) periodic review of health records, which may include visits to the site where health care is delivered, in the manner and at the frequency determined by the nurse practitioner and the patient care team physician and (ii) input from appropriate health care providers in complex clinical cases and patient emergencies and for referrals. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by a nurse practitioner and provided to the Board upon request. For nurse practitioners providing care to patients within a hospital or health care system, the practice agreement may be included as part of documents delineating the nurse practitioner's clinical privileges or the electronic or written delineation of duties and responsibilities in collaboration and consultation with a patient care team physician.
E. The Board may issue a license by endorsement to an applicant to practice as an advanced practice registered nurse if the applicant has been licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse under the laws of another state and, pursuant to regulations of the Board, the applicant meets the qualifications for licensure required of advanced practice registered nurses in the Commonwealth. A nurse practitioner to whom a license is issued by endorsement may practice without a practice agreement with a patient care team physician pursuant to subsection I if such application provides an attestation to the Board that the applicant has completed the equivalent of at least five years of full-time clinical experience, as determined by the Board, in accordance with the laws of the state in which the nurse practitioner was licensed.
F. Pending the outcome of the next National Specialty Examination, the Board may grant temporary licensure to advanced practice registered nurses.
G. In the event a physician who is serving as a patient care team physician dies, becomes disabled, retires from active practice, surrenders his license or has it suspended or revoked by the Board, or relocates his practice such that he is no longer able to serve, and the nurse practitioner is unable to enter into a new practice agreement with another patient care team physician, the nurse practitioner may continue to practice upon notification to the designee or his alternate of the Board and receipt of such notification. Such nurse practitioner may continue to treat patients without a patient care team physician for an initial period not to exceed 60 days, provided that the nurse practitioner continues to prescribe only those drugs previously authorized by the practice agreement with such physician and to have access to appropriate input from appropriate health care providers in complex clinical cases and patient emergencies and for referrals. The designee or his alternate of the Board shall grant permission for the nurse practitioner to continue practice under this subsection for another 60 days, provided that the nurse practitioner provides evidence of efforts made to secure another patient care team physician and of access to physician input.
H. Every advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board in the category of certified nurse midwife shall practice in accordance with regulations adopted by the Board and consistent with the Standards for the Practice of Midwifery set by the American College of Nurse-Midwives governing such practice. A certified nurse midwife who has practiced fewer than 1,000 hours shall practice in consultation with a certified nurse midwife who has practiced for at least two years prior to entering into the practice agreement or a licensed physician, in accordance with a practice agreement. Such practice agreement shall address the availability of the certified nurse midwife who has practiced for at least two years prior to entering into the practice agreement or the licensed physician for routine and urgent consultation on patient care. Evidence of the practice agreement shall be maintained by the certified nurse midwife and provided to the Board upon request. A certified nurse midwife who has completed 1,000 hours of practice as a certified nurse midwife may practice without a practice agreement upon receipt by the certified nurse midwife of an attestation from the certified nurse midwife who has practiced for at least two years prior to entering into the practice agreement or the licensed physician with whom the certified nurse midwife has entered into a practice agreement stating (i) that such certified nurse midwife or licensed physician has provided consultation to the certified nurse midwife pursuant to a practice agreement meeting the requirements of this section and (ii) the period of time for which such certified nurse midwife or licensed physician practiced in collaboration and consultation with the certified nurse midwife pursuant to the practice agreement. A certified nurse midwife authorized to practice without a practice agreement shall consult and collaborate with and refer patients to such other health care providers as may be appropriate for the care of the patient.
I. An advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board in one of the categories of nurse practitioner, other than a nurse practitioner licensed by the Board in the category of certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, or clinical nurse specialist, who has completed the equivalent of at least five years of full-time clinical experience as a licensed nurse practitioner, as determined by the Board, may practice in the practice category in which he is certified and licensed without a written or electronic practice agreement upon receipt by the nurse practitioner of an attestation from the patient care team physician stating (i) that the patient care team physician has served as a patient care team physician on a patient care team with the nurse practitioner pursuant to a practice agreement meeting the requirements of this section and § 54.1-3045; (ii) that while a party to such practice agreement, the patient care team physician routinely practiced with a patient population and in a practice area included within the category for which the nurse practitioner was certified and licensed; and (iii) the period of time for which the patient care team physician practiced with the nurse practitioner under such a practice agreement. A copy of such attestation shall be submitted to the Board together with a fee established by the Board. Upon receipt of such attestation and verification that a nurse practitioner satisfies the requirements of this subsection, the Board shall issue to the nurse practitioner a new license that includes a designation indicating that the nurse practitioner is authorized to practice without a practice agreement. In the event that a nurse practitioner is unable to obtain the attestation required by this subsection, the Board may accept other evidence demonstrating that the applicant has met the requirements of this subsection in accordance with regulations adopted by the Board.
A nurse practitioner authorized to practice without a practice agreement pursuant to this subsection shall (a) practice only within the scope of his clinical and professional training and limits of his knowledge and experience and consistent with the applicable standards of care, (b) consult and collaborate with other health care providers based on the clinical conditions of the patient to whom health care is provided, and (c) establish a plan for referral of complex medical cases and emergencies to physicians or other appropriate health care providers.
J. An advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board in the category of clinical nurse specialist who does not prescribe controlled substances or devices may practice in the practice category in which he is certified and licensed without a written or electronic practice agreement. Such advanced practice registered nurse shall (i) only practice within the scope of his clinical and professional training and limits of his knowledge and experience and consistent with the applicable standards of care, (ii) consult and collaborate with other health care providers based on the clinical condition of the patient to whom health care is provided, and (iii) establish a plan for referral of complex medical cases and emergencies to physicians or other appropriate health care providers.
An advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board in the category of clinical nurse specialist who prescribes controlled substances or devices shall practice in consultation with a licensed physician in accordance with a practice agreement between the nurse practitioner and the licensed physician. Such practice agreement shall address the availability of the physician for routine and urgent consultation on patient care. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by an advanced practice nurse practitioner and provided to the Board upon request. The practice of clinical nurse specialists shall be consistent with the standards of care for the profession and with applicable laws and regulations.
§ 54.1-3045. Prescription of certain controlled substances and devices by advanced practice registered nurses.
A. In accordance with the provisions of this section and pursuant to the requirements of Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.), a licensed advanced practice registered nurse shall have the authority to prescribe Schedule II through Schedule VI controlled substances and devices as set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).
B. An advanced practice registered nurse who does not meet the requirements for practice without a written or electronic practice agreement set forth in subsection I of § 54.1-3044 shall prescribe controlled substances or devices only if such prescribing is authorized by a written or electronic practice agreement entered into by the advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board in one of the categories of nurse practitioner and a patient care team physician or, if the advanced practice registered nurse is licensed by the Board in the category of clinical nurse specialist, the advanced practice registered nurse and a licensed physician. Such advanced practice registered nurse shall provide to the Board such evidence as the Board may require that the advanced practice registered nurse has entered into and is, at the time of writing a prescription, a party to a written or electronic practice agreement that clearly states the prescriptive practices of the advanced practice registered nurse. Such written or electronic practice agreements shall include the controlled substances the advanced practice registered nurse is or is not authorized to prescribe and may restrict such prescriptive authority as described in the practice agreement. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-3044. Practice agreements authorizing an advanced practice registered nurse to prescribe controlled substances or devices pursuant to this section either shall be signed by the physician who has entered into the practice agreement with the advanced practice registered nurse.
It is unlawful for an advanced practice registered nurse to prescribe controlled substances or devices pursuant to this section unless (i) such prescription is authorized by the written or electronic practice agreement or (ii) the advanced practice registered nurse is authorized to practice without a written or electronic practice agreement pursuant to subsection I of § 54.1-3044.
C. The Board shall promulgate regulations governing the prescriptive authority of advanced practice registered nurses as are deemed reasonable and necessary to ensure an appropriate standard of care for patients. Such regulations shall include requirements as may be necessary to ensure continued competency, which may include continuing education, testing, or any other requirement, and shall address the need to promote ethical practice, an appropriate standard of care, patient safety, the use of new pharmaceuticals, and appropriate communication with patients.
D. This section shall not limit the functions and procedures of certified registered nurse anesthetists or of any advanced practice registered nurses that are otherwise authorized to prescribe controlled substances or devices by law or regulation.
E. The following restrictions shall apply to any advanced practice registered nurse authorized to prescribe controlled substances and devices pursuant to this section:
1. The advanced practice registered nurse shall disclose to the patient at the initial encounter that he is a licensed advanced practice registered nurse. Any party to a practice agreement shall disclose, upon request of a patient or his legal representative, the name of the patient care team physician, or, if the advanced practice registered nurse is licensed by the Board in the category of clinical nurse specialist, the name of the licensed physician, and information regarding how to contact the patient care team physician or licensed physician.
2. Physicians shall not serve as a patient care team physician on a patient care team or enter into a practice agreement with more than six advanced practice registered nurses at any one time, except that a physician may serve as a patient care team physician on a patient care team with up to 10 advanced practice registered nurses licensed in the category of psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner.
F. This section shall not prohibit a licensed advanced practice registered nurse from administering controlled substances in compliance with the definition of "administer" in § 54.1-3401 or from receiving and dispensing manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances in compliance with the provisions of this section.
G. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, an advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board in the category of certified nurse midwife and holding a license for prescriptive authority may prescribe Schedules II through VI controlled substances. However, if the advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board in the category of certified nurse midwife is required, pursuant to subsection H of § 54.1-3044, to practice pursuant to a practice agreement, such prescribing shall also be in accordance with any prescriptive authority included in such practice agreement.
H. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, an advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Board as a certified registered nurse anesthetist shall have the authority to prescribe Schedule II through Schedule VI controlled substances and devices in accordance with the requirements for practice set forth in subsection C of § 54.1-3044 to a patient requiring anesthesia, as part of the periprocedural care of such patient. As used in this subsection, "periprocedural" means the period beginning prior to a procedure and ending at the time the patient is discharged.
§ 54.1-3046. Restricted volunteer license for advanced practice registered nurses.
A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to an advanced practice registered nurse who (i) within the past five years held an unrestricted license as an advanced practice registered nurse in the Commonwealth or another state that was in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive and (ii) holds an active license or a volunteer restricted license as a registered nurse or a multistate licensure privilege. Advanced practice registered nurses holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section shall only practice in public health or community free clinics that provide services to underserved populations.
B. An applicant for a restricted volunteer license shall submit an application on a form provided by the Board and attest that he will not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for providing nursing services.
C. An advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license pursuant to this section may obtain prescriptive authority in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-3045.
D. An advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license pursuant to this section shall not be required to complete continuing competency requirements for the first renewal of such license. For subsequent renewals, an advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license shall be required to complete the continuing competency requirements required for renewal of an active license.
E. A restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section may be renewed biennially in accordance with the renewal schedule established in regulations promulgated by the Board.
F. The application and biennial renewal fee for restricted volunteer licenses pursuant to this section shall be one-half of the fee for an active license.
G. An advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter and all regulations applicable to advanced practice registered nurses practicing in the Commonwealth.
§ 54.1-3047. When advanced practice registered nurse signature accepted.
Whenever any law or regulation requires a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement by a physician, it shall be deemed to include a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement by an advanced practice registered nurse.
§ 54.1-3048. Applicants from other states without reciprocity; temporary licenses or certificates for advanced practice registered nurses.
A. The Board may issue certificates or licenses to applicants upon endorsement by board or other appropriate authorities of other states or territories or the District of Columbia with which reciprocal relations have not been established if the credentials of such applicants are satisfactory and the examinations and passing grades required by such other board are fully equal to those required by the Virginia Board.
The Board may issue certificates or licenses to applicants holding certificates from the national board of advanced practice registered nurses if their credentials, schools of graduation, and national board examinations and results are acceptable to the Board. The Board shall promulgate regulations in order to carry out the provisions of this section.
The Board shall prioritize applicants for licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse from such states that are contiguous with the Commonwealth in processing their applications for licensure by endorsement through a streamlined process, with a final determination regarding qualification to be made within 20 days of the receipt of a completed application.
B. The Board may issue authorization to practice valid for a period not to exceed three months to an advanced practice registered nurse licensed or certified and in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in the state, District of Columbia, or Canada where the practitioner resides when the practitioner is in Virginia temporarily to practice (i) in a summer camp or in conjunction with patients who are participating in recreational activities, (ii) in continuing education programs, or (iii) by rendering at any site any health care services within the limits of his license or certificate, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic that is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge as provided in § 54.1-106. A fee not to exceed $25 may be charged by the Board for the issuance of authorization to practice pursuant to the provisions of this subsection.
Article 9.
Midwifery.
§ 54.1-3049. Certified nurse midwives; required disclosures; liability.
A. As used in this section, "birthing center" means a facility outside a hospital that provides maternity services.
B. A certified nurse midwife who provides health care services to a patient outside of a hospital or birthing center shall disclose to that patient, when appropriate, information on health risks associated with births outside of a hospital or birthing center, including risks associated with vaginal births after a prior cesarean section, breech births, births by women experiencing high-risk pregnancies, and births involving multiple gestation.
C. A certified nurse midwife who provides health care to a patient shall be liable for negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions. Except as otherwise provided by law, any (i) doctor of medicine or osteopathy who did not collaborate or consult with the midwife regarding the patient and who has not previously treated the patient for this pregnancy; (ii) physician assistant; (iii) advanced practice registered nurse; (iv) prehospital emergency medical personnel; or (v) hospital as defined in § 32.1-123, or any employee of, person providing services pursuant to a contract with, or agent of such hospital that provides screening and stabilization health care services to a patient as a result of a certified nurse midwife's negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions shall be immune from liability for acts or omissions constituting ordinary negligence.
§ 54.1-3050. Licensure as a licensed certified midwife; practice as a licensed certified midwife; use of title; required disclosures.
A. It is unlawful for any person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as a licensed certified midwife or use in connection with his name the words "Licensed Certified Midwife" unless he holds a license as such issued by the Board.
B. The Board shall adopt regulations for the licensure of licensed certified midwives, which shall include criteria for licensure and renewal of a license as a certified midwife that shall include a requirement that the applicant provide evidence satisfactory to the Board of current certification as a certified midwife by the American Midwifery Certification Board and that shall be consistent with the requirements for certification as a certified midwife established by the American Midwifery Certification Board.
C. The Board may issue a license by endorsement to an applicant to practice as a licensed certified midwife if the applicant has been licensed as a certified midwife under the laws of another state and, pursuant to regulations of the Board, the applicant meets the qualifications for licensure as a licensed certified midwife in the Commonwealth.
D. Licensed certified midwives shall practice in consultation with a licensed physician in accordance with a practice agreement between the licensed certified midwife and the licensed physician. Such practice agreement shall address the availability of the physician for routine and urgent consultation on patient care. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by the licensed certified midwife and provided to the Board upon request. The Board shall adopt regulations for the practice of licensed certified midwives, which shall be consistent with the Standards for the Practice of Midwifery set by the American College of Nurse-Midwives governing the practice of midwifery.
E. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, a licensed certified midwife may prescribe Schedules II through VI controlled substances in accordance with regulations of the Board.
F. A licensed certified midwife who provides health care services to a patient outside of a hospital or birthing center shall disclose to that patient, when appropriate, information on health risks associated with births outside of a hospital or birthing center, including but not limited to risks associated with vaginal births after a prior cesarean section, breech births, births by women experiencing high-risk pregnancies, and births involving multiple gestation. As used in this subsection, "birthing center" has the same meaning as provided in § 54.1-3049.
G. A licensed certified midwife who provides health care to a patient shall be liable for negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions. Except as otherwise provided by law, any (i) doctor of medicine or osteopathy who did not collaborate or consult with the midwife regarding the patient and who has not previously treated the patient for this pregnancy; (ii) physician assistant; (iii) advanced practice registered nurse; (iv) prehospital emergency medical personnel; or (v) hospital as defined in § 32.1-123, or any employee of, person providing services pursuant to a contract with, or agent of such hospital that provides screening and stabilization health care services to a patient as a result of a licensed certified midwife's negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions shall be immune from liability for acts or omissions constituting ordinary negligence.
§ 54.1-3051. Advisory Board on Advanced Practice Midwifery.
The Advisory Board on Advanced Practice Midwifery (the Advisory Board) shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this article regarding the qualifications, examination, licensure, regulation, and standards of professional conduct of certified nurse midwives and licensed certified midwives as described in §§ 54.1-3049 and 54.1-3050. The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters relating to the practice of midwifery as the Board may require.
The Advisory Board on Advanced Practice Midwifery shall consist of seven members to be appointed by the Governor for four-year terms as follows: three members shall be licensed certified nurse midwives who have practiced in the Commonwealth for not less than three years prior to their appointment, three members shall be licensed certified midwives who have practiced in the Commonwealth for not less than three years prior to their appointment, and one member shall be an administrator or faculty member of a nationally accredited school of nursing.
The Advisory Board shall elect a chairman and vice-chairman from among its membership. The Advisory Board shall meet at least once a year and may hold additional meetings as necessary to perform its duties. A majority of the Advisory Board shall constitute a quorum for the conduct of business.
Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of a term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two successive terms.
§ 54.1-3300. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Autonomous nurse practitioner" means a nurse practitioner who is authorized to practice without a practice agreement pursuant to subsection I of § 54.1-3044.
"Board" means the Board of Pharmacy.
"Collaborative agreement" means a voluntary, written, or electronic arrangement between one pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists involved directly in patient care at a single physical location where patients receive services and (i) any person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry together with any person licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions who provides health care services to patients of such person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (ii) a physician's office as defined in § 32.1-276.3, provided that such collaborative agreement is signed by each physician participating in the collaborative agreement; (iii) any licensed physician assistant working under the supervision of a person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; or (iv) any licensed advanced practice registered nurse working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044; or any licensed certified midwife working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-3050, involved directly in patient care which authorizes cooperative procedures with respect to patients of such practitioners. Collaborative procedures shall be related to treatment using drug therapy, laboratory tests, or medical devices, under defined conditions or limitations, for the purpose of improving patient outcomes. A collaborative agreement is not required for the management of patients of an inpatient facility.
"Dispense" means to deliver a drug to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the prescribing and administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for delivery.
"Pharmacist" means a person holding a license issued by the Board to practice pharmacy.
"Pharmacy" means every establishment or institution in which drugs, medicines, or medicinal chemicals are dispensed or offered for sale, or a sign is displayed bearing the word or words "pharmacist," "pharmacy," "apothecary," "drugstore," "druggist," "drugs," "medicine store," "drug sundries," "prescriptions filled," or any similar words intended to indicate that the practice of pharmacy is being conducted.
"Pharmacy intern" means a student currently enrolled in or a graduate of an approved school of pharmacy who is registered with the Board for the purpose of gaining the practical experience required to apply for licensure as a pharmacist.
"Pharmacy technician" means a person registered with the Board to assist a pharmacist under the pharmacist's supervision.
"Pharmacy technician trainee" means a person registered with the Board for the purpose of performing duties restricted to a pharmacy technician as part of a pharmacy technician training program in accordance with the provisions of subsection G of § 54.1-3321.
"Practice of pharmacy" means the personal health service that is concerned with the art and science of selecting, procuring, recommending, administering, preparing, compounding, packaging, and dispensing of drugs, medicines, and devices used in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of disease, whether compounded or dispensed on a prescription or otherwise legally dispensed or distributed, and shall include (i) the proper and safe storage and distribution of drugs; (ii) the maintenance of proper records; (iii) the responsibility of providing information concerning drugs and medicines and their therapeutic values and uses in the treatment and prevention of disease; (iv) the management of patient care under the terms of a collaborative agreement as defined in this section; and (v) the initiating of treatment with or dispensing or administering of certain drugs, devices, or controlled paraphernalia in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-3303.1.
"Supervision" means the direction and control by a pharmacist of the activities of a pharmacy intern or a pharmacy technician whereby the supervising pharmacist is physically present in the pharmacy or in the facility in which the pharmacy is located when the intern or technician is performing duties restricted to a pharmacy intern or technician, respectively, and is available for immediate oral communication.
Other terms used in the context of this chapter shall be defined as provided in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) unless the context requires a different meaning.
§ 54.1-3300.1. Participation in collaborative agreements; regulations to be promulgated by the Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy.
A. A pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists involved directly in patient care may participate with (i) any person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry together with any person licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions who provides health care services to patients of such person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (ii) a physician's office as defined in § 32.1-276.3, provided that such collaborative agreement is signed by each physician participating in the collaborative agreement; (iii) any licensed physician assistant working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2951.1; or (iv) any licensed advanced practice registered nurse working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044; or (v) any licensed certified midwife working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-3050, involved directly in patient care in collaborative agreements which authorize cooperative procedures related to treatment using drug therapy, laboratory tests, or medical devices, under defined conditions or limitations, for the purpose of improving patient outcomes for patients who meet the criteria set forth in the collaborative agreement. However, no person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry, or licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant, shall be required to participate in a collaborative agreement with a pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists, regardless of whether a professional business entity on behalf of which the person is authorized to act enters into a collaborative agreement with a pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists.
B. A patient who meets the criteria for inclusion in the category of patients whose care is subject to a collaborative agreement and who chooses to not participate in a collaborative procedure shall notify the prescriber of his refusal to participate in such collaborative procedure. A prescriber may elect to have a patient not participate in a collaborative procedure by contacting the pharmacist or his designated alternative pharmacists or by documenting the same on the patient's prescription.
C. Collaborative agreements may include the implementation, modification, continuation, or discontinuation of drug therapy pursuant to written or electronic protocols, provided implementation of drug therapy occurs following diagnosis by the prescriber; the ordering of laboratory tests; or other patient care management measures related to monitoring or improving the outcomes of drug or device therapy. No such collaborative agreement shall exceed the scope of practice of the respective parties. Any pharmacist who deviates from or practices in a manner inconsistent with the terms of a collaborative agreement shall be in violation of § 54.1-2902; such violation shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3316.
D. Collaborative agreements may only be used for conditions which have protocols that are clinically accepted as the standard of care, or are approved by the Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy. The Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy shall jointly develop and promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section and to facilitate the development and implementation of safe and effective collaborative agreements between the appropriate practitioners and pharmacists. The regulations shall include guidelines concerning the use of protocols, and a procedure to allow for the approval or disapproval of specific protocols by the Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy if review is requested by a practitioner or pharmacist.
E. Nothing in this section shall be construed to supersede the provisions of § 54.1-3303.
§ 54.1-3301. Exceptions.
This chapter shall not be construed to:
1. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of dentistry, or veterinary medicine or any physician acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments, in the compounding of his prescriptions or the purchase and possession of drugs as he may require;
2. Prevent any legally qualified practitioner of dentistry, or veterinary medicine or any prescriber, as defined in § 54.1-3401, acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments, from administering or supplying to his patients the medicines that he deems proper under the conditions of § 54.1-3303 or from causing drugs to be administered or dispensed pursuant to §§ 32.1-42.1 and 54.1-3408, except that a veterinarian shall only be authorized to dispense a compounded drug, distributed from a pharmacy, when (i) the animal is his own patient, (ii) the animal is a companion animal as defined in regulations promulgated by the Board of Veterinary Medicine, (iii) the quantity dispensed is no more than a seven-day supply, (iv) the compounded drug is for the treatment of an emergency condition, and (v) timely access to a compounding pharmacy is not available, as determined by the prescribing veterinarian;
3. Prohibit the sale by merchants and retail dealers of proprietary medicines as defined in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title;
4. Prevent the operation of automated drug dispensing systems in hospitals pursuant to Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title;
5. Prohibit the employment of ancillary personnel to assist a pharmacist as provided in the regulations of the Board;
6. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry from purchasing, possessing or administering controlled substances to his own patients or providing controlled substances to his own patients in a bona fide medical emergency or providing manufacturers' professional samples to his own patients;
7. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of optometry, certified or licensed to use diagnostic pharmaceutical agents, from purchasing, possessing or administering those controlled substances as specified in § 54.1-3221 or interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of optometry certified to prescribe therapeutic pharmaceutical agents from purchasing, possessing, or administering to his own patients those controlled substances as specified in § 54.1-3222 and the TPA formulary, providing manufacturers' samples of these drugs to his own patients, or dispensing, administering, or selling ophthalmic devices as authorized in § 54.1-3204;
8. Interfere with any physician assistant with prescriptive authority receiving and dispensing to his own patients manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances and devices that he is authorized, in compliance with the provisions of § 54.1-2952.1, to prescribe according to his practice setting and a written agreement with a physician or podiatrist;
9. Interfere with any licensed advanced practice registered nurse or licensed certified midwife with prescriptive authority receiving and dispensing to his own patients manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances and devices that he is authorized, in compliance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957.01 54.1-3045, to prescribe;
10. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of medicine or osteopathy participating in an indigent patient program offered by a pharmaceutical manufacturer in which the practitioner sends a prescription for one of his own patients to the manufacturer, and the manufacturer donates a stock bottle of the prescription drug ordered at no cost to the practitioner or patient. The practitioner may dispense such medication at no cost to the patient without holding a license to dispense from the Board of Pharmacy. However, the container in which the drug is dispensed shall be labeled in accordance with the requirements of § 54.1-3410, and, unless directed otherwise by the practitioner or the patient, shall meet standards for special packaging as set forth in § 54.1-3426 and Board of Pharmacy regulations. In lieu of dispensing directly to the patient, a practitioner may transfer the donated drug with a valid prescription to a pharmacy for dispensing to the patient. The practitioner or pharmacy participating in the program shall not use the donated drug for any purpose other than dispensing to the patient for whom it was originally donated, except as authorized by the donating manufacturer for another patient meeting that manufacturer's requirements for the indigent patient program. Neither the practitioner nor the pharmacy shall charge the patient for any medication provided through a manufacturer's indigent patient program pursuant to this subdivision. A participating pharmacy, including a pharmacy participating in bulk donation programs, may charge a reasonable dispensing or administrative fee to offset the cost of dispensing, not to exceed the actual costs of such dispensing. However, if the patient is unable to pay such fee, the dispensing or administrative fee shall be waived;
11. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of medicine or osteopathy from providing controlled substances to his own patients in a free clinic without charge when such controlled substances are donated by an entity other than a pharmaceutical manufacturer as authorized by subdivision 10. The practitioner shall first obtain a controlled substances registration from the Board and shall comply with the labeling and packaging requirements of this chapter and the Board's regulations; or
12. Prevent any pharmacist from providing free health care to an underserved population in Virginia who (i) does not regularly practice pharmacy in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice pharmacy in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of this Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certificate issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five business days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer, nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any pharmacist whose license has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations. However, the Board shall allow a pharmacist who meets the above criteria to provide volunteer services without prior notice for a period of up to three days, provided the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state.
This section shall not be construed as exempting any person from the licensure, registration, permitting and record keeping requirements of this chapter or Chapter 34 of this title.
§ 54.1-3303. Prescriptions to be issued and drugs to be dispensed for medical or therapeutic purposes only.
A. A prescription for a controlled substance may be issued only by a practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry or veterinary medicine who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01 54.1-3045, a licensed certified midwife pursuant to § 54.1-2957.04 54.1-3050, a licensed physician assistant pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1, or a TPA-certified optometrist pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32.
B. A prescription shall be issued only to persons or animals with whom the practitioner has a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship or veterinarian-client-patient relationship. If a practitioner is providing expedited partner therapy consistent with the recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, then a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship shall not be required.
A bona fide practitioner-patient relationship shall exist if the practitioner has (i) obtained or caused to be obtained a medical or drug history of the patient; (ii) provided information to the patient about the benefits and risks of the drug being prescribed; (iii) performed or caused to be performed an appropriate examination of the patient, either physically or by the use of instrumentation and diagnostic equipment through which images and medical records may be transmitted electronically; and (iv) initiated additional interventions and follow-up care, if necessary, especially if a prescribed drug may have serious side effects. Except in cases involving a medical emergency, the examination required pursuant to clause (iii) shall be performed by the practitioner prescribing the controlled substance, a practitioner who practices in the same group as the practitioner prescribing the controlled substance, or a consulting practitioner.
A practitioner who has established a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship with a patient in accordance with the provisions of this subsection may prescribe Schedule II through VI controlled substances to that patient.
A practitioner who has established a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship with a patient in accordance with the provisions of this subsection may prescribe Schedule II through VI controlled substances to that patient via telemedicine if such prescribing is in compliance with federal requirements for the practice of telemedicine and, in the case of the prescribing of a Schedule II through V controlled substance, the prescriber maintains a practice at a physical location in the Commonwealth or is able to make appropriate referral of patients to a licensed practitioner located in the Commonwealth in order to ensure an in-person examination of the patient when required by the standard of care.
A prescriber may establish a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship for the purpose of prescribing Schedule II through VI controlled substances by an examination through face-to-face interactive, two-way, real-time communications services or store-and-forward technologies when all of the following conditions are met: (a) the patient has provided a medical history that is available for review by the prescriber; (b) the prescriber obtains an updated medical history at the time of prescribing; (c) the prescriber makes a diagnosis at the time of prescribing; (d) the prescriber conforms to the standard of care expected of in-person care as appropriate to the patient's age and presenting condition, including when the standard of care requires the use of diagnostic testing and performance of a physical examination, which may be carried out through the use of peripheral devices appropriate to the patient's condition; (e) the prescriber is actively licensed in the Commonwealth and authorized to prescribe; (f) if the patient is a member or enrollee of a health plan or carrier, the prescriber has been credentialed by the health plan or carrier as a participating provider and the diagnosing and prescribing meets the qualifications for reimbursement by the health plan or carrier pursuant to § 38.2-3418.16; (g) upon request, the prescriber provides patient records in a timely manner in accordance with the provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 and all other state and federal laws and regulations; (h) the establishment of a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship via telemedicine is consistent with the standard of care, and the standard of care does not require an in-person examination for the purpose of diagnosis; and (i) the establishment of a bona fide practitioner patient relationship via telemedicine is consistent with federal law and regulations and any waiver thereof. Nothing in this paragraph shall apply to (1) a prescriber providing on-call coverage per an agreement with another prescriber or his prescriber's professional entity or employer; (2) a prescriber consulting with another prescriber regarding a patient's care; or (3) orders of prescribers for hospital out-patients or in-patients.
For purposes of this section, a bona fide veterinarian-client-patient relationship is one in which a veterinarian, another veterinarian within the group in which he practices, or a veterinarian with whom he is consulting has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of and providing medical treatment to an animal as defined in § 3.2-6500, other than an equine as defined in § 3.2-6200, a group of agricultural animals as defined in § 3.2-6500, or bees as defined in § 3.2-4400, and a client who is the owner or other caretaker of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees has consented to such treatment and agreed to follow the instructions of the veterinarian. Evidence that a veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of and providing medical treatment to an animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees shall include evidence that the veterinarian (A) has sufficient knowledge of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees to provide a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees; (B) has made an examination of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees, either physically or by the use of instrumentation and diagnostic equipment through which images and medical records may be transmitted electronically or has become familiar with the care and keeping of that species of animal or bee on the premises of the client, including other premises within the same operation or production system of the client, through medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises at which the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees are kept; and (C) is available to provide follow-up care.
C. A prescription shall only be issued for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose in the usual course of treatment or for authorized research. A prescription not issued in the usual course of treatment or for authorized research is not a valid prescription. A practitioner who prescribes any controlled substance with the knowledge that the controlled substance will be used otherwise than for medicinal or therapeutic purposes shall be subject to the criminal penalties provided in § 18.2-248 for violations of the provisions of law relating to the distribution or possession of controlled substances.
D. No prescription shall be filled unless a bona fide practitioner-patient-pharmacist relationship exists. A bona fide practitioner-patient-pharmacist relationship shall exist in cases in which a practitioner prescribes, and a pharmacist dispenses, controlled substances in good faith to a patient for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose within the course of his professional practice.
In cases in which it is not clear to a pharmacist that a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship exists between a prescriber and a patient, a pharmacist shall contact the prescribing practitioner or his agent and verify the identity of the patient and name and quantity of the drug prescribed.
Any person knowingly filling an invalid prescription shall be subject to the criminal penalties provided in § 18.2-248 for violations of the provisions of law relating to the sale, distribution or possession of controlled substances.
E. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary and consistent with recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention or the Department of Health, a practitioner may prescribe Schedule VI antibiotics and antiviral agents to other persons in close contact with a diagnosed patient when (i) the practitioner meets all requirements of a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship, as defined in subsection B, with the diagnosed patient and (ii) in the practitioner's professional judgment, the practitioner deems there is urgency to begin treatment to prevent the transmission of a communicable disease. In cases in which the practitioner is an employee of or contracted by the Department of Health or a local health department, the bona fide practitioner-patient relationship with the diagnosed patient, as required by clause (i), shall not be required.
F. A pharmacist may dispense a controlled substance pursuant to a prescription of an out-of-state practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, optometry, or veterinary medicine, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant authorized to issue such prescription if the prescription complies with the requirements of this chapter and the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).
G. A licensed advanced practice registered nurse who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01 54.1-3045 may issue prescriptions or provide manufacturers' professional samples for controlled substances and devices as set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) in good faith to his patient for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose within the scope of his professional practice.
H. A licensed physician assistant who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1 may issue prescriptions or provide manufacturers' professional samples for controlled substances and devices as set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) in good faith to his patient for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose within the scope of his professional practice.
I. A TPA-certified optometrist who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32 may issue prescriptions in good faith or provide manufacturers' professional samples to his patients for medicinal or therapeutic purposes within the scope of his professional practice for the drugs specified on the TPA-Formulary, established pursuant to § 54.1-3223, which shall be limited to (i) analgesics included on Schedule II controlled substances as defined in § 54.1-3448 of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) consisting of hydrocodone in combination with acetaminophen; (ii) oral analgesics included in Schedules III through VI, as defined in §§ 54.1-3450 and 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), which are appropriate to relieve ocular pain; (iii) other oral Schedule VI controlled substances, as defined in § 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act, appropriate to treat diseases and abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa; (iv) topically applied Schedule VI drugs, as defined in § 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act; and (v) intramuscular administration of epinephrine for treatment of emergency cases of anaphylactic shock.
J. The requirement for a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship shall be deemed to be satisfied by a member or committee of a hospital's medical staff when approving a standing order or protocol for the administration of influenza vaccinations and pneumococcal vaccinations in a hospital in compliance with § 32.1-126.4.
K. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a prescriber may authorize a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse to approve additional refills of a prescribed drug for no more than 90 consecutive days, provided that (i) the drug is classified as a Schedule VI drug; (ii) there are no changes in the prescribed drug, strength, or dosage; (iii) the prescriber has a current written protocol, accessible by the nurse, that identifies the conditions under which the nurse may approve additional refills; and (iv) the nurse documents in the patient's chart any refills authorized for a specific patient pursuant to the protocol and the additional refills are transmitted to a pharmacist in accordance with the allowances for an authorized agent to transmit a prescription orally or by facsimile pursuant to subsection C of § 54.1-3408.01 and regulations of the Board.
§ 54.1-3401. Definitions.
As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:
"Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient or research subject by (i) a practitioner or by his authorized agent and under his direction or (ii) the patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner.
"Advertisement" means all representations disseminated in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the purpose of inducing, or which are likely to induce, directly or indirectly, the purchase of drugs or devices.
"Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman, or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.
"Anabolic steroid" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone, other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone.
"Animal" means any nonhuman animate being endowed with the power of voluntary action.
"Automated drug dispensing system" means a mechanical or electronic system that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relating to pharmacy services, including the storage, dispensing, or distribution of drugs and the collection, control, and maintenance of all transaction information, to provide security and accountability for such drugs.
"Biological product" means a virus, therapeutic serum, toxin, antitoxin, vaccine, blood, blood component or derivative, allergenic product, protein other than a chemically synthesized polypeptide, or analogous product, or arsphenamine or any derivative of arsphenamine or any other trivalent organic arsenic compound, applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of a disease or condition of human beings.
"Biosimilar" means a biological product that is highly similar to a specific reference biological product, notwithstanding minor differences in clinically inactive compounds, such that there are no clinically meaningful differences between the reference biological product and the biological product that has been licensed as a biosimilar pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(k) in terms of safety, purity, and potency of the product.
"Board" means the Board of Pharmacy.
"Bulk drug substance" means any substance that is represented for use, and that, when used in the compounding, manufacturing, processing, or packaging of a drug, becomes an active ingredient or a finished dosage form of the drug; however, "bulk drug substance" shall not include intermediates that are used in the synthesis of such substances.
"Change of ownership" of an existing entity permitted, registered, or licensed by the Board means (i) the sale or transfer of all or substantially all of the assets of the entity or of any corporation that owns or controls the entity; (ii) the creation of a partnership by a sole proprietor, the dissolution of a partnership, or change in partnership composition; (iii) the acquisition or disposal of 50 percent or more of the outstanding shares of voting stock of a corporation owning the entity or of the parent corporation of a wholly owned subsidiary owning the entity, except that this shall not apply to any corporation the voting stock of which is actively traded on any securities exchange or in any over-the-counter market; (iv) the merger of a corporation owning the entity or of the parent corporation of a wholly-owned subsidiary owning the entity with another business or corporation; or (v) the expiration or forfeiture of a corporation's charter.
"Co-licensed partner" means a person who, with at least one other person, has the right to engage in the manufacturing or marketing of a prescription drug, consistent with state and federal law.
"Compounding" means the combining of two or more ingredients to fabricate such ingredients into a single preparation and includes the mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device (i) by a pharmacist, or within a permitted pharmacy, pursuant to a valid prescription issued for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose in the context of a bona fide practitioner-patient-pharmacist relationship, or in expectation of receiving a valid prescription based on observed historical patterns of prescribing and dispensing; (ii) by a practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, or veterinary medicine as an incident to his administering or dispensing, if authorized to dispense, a controlled substance in the course of his professional practice; or (iii) for the purpose of, or as incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or for dispensing. The mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of a manufacturer's product drugs for the purpose of administration to a patient, when performed by a practitioner of medicine or osteopathy licensed under Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.), a person supervised by such practitioner pursuant to subdivision A 6 or 19 of § 54.1-2901, or a person supervised by such practitioner or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant pursuant to subdivision A 4 of § 54.1-2901 shall not be considered compounding.
"Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in Schedules I through VI of this chapter. The term shall not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in Title 3.2 or Title 4.1. The term "controlled substance" includes a controlled substance analog that has been placed into Schedule I or II by the Board pursuant to the regulatory authority in subsection D of § 54.1-3443.
"Controlled substance analog" means a substance the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II and either (i) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II or (ii) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. "Controlled substance analog" does not include (a) any substance for which there is an approved new drug application as defined under § 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 355) or that is generally recognized as safe and effective pursuant to §§ 501, 502, and 503 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. §§ 351, 352, and 353) and 21 C.F.R. Part 330; (b) with respect to a particular person, any substance for which an exemption is in effect for investigational use for that person under § 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to the extent that the conduct with respect to that substance is pursuant to such exemption; or (c) any substance to the extent not intended for human consumption before such an exemption takes effect with respect to that substance.
"DEA" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, U.S. Department of Justice, or its successor agency.
"Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of any item regulated by this chapter, whether or not there exists an agency relationship, including delivery of a Schedule VI prescription device to an ultimate user or consumer on behalf of a medical equipment supplier by a manufacturer, nonresident manufacturer, wholesale distributor, nonresident wholesale distributor, warehouser, nonresident warehouser, third-party logistics provider, or nonresident third-party logistics provider at the direction of a medical equipment supplier in accordance with § 54.1-3415.1.
"Device" means instruments, apparatus, and contrivances, including their components, parts, and accessories, intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals or to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or animals.
"Dialysis care technician" or "dialysis patient care technician" means an individual who is certified by an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions pursuant to Chapter 27.01 (§ 54.1-2729.1 et seq.) and who, under the supervision of a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, or a registered nurse, assists in the care of patients undergoing renal dialysis treatments in a Medicare-certified renal dialysis facility.
"Dialysis solution" means either the commercially available, unopened, sterile solutions whose purpose is to be instilled into the peritoneal cavity during the medical procedure known as peritoneal dialysis, or commercially available solutions whose purpose is to be used in the performance of hemodialysis not to include any solutions administered to the patient intravenously.
"Dispense" means to deliver a drug to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the prescribing and administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery. However, dispensing shall not include the transportation of drugs mixed, diluted, or reconstituted in accordance with this chapter to other sites operated by such practitioner or that practitioner's medical practice for the purpose of administration of such drugs to patients of the practitioner or that practitioner's medical practice at such other sites. For practitioners of medicine or osteopathy, "dispense" shall only include the provision of drugs by a practitioner to patients to take with them away from the practitioner's place of practice.
"Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
"Distribute" means to deliver other than by administering or dispensing a controlled substance.
"Distributor" means a person who distributes.
"Drug" means (i) articles or substances recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia National Formulary or official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to any of them; (ii) articles or substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (iii) articles or substances, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or animals; (iv) articles or substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (i), (ii), or (iii); or (v) a biological product. "Drug" does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.
"Drug product" means a specific drug in dosage form from a known source of manufacture, whether by brand or therapeutically equivalent drug product name.
"Electronic prescription" means a written prescription that is generated on an electronic application and is transmitted to a pharmacy as an electronic data file; Schedule II through V prescriptions shall be transmitted in accordance with 21 C.F.R. Part 1300.
"Facsimile (FAX) prescription" means a written prescription or order that is transmitted by an electronic device over telephone lines that sends the exact image to the receiving pharmacy in hard copy form.
"FDA" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
"Immediate precursor" means a substance which the Board of Pharmacy has found to be and by regulation designates as being the principal compound commonly used or produced primarily for use, and which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of a controlled substance, the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit manufacture.
"Interchangeable" means a biosimilar that meets safety standards for determining interchangeability pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(k)(4).
"Label" means a display of written, printed, or graphic matter upon the immediate container of any article. A requirement made by or under authority of this chapter that any word, statement, or other information appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or other information also appears on the outside container or wrapper, if any, of the retail package of such article or is easily legible through the outside container or wrapper.
"Labeling" means all labels and other written, printed, or graphic matter on an article or any of its containers or wrappers, or accompanying such article.
"Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, conversion, or processing of any item regulated by this chapter, either directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of its container. This term does not include compounding.
"Manufacturer" means every person who manufactures, a manufacturer's co-licensed partner, or a repackager.
"Marijuana" means any part of a plant of the genus Cannabis whether growing or not, its seeds, or its resin; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, its resin, or any extract containing one or more cannabinoids. "Marijuana" does not include (i) the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalk, or oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, unless such stalks, fiber, oil, or cake is combined with other parts of plants of the genus Cannabis; (ii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person registered pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 or his agent; (iii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person who holds a hemp producer license issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture pursuant to 7 C.F.R. Part 990; (iv) a hemp product, as defined in § 3.2-4112; (v) an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1; or (vi) any substance containing a tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt, or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether that has been placed by the Board of Pharmacy into one of the schedules set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) pursuant to § 54.1-3443.
"Medical equipment supplier" means any person, as defined in § 1-230, engaged in the delivery to the ultimate consumer, pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, of hypodermic syringes and needles, medicinal oxygen, Schedule VI controlled devices, those Schedule VI controlled substances with no medicinal properties that are used for the operation and cleaning of medical equipment, solutions for peritoneal dialysis, and sterile water or saline for irrigation.
"Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: (i) opium, opiates, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates; (ii) any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in clause (i), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium; (iii) opium poppy and poppy straw; (iv) coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.
"New drug" means (i) any drug, except a new animal drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, the composition of which is such that such drug is not generally recognized, among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of drugs, as safe and effective for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling, except that such a drug not so recognized shall not be deemed to be a "new drug" if at any time prior to the enactment of this chapter it was subject to the Food and Drugs Act of June 30, 1906, as amended, and if at such time its labeling contained the same representations concerning the conditions of its use, or (ii) any drug, except a new animal drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, the composition of which is such that such drug, as a result of investigations to determine its safety and effectiveness for use under such conditions, has become so recognized, but which has not, otherwise than in such investigations, been used to a material extent or for a material time under such conditions.
"Nuclear medicine technologist" means an individual who holds a current certification with the American Registry of Radiological Technologists or the Nuclear Medicine Technology Certification Board.
"Official compendium" means the official United States Pharmacopoeia National Formulary, official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to any of them.
"Official written order" means an order written on a form provided for that purpose by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration, under any laws of the United States making provision therefor, if such order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no such order form is provided then on an official form provided for that purpose by the Board of Pharmacy.
"Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having such addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. It does not include, unless specifically designated as controlled under Article 4 (§ 54.1-3437 et seq.), the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-n-methylmorphinan and its salts (dextromethorphan). It does include its racemic and levorotatory forms.
"Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except the seeds thereof.
"Original package" means the unbroken container or wrapping in which any drug or medicine is enclosed together with label and labeling, put up by or for the manufacturer, wholesaler, or distributor for use in the delivery or display of such article.
"Outsourcing facility" means a facility that is engaged in the compounding of sterile drugs and is currently registered as an outsourcing facility with the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services and that complies with all applicable requirements of federal and state law, including the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
"Person" means both the plural and singular, as the case demands, and includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, governmental agency, trust, or other institution or entity.
"Pharmacist-in-charge" means the person who, being licensed as a pharmacist, signs the application for a pharmacy permit and assumes full legal responsibility for the operation of the relevant pharmacy in a manner complying with the laws and regulations for the practice of pharmacy and the sale and dispensing of controlled substances; the "pharmacist-in-charge" shall personally supervise the pharmacy and the pharmacy's personnel as required by § 54.1-3432.
"Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.
"Practitioner" means a physician, dentist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01 54.1-3045, licensed certified midwife pursuant to § 54.1-3050, licensed physician assistant pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1, pharmacist pursuant to § 54.1-3300, TPA-certified optometrist pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32, veterinarian, scientific investigator, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, prescribe and administer, or conduct research with respect to a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in the Commonwealth.
"Prescriber" means a practitioner who is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription.
"Prescription" means an order for drugs or medical supplies, written or signed or transmitted by word of mouth, telephone, telegraph, or other means of communication to a pharmacist by a duly licensed physician, dentist, veterinarian, or other practitioner authorized by law to prescribe and administer such drugs or medical supplies.
"Prescription drug" means any drug required by federal law or regulation to be dispensed only pursuant to a prescription, including finished dosage forms and active ingredients subject to § 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 353(b)).
"Production" or "produce" includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance or marijuana.
"Proprietary medicine" means a completely compounded nonprescription drug in its unbroken, original package which does not contain any controlled substance or marijuana as defined in this chapter and is not in itself poisonous, and which is sold, offered, promoted, or advertised directly to the general public by or under the authority of the manufacturer or primary distributor, under a trademark, trade name, or other trade symbol privately owned, and the labeling of which conforms to the requirements of this chapter and applicable federal law. However, this definition shall not include a drug that is only advertised or promoted professionally to licensed practitioners, a narcotic or drug containing a narcotic, a drug that may be dispensed only upon prescription or the label of which bears substantially the statement "Warning — may be habit-forming," or a drug intended for injection.
"Radiopharmaceutical" means any drug that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of nuclear particles or photons and includes any non-radioactive reagent kit or radionuclide generator that is intended to be used in the preparation of any such substance, but does not include drugs such as carbon-containing compounds or potassium-containing salts that include trace quantities of naturally occurring radionuclides. The term also includes any biological product that is labeled with a radionuclide or intended solely to be labeled with a radionuclide.
"Reference biological product" means the single biological product licensed pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(a) against which a biological product is evaluated in an application submitted to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for licensure of biological products as biosimilar or interchangeable pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(k).
"Sale" includes barter, exchange, or gift, or offer therefor, and each such transaction made by any person, whether as an individual, proprietor, agent, servant, or employee.
"Tetrahydrocannabinol" means any naturally occurring or synthetic tetrahydrocannabinol, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation and any preparation, mixture, or substance containing, or mixed or infused with, any detectable amount of tetrahydrocannabinol. For the purposes of this definition, "isomer" means the optical, position, and geometric isomers.
"Therapeutically equivalent drug products" means drug products that contain the same active ingredients and are identical in strength or concentration, dosage form, and route of administration and that are classified as being therapeutically equivalent by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration pursuant to the definition of "therapeutically equivalent drug products" set forth in the most recent edition of the Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, otherwise known as the "Orange Book."
"Third-party logistics provider" means a person that provides or coordinates warehousing of or other logistics services for a drug or device in interstate commerce on behalf of a manufacturer, wholesale distributor, or dispenser of the drug or device but does not take ownership of the product or have responsibility for directing the sale or disposition of the product.
"Total tetrahydrocannabinol" means the sum, after the application of any necessary conversion factor, of the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinol and the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinolic acid.
"USP-NF" means the current edition of the United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary.
"Warehouser" means any person, other than a wholesale distributor, manufacturer, or third-party logistics provider, engaged in the business of (i) selling or otherwise distributing prescription drugs or devices to any person who is not the ultimate user or consumer and (ii) delivering Schedule VI prescription devices to the ultimate user or consumer pursuant to § 54.1-3415.1. No person shall be subject to any state or local tax by reason of this definition.
"Wholesale distribution" means (i) distribution of prescription drugs to persons other than consumers or patients and (ii) delivery of Schedule VI prescription devices to the ultimate user or consumer pursuant to § 54.1-3415.1, subject to the exemptions set forth in the federal Drug Supply Chain Security Act.
"Wholesale distributor" means any person other than a manufacturer, a manufacturer's co-licensed partner, a third-party logistics provider, or a repackager that engages in wholesale distribution.
The words "drugs" and "devices" as used in Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) and in this chapter shall not include surgical or dental instruments, physical therapy equipment, X-ray apparatus, or glasses or lenses for the eyes.
The terms "pharmacist," "pharmacy," and "practice of pharmacy" as used in this chapter shall be defined as provided in Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) unless the context requires a different meaning.
§ 54.1-3408. Professional use by practitioners.
A. A practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, or veterinary medicine, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01 54.1-3045, a licensed certified midwife pursuant to § 54.1-2957.04 54.1-3050, a licensed physician assistant pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1, or a TPA-certified optometrist pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32 shall only prescribe, dispense, or administer controlled substances in good faith for medicinal or therapeutic purposes within the course of his professional practice. A licensed midwife pursuant to § 54.1-2957.7 shall only obtain, possess, and administer controlled substances in good faith for medicinal or therapeutic purposes within the course of his professional practice.
B. The prescribing practitioner's order may be on a written prescription or pursuant to an oral prescription as authorized by this chapter. The prescriber may administer drugs and devices, or he may cause drugs or devices to be administered by:
1. A nurse, physician assistant, or intern under his direction and supervision;
2. Persons trained to administer drugs and devices to patients in state-owned or state-operated hospitals or facilities licensed as hospitals by the Board of Health or psychiatric hospitals licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services who administer drugs under the control and supervision of the prescriber or a pharmacist;
3. Emergency medical services personnel certified and authorized to administer drugs and devices pursuant to regulations of the Board of Health who act within the scope of such certification and pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol;
4. Persons who are employed or engaged at a medical care facility, as defined in § 32.1-3, who have a valid emergency medical services provider certification issued by the Board of Health as a requirement of being employed or engaged at the medical care facility within the scope of such certification, pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol to administer drugs and devices at the medical care facility; or
5. A licensed respiratory therapist as defined in § 54.1-2954 who administers by inhalation controlled substances used in inhalation or respiratory therapy.
C. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol, the prescriber, who is authorized by state or federal law to possess and administer radiopharmaceuticals in the scope of his practice, may authorize a nuclear medicine technologist to administer, under his supervision, radiopharmaceuticals used in the diagnosis or treatment of disease.
D. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize registered nurses and licensed practical nurses to possess (i) epinephrine and oxygen for administration in treatment of emergency medical conditions and (ii) heparin and sterile normal saline to use for the maintenance of intravenous access lines.
Pursuant to the regulations of the Board of Health, certain emergency medical services technicians may possess and administer epinephrine in emergency cases of anaphylactic shock.
Pursuant to an order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any school nurse, school board employee, employee of a local governing body, or employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.
Pursuant to an order or standing protocol that shall be issued by the local health director within the course of his professional practice, any school nurse, licensed athletic trainer under contract with a local school division, school board employee, employee of a local governing body, or employee of a local health department who is authorized by the local health director and trained in the administration of albuterol inhalers and valved holding chambers or nebulized albuterol may possess or administer an albuterol inhaler and a valved holding chamber or nebulized albuterol to a student diagnosed with a condition requiring an albuterol inhaler or nebulized albuterol when the student is believed to be experiencing or about to experience an asthmatic crisis.
Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of a school for students with disabilities, as defined in § 22.1-319 and licensed by the Board of Education, or any employee of a private school that is accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of (a) epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine and (b) albuterol inhalers or nebulized albuterol may possess or administer an albuterol inhaler or nebulized albuterol to a student diagnosed with a condition requiring an albuterol inhaler or nebulized albuterol when the student is believed to be experiencing or about to experience an asthmatic crisis.
Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any nurse at an early childhood care and education entity, employee at the entity, or employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.
Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of a public institution of higher education or a private institution of higher education who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.
Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of an organization providing outdoor educational experiences or programs for youth who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.
Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, and in accordance with policies and guidelines established by the Department of Health, such prescriber may authorize any employee of a restaurant licensed pursuant to Chapter 3 (§ 35.1-18 et seq.) of Title 35.1 to possess and administer epinephrine on the premises of the restaurant at which the employee is employed, provided that such person is trained in the administration of epinephrine.
Pursuant to an order issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, an employee of a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or a person providing services pursuant to a contract with a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services may possess and administer epinephrine, provided such person is authorized and trained in the administration of epinephrine.
Pursuant to an order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of a public place, as defined in § 15.2-2820, who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.
Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize pharmacists to possess epinephrine and oxygen for administration in treatment of emergency medical conditions.
E. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize licensed physical therapists to possess and administer topical corticosteroids, topical lidocaine, and any other Schedule VI topical drug.
F. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize licensed athletic trainers to possess and administer topical corticosteroids, topical lidocaine, or other Schedule VI topical drugs; oxygen and IV saline for use in emergency situations; subcutaneous lidocaine for wound closure; epinephrine for use in emergency cases of anaphylactic shock; and naloxone or other opioid antagonist for overdose reversal.
G. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, and in accordance with policies and guidelines established by the Department of Health pursuant to § 32.1-50.2, such prescriber may authorize registered nurses or licensed practical nurses under the supervision of a registered nurse to possess and administer tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) in the absence of a prescriber. The Department of Health's policies and guidelines shall be consistent with applicable guidelines developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for preventing transmission of mycobacterium tuberculosis and shall be updated to incorporate any subsequently implemented standards of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Department of Labor and Industry to the extent that they are inconsistent with the Department of Health's policies and guidelines. Such standing protocols shall explicitly describe the categories of persons to whom the tuberculin test is to be administered and shall provide for appropriate medical evaluation of those in whom the test is positive. The prescriber shall ensure that the nurse implementing such standing protocols has received adequate training in the practice and principles underlying tuberculin screening.
The Health Commissioner or his designee may authorize registered nurses, acting as agents of the Department of Health, to possess and administer, at the nurse's discretion, tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) to those persons in whom tuberculin skin testing is indicated based on protocols and policies established by the Department of Health.
H. Pursuant to a written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize, with the consent of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, an employee of (i) a school board, (ii) a school for students with disabilities as defined in § 22.1-319 licensed by the Board of Education, or (iii) a private school accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education who is trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon to assist with the administration of insulin or administer glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections during the school day or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia. Such authorization shall only be effective when a licensed nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician, or a physician assistant is not present to perform the administration of the medication.
Pursuant to a written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize an employee of a public institution of higher education or a private institution of higher education who is trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon to assist with the administration of insulin or administration of glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia. Such authorization shall only be effective when a licensed nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician, or a physician assistant is not present to perform the administration of the medication.
Pursuant to a written order issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize an employee of a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or a person providing services pursuant to a contract with a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to assist with the administration of insulin or to administer glucagon to a person diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia, provided such employee or person providing services has been trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon.
I. A prescriber may authorize, pursuant to a protocol approved by the Board of Nursing, the administration of vaccines to adults for immunization, when a practitioner with prescriptive authority is not physically present, by (i) licensed pharmacists, (ii) registered nurses, or (iii) licensed practical nurses under the supervision of a registered nurse. A prescriber acting on behalf of and in accordance with established protocols of the Department of Health may authorize the administration of vaccines to any person by a pharmacist, nurse, or designated emergency medical services provider who holds an advanced life support certificate issued by the Commissioner of Health under the direction of an operational medical director when the prescriber is not physically present. The emergency medical services provider shall provide documentation of the vaccines to be recorded in the Virginia Immunization Information System.
J. A dentist may cause Schedule VI topical drugs to be administered under his direction and supervision by either a dental hygienist or by an authorized agent of the dentist.
Further, pursuant to a written order and in accordance with a standing protocol issued by the dentist in the course of his professional practice, a dentist may authorize a dental hygienist under his general supervision, as defined in § 54.1-2722, or his remote supervision, as defined in subsection E or F of § 54.1-2722, to possess and administer topical oral fluorides, topical oral anesthetics, topical and directly applied antimicrobial agents for treatment of periodontal pocket lesions, and any other Schedule VI topical drug approved by the Board of Dentistry.
In addition, a dentist may authorize a dental hygienist under his direction to administer Schedule VI nitrous oxide and oxygen inhalation analgesia and, to persons 18 years of age or older, Schedule VI local anesthesia.
K. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize registered professional nurses certified as sexual assault nurse examiners-A (SANE-A) under his supervision and when he is not physically present to possess and administer preventive medications for victims of sexual assault as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
L. This section shall not prevent the administration of drugs by a person who has satisfactorily completed a training program for this purpose approved by the Board of Nursing and who administers such drugs in accordance with a prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration, and in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy relating to security and record keeping, when the drugs administered would be normally self-administered by (i) an individual receiving services in a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services; (ii) a resident of the Virginia Rehabilitation Center for the Blind and Vision Impaired; (iii) a resident of a facility approved by the Board or Department of Juvenile Justice for the placement of children in need of services or delinquent or alleged delinquent youth; (iv) a program participant of an adult day-care center licensed by the Department of Social Services; (v) a resident of any facility authorized or operated by a state or local government whose primary purpose is not to provide health care services; (vi) a resident of a private children's residential facility, as defined in § 63.2-100 and licensed by the Department of Social Services, Department of Education, or Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services; or (vii) a student in a school for students with disabilities, as defined in § 22.1-319 and licensed by the Board of Education.
In addition, this section shall not prevent a person who has successfully completed a training program for the administration of drugs via percutaneous gastrostomy tube approved by the Board of Nursing and been evaluated by a registered nurse as having demonstrated competency in administration of drugs via percutaneous gastrostomy tube from administering drugs to a person receiving services from a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to such person via percutaneous gastrostomy tube. The continued competency of a person to administer drugs via percutaneous gastrostomy tube shall be evaluated semiannually by a registered nurse.
M. Medication aides registered by the Board of Nursing pursuant to Article 7 (§ 54.1-3041 et seq.) of Chapter 30 may administer drugs that would otherwise be self-administered to residents of any assisted living facility licensed by the Department of Social Services. A registered medication aide shall administer drugs pursuant to this section in accordance with the prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration; in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy relating to security and recordkeeping; in accordance with the assisted living facility's Medication Management Plan; and in accordance with such other regulations governing their practice promulgated by the Board of Nursing.
N. In addition, this section shall not prevent the administration of drugs by a person who administers such drugs in accordance with a physician's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration and with written authorization of a parent, and in accordance with school board regulations relating to training, security and record keeping, when the drugs administered would be normally self-administered by a student of a Virginia public school. Training for such persons shall be accomplished through a program approved by the local school boards, in consultation with the local departments of health.
O. In addition, this section shall not prevent the administration of drugs by a person to (i) a child in a child day program as defined in § 22.1-289.02 and regulated by the Board of Education or a local government pursuant to § 15.2-914, or (ii) a student of a private school that is accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education, provided such person (a) has satisfactorily completed a training program for this purpose approved by the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, a licensed practical nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or a pharmacist; (b) has obtained written authorization from a parent or guardian; (c) administers drugs only to the child identified on the prescription label in accordance with the prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration; and (d) administers only those drugs that were dispensed from a pharmacy and maintained in the original, labeled container that would normally be self-administered by the child or student, or administered by a parent or guardian to the child or student.
P. In addition, this section shall not prevent the administration or dispensing of drugs and devices by persons if they are authorized by the State Health Commissioner in accordance with protocols established by the State Health Commissioner pursuant to § 32.1-42.1 when (i) the Governor has declared a disaster or a state of emergency, the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services has issued a declaration of an actual or potential bioterrorism incident or other actual or potential public health emergency, or the Board of Health has made an emergency order pursuant to § 32.1-13 for the purpose of suppressing nuisances dangerous to the public health and communicable, contagious, and infectious diseases and other dangers to the public life and health and for the limited purpose of administering vaccines as an approved countermeasure for such communicable, contagious, and infectious diseases; (ii) it is necessary to permit the provision of needed drugs or devices; and (iii) such persons have received the training necessary to safely administer or dispense the needed drugs or devices. Such persons shall administer or dispense all drugs or devices under the direction, control, and supervision of the State Health Commissioner.
Q. Nothing in this title shall prohibit the administration of normally self-administered drugs by unlicensed individuals to a person in his private residence.
R. This section shall not interfere with any prescriber issuing prescriptions in compliance with his authority and scope of practice and the provisions of this section to a Board agent for use pursuant to subsection G of § 18.2-258.1. Such prescriptions issued by such prescriber shall be deemed to be valid prescriptions.
S. Nothing in this title shall prevent or interfere with dialysis care technicians or dialysis patient care technicians who are certified by an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions or persons authorized for provisional practice pursuant to Chapter 27.01 (§ 54.1-2729.1 et seq.), in the ordinary course of their duties in a Medicare-certified renal dialysis facility, from administering heparin, topical needle site anesthetics, dialysis solutions, sterile normal saline solution, and blood volumizers, for the purpose of facilitating renal dialysis treatment, when such administration of medications occurs under the orders of a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant and under the immediate and direct supervision of a licensed registered nurse. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prohibit a patient care dialysis technician trainee from performing dialysis care as part of and within the scope of the clinical skills instruction segment of a supervised dialysis technician training program, provided such trainee is identified as a "trainee" while working in a renal dialysis facility.
The dialysis care technician or dialysis patient care technician administering the medications shall have demonstrated competency as evidenced by holding current valid certification from an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions pursuant to Chapter 27.01 (§ 54.1-2729.1 et seq.).
T. Persons who are otherwise authorized to administer controlled substances in hospitals shall be authorized to administer influenza or pneumococcal vaccines pursuant to § 32.1-126.4.
U. Pursuant to a specific order for a patient and under his direct and immediate supervision, a prescriber may authorize the administration of controlled substances by personnel who have been properly trained to assist a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, provided the method does not include intravenous, intrathecal, or epidural administration and the prescriber remains responsible for such administration.
V. A physician assistant, nurse, dental hygienist, or authorized agent of a doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or dentistry may possess and administer topical fluoride varnish pursuant to an oral or written order or a standing protocol issued by a doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or dentistry.
W. A prescriber, acting in accordance with guidelines developed pursuant to § 32.1-46.02, may authorize the administration of influenza vaccine to minors by a licensed pharmacist, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse under the direction and immediate supervision of a registered nurse, or emergency medical services provider who holds an advanced life support certificate issued by the Commissioner of Health when the prescriber is not physically present.
X. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-3303, pursuant to an oral, written, or standing order issued by a prescriber or a standing order issued by the Commissioner of Health or his designee authorizing the dispensing of naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal in the absence of an oral or written order for a specific patient issued by a prescriber, and in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health, a pharmacist, a health care provider providing services in a hospital emergency department, and emergency medical services personnel, as that term is defined in § 32.1-111.1, may dispense naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal and a person to whom naloxone or other opioid antagonist has been dispensed pursuant to this subsection may possess and administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal to a person who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opioid overdose. Law-enforcement officers as defined in § 9.1-101, employees of the Department of Forensic Science, employees of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, employees of the Department of General Services Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services, employees of the Department of Corrections designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or designated as probation and parole officers or as correctional officers as defined in § 53.1-1, employees of the Department of Juvenile Justice designated as probation and parole officers or as juvenile correctional officers, employees of regional jails, school nurses, local health department employees that are assigned to a public school pursuant to an agreement between the local health department and the school board, other school board employees or individuals contracted by a school board to provide school health services, and firefighters may also possess and administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal and may dispense naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal pursuant to an oral, written, or standing order issued by a prescriber or a standing order issued by the Commissioner of Health or his designee in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health.
Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-3303, pursuant to an oral, written, or standing order issued by a prescriber or a standing order issued by the Commissioner of Health or his designee authorizing the dispensing of naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal in the absence of an oral or written order for a specific patient issued by a prescriber, and in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health, any person may possess and administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal, other than naloxone in an injectable formulation with a hypodermic needle or syringe, in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health.
Y. Notwithstanding any other law or regulation to the contrary, a person who is acting on behalf of an organization that provides services to individuals at risk of experiencing an opioid overdose or training in the administration of naloxone for overdose reversal may dispense naloxone, provided that such dispensing is (i) pursuant to a standing order issued by a prescriber and (ii) in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health. If the person acting on behalf of an organization dispenses naloxone in an injectable formulation with a hypodermic needle or syringe, he shall first obtain authorization from the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to train individuals on the proper administration of naloxone by and proper disposal of a hypodermic needle or syringe, and he shall obtain a controlled substance registration from the Board of Pharmacy. The Board of Pharmacy shall not charge a fee for the issuance of such controlled substance registration. The dispensing may occur at a site other than that of the controlled substance registration provided the entity possessing the controlled substances registration maintains records in accordance with regulations of the Board of Pharmacy. No person who dispenses naloxone on behalf of an organization pursuant to this subsection shall charge a fee for the dispensing of naloxone that is greater than the cost to the organization of obtaining the naloxone dispensed. A person to whom naloxone has been dispensed pursuant to this subsection may possess naloxone and may administer naloxone to a person who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opioid overdose.
Z. A person who is not otherwise authorized to administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal may administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal to a person who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opioid overdose.
AA. Pursuant to a written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize, with the consent of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, an employee of (i) a school board, (ii) a school for students with disabilities as defined in § 22.1-319 licensed by the Board of Education, or (iii) a private school accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education who is trained in the administration of injected medications for the treatment of adrenal crisis resulting from a condition causing adrenal insufficiency to administer such medication to a student diagnosed with a condition causing adrenal insufficiency when the student is believed to be experiencing or about to experience an adrenal crisis. Such authorization shall be effective only when a licensed nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician, or a physician assistant is not present to perform the administration of the medication.
§ 54.1-3482. Practice of physical therapy; certain experience and referrals required; physical therapist assistants.
A. It shall be is unlawful for a person to engage in the practice of physical therapy except as a licensed physical therapist, upon the referral and direction of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician, except as provided in this section.
B. A physical therapist who has completed a doctor of physical therapy program approved by the Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education or who has obtained a certificate of authorization pursuant to § 54.1-3482.1 may evaluate and treat a patient without a referral under the following conditions: (i) the patient is not receiving care from any licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician for the symptoms giving rise to the presentation at the time of the presentation to the physical therapist for physical therapy services or (ii) the patient is receiving care from a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician at the time of his presentation to the physical therapist for the symptoms giving rise to the presentation for physical therapy services and (a) the patient identifies a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician from whom he is currently receiving care; (b) the patient gives written consent for the physical therapist to release all personal health information and treatment records to the identified practitioner; and (c) the physical therapist notifies the practitioner identified by the patient no later than 14 days after treatment commences and provides the practitioner with a copy of the initial evaluation along with a copy of the patient history obtained by the physical therapist.
C. A physical therapist who has not completed a doctor of physical therapy program approved by the Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education or who has not obtained a certificate of authorization pursuant to § 54.1-3482.1 may conduct a one-time evaluation that does not include treatment of a patient without the referral and direction of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician; if appropriate, the physical therapist shall immediately refer such patient to the appropriate practitioner.
D. Invasive procedures within the scope of practice of physical therapy, except for the practice of dry needling, shall at all times be performed only under the referral and direction of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician. Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize a physical therapist in the practice of dry needling to fail to comply with the provisions of § 54.1-2956.9.
E. It shall be is unlawful for any licensed physical therapist to fail to immediately refer any patient to a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044 when such patient's medical condition is determined, at the time of evaluation or treatment, to be beyond the physical therapist's scope of practice. Upon determining that the patient's medical condition is beyond the scope of practice of a physical therapist, a physical therapist shall immediately refer such patient to an appropriate practitioner.
F. Any person licensed as a physical therapist assistant shall perform his duties only under the direction and control of a licensed physical therapist.
G. However, a licensed physical therapist may provide, without referral or supervision, physical therapy services to (i) a student athlete participating in a school-sponsored athletic activity while such student is at such activity in a public, private, or religious elementary, middle or high school, or public or private institution of higher education when such services are rendered by a licensed physical therapist who is certified as an athletic trainer by the National Athletic Trainers' Association Board of Certification or as a sports certified specialist by the American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties; (ii) employees solely for the purpose of evaluation and consultation related to workplace ergonomics; (iii) infants and toddlers, from birth to age three, who require physical therapy services to fulfill the provisions of their individualized services plan under Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. § 1431 et seq.) and students with disabilities who require physical therapy services to fulfill the provisions of their individualized education plan or physical therapy services provided under § 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. § 794 et seq.); (iv) the public for the purpose of wellness, fitness, and health screenings; (v) the public for the purpose of health promotion and education; and (vi) the public for the purpose of prevention of impairments, functional limitations, and disabilities.
§ 54.1-3482.1. Certain certification required.
A. The Board shall promulgate regulations establishing criteria for certification of physical therapists to provide certain physical therapy services pursuant to subsection B of § 54.1-3482 without referral from a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dental surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse practicing in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957 54.1-3044, or a licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician. The regulations shall include but not be limited to provisions for (i) the promotion of patient safety; (ii) an application process for a one-time certification to perform such procedures; and (iii) minimum education, training, and experience requirements for certification to perform such procedures.
B. The minimum education, training, and experience requirements for certification shall include evidence that the applicant has successfully completed (i) a transitional program in physical therapy as recognized by the Board or (ii) at least three years of active practice with evidence of continuing education relating to carrying out direct access duties under § 54.1-3482.
§ 63.2-2203. Grant application process; administration.
A. Grant applications shall be submitted by caregivers to the Department between February 1 and May 1 of the year following the calendar year in which the care for a mentally or physically impaired person was provided. Failure to meet the application deadline shall render the caregiver ineligible to receive a grant for care provided during such calendar year. For filings by mail, the postmark cancellation shall govern the date of the filing determination.
B. Applications for grants shall include (i) proof of the caregiver's income and that of the caregiver's spouse, if applicable; (ii) certification by the private physician, licensed physician assistant pursuant to § 54.1-2951.2, or advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.02 54.1-3047 who has screened the mentally or physically impaired person and found him to be eligible, in accordance with relevant state regulations, for placement in an assisted-living facility or a nursing home or for receiving community long-term care services; (iii) the mentally or physically impaired person's place of residence; and (iv) such other relevant information as the Department may reasonably require. Any caregiver applying for the grant pursuant to this chapter shall affirm, by signing and submitting his application for a grant, that the mentally or physically impaired person for whom he provided care and the care provided meet the criteria set forth in this chapter. As a condition of receipt of a grant, a caregiver shall agree to make available to the Department for inspection, upon request, all relevant and applicable documents to determine whether the caregiver meets the requirements for the receipt of grants as set forth in this chapter, and to consent to the use by the Department of all relevant information relating to eligibility for the requested grant.
C. The Department shall review applications for grants and determine eligibility and the amount of the grant to be allocated to each eligible caregiver. If the moneys in the Fund are less than the amount of grants to which applicants are eligible for caregiver services provided in the preceding calendar year, the moneys in the Fund shall be apportioned among eligible applicants pro rata, based upon the amount of the grant for which an applicant is eligible and the amount of money in the Fund.
D. The Department shall certify to the Comptroller the amount of grant to be allocated to eligible caregiver applicants. Payments shall be made by check issued by the State Treasurer on warrant of the Comptroller. The Comptroller shall not draw any warrants to issue checks for this program without a specific legislative appropriation as specified in conditions and restrictions on expenditures in the appropriation act.
E. Actions of the Department relating to the review, allocation and awarding of grants shall be exempt from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) pursuant to subdivision B 4 of § 2.2-4002. Decisions of the Department shall be final and not subject to review or appeal.
2. That §§ 54.1-2957 through 54.1-2957.04 of the Code of Virginia are repealed.